THE PREVENTION OF MONEY-LAUNDERING ACT, 2002
ACT NO. 15 OF 2003
1. Section 22 presumes that the signature and handwriting in records:
a. Are fabricated unless proved
b. Belong to the person it purports to belong
c. Need no verification
d. Can be ignored in court
2. True or False: A foreign record not duly stamped cannot be admitted in evidence under Section 22(2)(b).
a. True
b. False
3. Section 22 covers which of the following:
a. Only movable property
b. Only immovable property
c. Both records and property
d. Only electronic records
4. Which of the following is not presumed under Section 22(1)?
a. Ownership of property
b. Truth of record contents
c. Handwriting authenticity
d. Guilt of the person
5. Foreign records admitted under Section 22(2) must be:
a. Produced only by the accused
b. Authenticated as prescribed
c. Seized in India
d. Accompanied by a police report
6. Section 22 presumes that records or property found during a survey:
a. Belong to the government
b. Belong to the person in whose possession they are
c. Are illegal until proved otherwise
d. Must be immediately confiscated
7. Which of the following courts can admit foreign records under Section 22(2)?
a. Supreme Court only
b. Civil Court
c. High Court only
d. Special Court, Appellate Tribunal, Adjudicating Authority
8. True or False: Section 22 allows presumption of authenticity even for records frozen under other laws.
a. True
b. False
9. Which sub-section of Section 22 deals specifically with foreign records?
a. Sub-section (1)
b. Sub-section (3)
c. Sub-section (2)
d. Sub-section (4)
10. Section 22 presumes the truth of records to:
a. Make evidence mandatory
b. Simplify burden of proof in money-laundering cases
c. Confirm guilt
d. Replace judicial verification
11. The term “produced by any person” in Section 22 includes:
a. Documents voluntarily provided
b. Documents seized under survey or search
c. Documents frozen under law
d. All of the above
12. True or False: Under Section 22, the presumption regarding handwriting can be rebutted in court.
a. True
b. False
13. Section 23 of PMLA deals with:
a. Retention of records
b. Power to arrest
c. Presumption in inter-connected transactions
d. Admissibility of foreign records
14. Section 23 applies when money-laundering involves:
a. Two or more inter-connected transactions
b. A single transaction only
c. Only cash transactions
d. Only international transactions
15. If one transaction is proved to be involved in money-laundering, Section 23 presumes that:
a. Only that transaction is illegal
b. All remaining inter-connected transactions are also part of money-laundering unless disproved
c. The remaining transactions are automatically legal
d. Each transaction must be proved separately
16. Section 23 is applicable for:
a. Adjudication or confiscation under Section 8 only
b. Trial of the money-laundering offence only
c. Both adjudication/confiscation and trial
d. Investigation only
17. Who must be satisfied to rebut the presumption under Section 23?
a. Investigating Officer
b. Central Government
c. Adjudicating Authority or Special Court
d. High Court
18. “Inter-connected transactions” under Section 23 means:
a. Transactions linked directly or indirectly in laundering proceeds
b. Only bank-to-bank transactions
c. Only international transactions
d. Only cash transactions
19. Section 23 presumption continues unless:
a. The Central Government withdraws it
b. Remaining transactions are proved not connected to laundering to the satisfaction of the Adjudicating Authority or Special Court
c. The accused is arrested
d. High Court orders otherwise
20. Section 23 can be invoked by:
a. Only the Special Court
b. Only the Adjudicating Authority
c. Both the Special Court and the Adjudicating Authority
d. Any police officer
21. Section 23 helps in money-laundering cases by:
a. Automatically proving the guilt of the accused
b. Allowing seizure of unrelated property
c. Granting immunity to some transactions
d. Reducing the burden of proof in complex, multi-step inter-connected transactions
22. Section 23 applies even if:
a. Only one transaction in the interconnected chain is proved to involve money-laundering
b. None of the transactions are proved
c. Only the first transaction is involved
d. Only foreign transactions are involved
23. Which sections of PMLA are directly linked to Section 23?
a. Sections 4 and 17
b. Section 8 (adjudication/confiscation) and trial under the Act
c. Section 21 only
d. Section 19 only
24. Section 23 presumption is:
a. Absolute
b. Rebuttable
c. Optional
d. Only applicable to foreign transactions
25. The presumption under Section 23 applies:
a. Only for domestic transactions
b. Only for cash transactions
c. For any transactions forming part of inter-connected laundering proceeds
d. Only for bank-to-bank transfers
26. If a person disproves that the remaining transactions are part of laundering, Section 23 presumption:
a. Stands automatically
b. Is rebutted to the satisfaction of the Adjudicating Authority or Special Court
c. Is ignored by the court
d. Must be appealed to High Court
27. Section 23 is important because:
a. It simplifies prosecution of complex laundering chains
b. It legalizes unproven transactions
c. It transfers burden of proof to Central Government
d. It is only applicable for records, not property
28. True or False: Section 23 can be applied to foreign inter-connected transactions if they are linked to laundering.
a. True
b. False
29. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 23?
a. Presumption applies automatically and cannot be challenged
b. Presumption applies only for cash transactions
c. Presumption applies unless the accused disproves it to the satisfaction of Adjudicating Authority or Special Court
d. Presumption applies only after confiscation
30. Section 23 helps in adjudication by:
a. Ignoring inter-connected transactions
b. Presuming remaining inter-connected transactions are laundering-related once one is proved
c. Requiring each transaction to be proved individually
d. Allowing only domestic transactions
31. Section 23 applies to:
a. Only property transactions
b. Only financial transactions
c. Only cash transactions
d. All transactions connected in laundering proceeds
32. Which of the following is not correct regarding Section 23?
a. Presumption applies for adjudication, confiscation, and trial
b. Presumption is rebuttable
c. Presumption proves guilt automatically
d. Presumption applies to inter-connected transactions
33. Section 24 of PMