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Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 MCQs Set-4 (English Medium)
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1. Administrator-General must give:
a. Surety bond only
b. Undertaking to pay fee within time fixed by Court
c. Appeal memo
d. Income certificate
2. Section 52 ensures probate is not delayed due to:
a. Police investigation
b. Administrative valuation reference
c. Criminal trial
d. Execution proceedings
3. Probate fee must be at least:
a. Minimum fixed ₹10
b. Prescribed under Act on estate value
c. Zero if delayed
d. Optional
4. Court considers valuation for probate based on:
a. Plaintiff’s opinion only
b. Filed valuation (original or amended)
c. Defendant claim
d. Collector discretion only
5. Section 52 mainly regulates:
a. Execution of decree
b. Timing of probate grant and fee payment condition
c. Appeals procedure
d. Partition suits
6. Amended valuation referred in Section 52 comes from:
a. Section 35
b. Section 54(3)
c. Section 48
d. Section 45
7. If full court fee has already been paid for probate of entire estate, a later similar grant is:
a. Charged again fully
b. Free of fee
c. Charged at double rate
d. Subject to penalty
8. Section 53(1) applies when:
a. Probate is refused
b. A like grant is made for same estate after full fee already paid
c. Appeal is filed
d. Estate is partitioned
9. Under Section 53(2), fee adjustment is based on:
a. Fresh valuation only
b. Deduction of fee already paid
c. Double valuation
d. No deduction allowed
10. Section 54 deals with inquiry by:
a. Court only
b. Collector
c. Police officer
d. Registrar only
11. Collector may inquire into:
a. Criminal liability
b. Correctness of estate valuation
c. Witness credibility
d. Appeal merits
12. If Collector finds under-valuation, he may:
a. Dismiss probate application
b. Require applicant to amend valuation
c. Cancel estate
d. File appeal directly
13. Amended valuation must be filed in Court when:
a. Collector demands and application is pending
b. Appeal is filed
c. Execution starts
d. Suit is dismissed
14. If probate is already granted and fee is insufficient, Collector proceeds under:
a. Section 45(3)
b. Section 56(4)
c. Section 35(2)
d. Section 20(1)
15. If excess fee is paid in probate valuation, it is:
a. Forfeited
b. Refunded
c. Transferred to State treasury only
d. Ignored
16. Collector can move Court if valuation is not amended within:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months from inventory exhibition
c. 1 year
d. No time limit
17. When moved by Collector, Court shall hold inquiry into:
a. Criminal liability of applicant
b. True value of estate
c. Validity of will only
d. Execution of decree
18. In inquiry under Section 55, Collector is deemed:
a. Witness only
b. Party to inquiry
c. Judge
d. Appellant
19. Court may examine applicant:
a. Only through written statement
b. On oath in person or by commission
c. Only through affidavit
d. Only in appeal
20. Inquiry may be conducted by:
a. Only Supreme Court
b. Court or subordinate Court/officer authorised
c. Police officer
d. Revenue Inspector only
21. Evidence recorded in inquiry is treated as:
a. Irrelevant
b. Evidence in proceedings
c. Confidential only
d. Invalid
22. Report of subordinate Court/officer is:
a. Advisory only, not evidence
b. Evidence in proceedings
c. Ignored by Court
d. Sent to Police
23. Finding of Court on true value of estate is:
a. Provisional
b. Final
c. Appealable automatically
d. Advisory only
24. Section 55 inquiry is triggered when:
a. Appeal is filed
b. Collector moves Court under Section 54(5)
c. Execution starts
d. Suit is withdrawn
25. Court may also decide:
a. Criminal penalty
b. Costs of inquiry
c. Bail conditions
d. Property seizure
26. Main purpose of Section 55 is to:
a. Decide appeals
b. Determine true estate value for probate fee
c. Grant injunctions
d. Fix limitation
27. Section 56 applies when:
a. Excess fee is paid on appeal
b. Too low fee is paid on probate or letters of administration
c. Criminal fine is imposed
d. Suit is withdrawn
28. Deficit fee must be paid within:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
29. If deficit fee is not paid within 6 months, penalty is:
a. Fixed ₹100
b. Double deficit fee
c. Five times deficit fee
d. No penalty
30. Collector will stamp probate if mistake is:
a. Intentional fraud
b. Bona fide mistake without intent to defraud
c. Criminal act
d. Appeal pending
31. If payment delay is not bona fide, penalty may be up to:
a. Equal to deficit fee
b. Twice deficit fee
c. Five times deficit fee
d. No penalty
32. Section 56(3) applies when:
a. Application is timely and correct
b. No application is made within 6 months or mistake is not bona fide
c. Appeal is filed
d. Probate is refused
33. Under Section 56(4), Collector acts when deficit fee is found:
a. Before probate only
b. After grant of probate due to inquiry or otherwise
c. Only during appeal
d. Only before suit
34. If under-valuation is not bona fide, penalty under Section 56(4) is:
a. Mandatory fixed penalty
b. Up to five times deficit fee
c. No penalty
d. Refund of fee
35. Authority to remit penalty lies with:
a. High Court
b. Board of Revenue
c. Collector only
d. State Police
36. Main purpose of Section 56 is:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Correction and penalty for deficit probate fee
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Jurisdiction rules
37. Under Section 57, the Collector will stamp letters of administration only when:
a. Appeal is filed
b. Security is given by administrator
c. Suit is withdrawn
d. Witnesses are examined
38. Section 57 applies when:
a. Excess fee is paid
b. Too low fee is paid on letters of administration
c. No probate is applied
d. Criminal case is pending
39. Security under Section 57 must be given to:
a. Police station
b. Court granting letters of administration
c. Collector office only
d. Revenue tribunal
40. Purpose of security under Section 57 is to ensure:
a. Criminal compliance
b. Protection as if full estate value was known earlier
c. Faster appeal
d. Witness attendance
41. Collector shall not stamp letters until:
a. Appeal is decided
b. Required security is furnished
c. Execution starts
d. Costs are paid by plaintiff
42. Section 57 deals with:
a. Probate delay
b. Deficit fee and security in letters of administration
c. Injunction suits
d. Partition suits
43. Security is required because:
a. Estate value is unknown initially
b. Criminal liability exists
c. Appeal is filed
d. Suit is withdrawn
44. Section 57 is linked with:
a. Section 56 procedure of deficit fee
b. Section 45 valuation
c. Section 35 partition rules
d. Section 20 appeal fee
45. Authority responsible to stamp letters is:
a. High Court
b. Collector
c. Police officer
d. Registrar
46. Main objective of Section 57 is:
a. Fix appeal fee
b. Ensure proper security before validating underpaid probate/letters
c. Decide jurisdiction
d. Grant injunction
47. Section 58 applies when:
a. No fee is paid on probate
b. Higher fee is paid than actually payable
c. Appeal fee is unpaid
d. Criminal penalty is imposed
48. Application for refund under Section 58 is made to:
a. High Court
b. Collector
c. Police officer
d. Registrar
49. Refund application must be accompanied by:
a. FIR report
b. Amended valuation and probate/letters of administration
c. Appeal memo
d. Witness statement
50. If Collector is satisfied, he shall:
a. Reject refund
b. Endorse certificate and refund excess fee
c. Transfer case to court
d. Increase fee further
51. Refund under Section 58 is not allowed after:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years (unless extended)
d. 5 years
52. Extension of refund period may be granted by:
a. Police
b. Collector
c. High Court only
d. Registrar
53. Collector may allow extended time if delay is due to:
a. Personal negligence
b. Pending legal proceedings affecting estate settlement
c. Appeal filing
d. Witness absence
54. If Collector refuses refund, appeal lies to:
a. Supreme Court
b. Board of Revenue
c. District Court
d. Police Commissioner
55. Refund is based on:
a. Estimated value only
b. Difference between fee paid and fee payable on true value
c. Fixed amount
d. Court discretion
56. Section 58 mainly deals with:
a. Excess court fee refund in probate matters
b. Criminal penalties
c. Jurisdiction of courts
d. Injunction relief
57. Excess fee, costs, penalty or forfeiture under probate provisions is recovered as:
a. Civil suit recovery
b. Arrear of land revenue
c. Criminal fine
d. Appeal cost only
58. Recovery of penalties under Section 59 requires certificate of:
a. Collector
b. Court
c. Board of Revenue
d. Police authority
59. Section 59 applies to:
a. Only civil suits
b. Probate and letters of administration matters
c. Criminal appeals only
d. Land acquisition cases only
60. Amount recoverable under Section 59 includes:
a. Only court fees
b. Excess fee, costs, penalties, forfeiture
c. Only stamp duty
d. Only appeal fee
61. Recovery under Section 59 is treated as:
a. Civil decree execution
b. Arrears of land revenue
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Administrative penalty only
62. Section 60 provides control of:
a. High Court over Collector
b. Board of Revenue over Collector
c. Supreme Court over Board
d. District Court over Collector
63. Powers of Collector under Chapter relating to probate are:
a. Independent
b. Subject to Board of Revenue control
c. Subject to Police control
d. Subject to Municipal control
64. Certificate for recovery is issued by:
a. Court
b. Board of Revenue
c. Collector
d. Tehsildar
65. Section 60 mainly deals with:
a. Appeals procedure
b. Administrative supervision
c. Criminal jurisdiction
d. Probate valuation
66. The recovery mechanism under Section 59 is:
a. Private arbitration
b. Revenue recovery process
c. Civil suit execution
d. Mutual settlement
67. Under Section 61(1), refund of court fee may be ordered when:
a. Suit is decreed
b. Plaint or appeal is rejected under Order 7 Rule 11 or Order 41 Rule 3 or 11 CPC
c. Execution is filed
d. Criminal appeal is dismissed
68. Refund under Section 61(1) is:
a. Mandatory in all cases
b. Discretionary (whole or part)
c. Not allowed
d. Fixed at 50% always
69. If appeal is rejected as time-barred, refund is:
a. Full fee
b. Half of the fee
c. No refund
d. Double fee
70. Section 61 applies to rejection of:
a. Only plaints
b. Plaint and memorandum of appeal
c. Only execution petitions
d. Only criminal appeals
71. Under Section 62(1), refund may be directed when:
a. Suit is dismissed finally
b. Suit/appeal is remanded or rejected order is reversed
c. Appeal is withdrawn
d. Execution is complete
72. On remand, refund can include:
a. Only trial court fee
b. Full appellate court fee as specified
c. No refund allowed
d. Only stamp duty
73. If remand is due to party’s fault:
a. Full refund is mandatory
b. No refund shall be ordered
c. Double refund is given
d. Fee is waived automatically
74. If remand covers only part of subject-matter, refund is:
a. Full fee always
b. Limited to fee for that part only
c. No refund
d. Double refund
75. Section 62(2) mainly deals with:
a. Trial court execution
b. Remand by High Court in second appeal or single judge appeal
c. Criminal revision
d. Arbitration awards
76. Primary nature of refund under Sections 61 and 62 is:
a. Punitive
b. Discretionary and conditional
c. Automatic in all cases
d. Criminal penalty
77. Under Section 63(1), refund is granted when review is admitted due to:
a. Change of law
b. Mistake or error apparent on record
c. Delay in filing
d. Jurisdiction defect only
78. If review leads to reversal/modification, refund applies to:
a. Entire court fee always
b. Excess over fee payable under Schedule II Article 11(g),(h)
c. Only half fee
d. No refund
79. Under Section 63(2), refund is allowed when fee is:
a. Excess paid by mistake or inadvertence
b. Paid after limitation
c. Paid in appeal only
d. Paid in execution only
80. Section 63 mainly deals with:
a. Jurisdiction rules
b. Refund due to mistake
c. Penalties in probate
d. Appeal valuation
81. Mukhtarnama and vakalatnama are exempt when executed by:
a. Civil servants
b. Armed Forces personnel not in civil employment
c. Lawyers only
d. Judges only
82. Application for supply of irrigation water is:
a. Always chargeable
b. Exempt from fee
c. Subject to penalty
d. Appeal only
83. Bail bonds in criminal cases are:
a. Fully chargeable
b. Exempt from court fee
c. Partly chargeable
d. Taxable
84. Complaint to police officer regarding offence is:
a. Chargeable
b. Exempt
c. Appealable only
d. Penal
85. Application for compensation under land acquisition laws is:
a. Chargeable
b. Exempt from fee
c. Taxable
d. Not maintainable
86. Main purpose of Section 64 is:
a. Fix valuation rules
b. Provide exemption from court fees for specified documents
c. Determine appeals
d. Levy penalties
87. Under Section 65, State Government may reduce or remit fees by:
a. Court order only
b. Notification in Official Gazette
c. Collector order
d. Board resolution
88. Power under Section 65 includes:
a. Only increase fees
b. Reduce or remit fees
c. Only collect fees
d. Fix jurisdiction
89. Notification under Section 65 can be:
a. Permanent only
b. Cancelled or varied later
c. Approved by police
d. Issued only once
90. Section 65A empowers exemption of fees:
a. By Court decree
b. By State Government notification in public interest
c. By Collector order
d. By Supreme Court order
91. Under Section 65A, exemption may apply to:
a. Only criminal cases
b. Any class of persons for any category of suits
c. Only appeals
d. Only probate cases
92. Section 65B applies when settlement is under:
a. Section 100 CPC
b. Section 89 CPC
c. Section 11 CPC
d. Section 151 CPC
93. Under Section 65B, plaintiff is entitled to:
a. Half fee refund
b. Full refund of court fee paid
c. No refund
d. Double refund
94. Refund under Section 65B is given after:
a. Trial judgment
b. Settlement through ADR modes under Section 89 CPC
c. Appeal decision
d. Execution stage
95. Under Section 66(1), court fees under the Act are collected by:
a. Cash payment
b. Stamps
c. Bank draft only
d. Cheque only
96. Section 66 provides that fees are collected through:
a. Only impressed stamps
b. Only adhesive stamps
c. Impressed, adhesive, or both as notified
d. Electronic transfer only
97. Type of stamps used under Section 66 is determined by:
a. Court rules only
b. State Government notification
c. Collector order
d. Supreme Court direction
98. Primary method of collecting court fees is:
a. Court order
b. Stamps
c. Police recovery
d. Treasury challan only
99. Section 67 applies when a document is:
a. Newly executed
b. Amended to correct a mistake
c. Rejected by Court
d. Filed in appeal
100. Under Section 67, if amendment only corrects mistake:
a. Fresh stamp is required always
b. No fresh stamp is required
c. Double stamp is required
d. Penalty is imposed
101. Purpose of Section 67 is to:
a. Increase court fees
b. Avoid unnecessary stamping on corrected documents
c. Penalize litigants
d. Fix jurisdiction
102. Amendment under Section 67 must:
a. Change cause of action
b. Only conform to original intention of parties
c. Add new parties only
d. Alter court jurisdiction
103. Under Section 68(1), no document shall be filed or acted upon unless:
a. It is notarised
b. The stamp is cancelled
c. It is registered
d. It is attested by Collector
104. Cancellation of stamp under Section 68 is done by:
a. Court clerk destroying the document
b. Punching out the figure head leaving amount intact
c. Burning the entire stamp paper
d. Writing “cancelled” only
105. The part removed by punching is:
a. Preserved in record
b. Returned to party
c. Burnt or destroyed
d. Sent to Collector
106. Purpose of Section 68 is to:
a. Increase stamp value
b. Ensure stamps are invalidated after use
c. Reduce litigation
d. Fix valuation of suits
107. Under Section 69, Collector may give in exchange:
a. Only cash refund
b. Same value in stamps or money
c. Only new litigation papers
d. Only judicial orders
108. Section 69 applies to:
a. Only court appeals
b. Damaged or spoiled stamps or refunded fee cases
c. Criminal fines
d. Probate valuation only
109. Cash refund under Section 69 is subject to deduction of:
a. 1 paisa per rupee
b. 6 naye paise per rupee or fraction
c. 10% flat deduction
d. No deduction
110. Deduction under Section 69 is NOT made when:
a. Fee is paid voluntarily
b. Refund is due to appellate court reversal or variation
c. Stamp is damaged
d. Application is delayed
111. Before granting refund/exchange, Collector must:
a. Take court permission
b. Verify genuineness of stamps
c. Conduct trial
d. Refer to police
112. Under Section 70, selling stamps without authority is punishable with:
a. Warning only
b. Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹500 or both
c. Life imprisonment
d. No penalty
113. Section 70 applies to:
a. Only licensed stamp sellers
b. Persons appointed to sell stamps who disobey rules
c. Only judges
d. Only advocates
114. A person not appointed to sell stamps is punishable if he:
a. Buys stamps
b. Sells or offers stamps for sale
c. Uses stamps in court
d. Files appeal
115. Maximum imprisonment under Section 70 is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
116. Maximum fine under Section 70 is:
a. ₹100
b. ₹300
c. ₹500
d. ₹1000
117. Section 71 empowers:
a. State Government to make rules
b. High Court to make rules
c. Collector to make rules
d. Parliament to make rules
118. Rules under Section 71 relate to:
a. Criminal procedure
b. Court process fees and execution of processes
c. Taxation of property
d. Land acquisition
119. Under Section 71(2), High Court rules become effective only after:
a. Police approval
b. State Government confirmation and Gazette publication
c. Collector approval
d. Supreme Court approval
120. One matter covered under Section 71 rules is:
a. Marriage disputes
b. Fees for service and execution of processes
c. Property registration
d. Criminal sentencing
121. Section 71 rules must be published in:
a. Newspaper
b. Official Gazette
c. Court notice board only
d. Police record
122. Under Section 72, rules are made by:
a. High Court
b. Board of Revenue
c. State Legislature
d. Supreme Court
123. Rules under Section 72 require:
a. Approval of District Court
b. Previous sanction of State Government
c. Police approval
d. Parliamentary approval
124. Section 72 rules relate to:
a. Criminal appeals only
b. Revenue court processes and execution
c. Marriage disputes
d. Civil contracts
125. One matter covered under Section 72 is:
a. Stamp duty valuation
b. Fees for service of processes issued by Revenue Courts
c. Property registration
d. Election disputes
126. Under Section 72, remuneration relates to:
a. Judges only
b. Persons employed for service/execution of processes
c. Lawyers only
d. Police officers only
127. Under Section 73, rules are made by:
a. High Court
b. Board of Revenue
c. State Government
d. Collector
128. Section 73 rules are issued by:
a. Ordinance
b. Notification in Official Gazette
c. Court decree
d. Police order
129. One matter covered under Section 73 is:
a. Criminal appeals
b. Supply of stamps used under the Act
c. Election petitions
d. Land ownership disputes
130. Section 73 includes rules regarding:
a. Trial procedure
b. Number of stamps for fee payment
c. Sentencing guidelines
d. Evidence recording
131. Accounts of stamps used are regulated under:
a. Section 71
b. Section 72
c. Section 73
d. Section 61
132. Section 74 provides for:
a. Appeals only
b. Repeal and saving
c. Criminal punishment
d. Stamp supply
133. The Rajasthan Court Fees Act (Adaptation) Ordinance, 1950 is:
a. Amended
b. Repealed
c. Extended
d. Continued without change
134. After repeal under Section 74, interpretation is governed by:
a. CPC only
b. Rajasthan General Clauses Act, 1955
c. IPC only
d. Evidence Act only
135. Section 74 ensures that pending suits instituted before commencement:
a. Become invalid
b. Are governed by old law
c. Are transferred to Supreme Court
d. Are dismissed automatically
136. Proceedings arising from old suits (appeal/revision) are governed by:
a. New Act only
b. Old Ordinance and Act
c. Criminal law
d. Municipal law
137. Section 74(2) applies to:
a. Only future suits
b. Suits and proceedings instituted before commencement
c. Only criminal cases
d. Only revenue appeals
138. Appeals or revisions arising from old suits are governed by:
a. New Act always
b. Old law provisions
c. No law applies
d. Collector discretion only
139. Main effect of Section 74 is:
a. Create new offences
b. Preserve legal continuity for pending matters
c. Fix court fees
d. Define jurisdiction
140. Repeal under Section 74 is subject to:
a. High Court approval
b. General Clauses Act provisions
c. Police rules
d. Executive order only
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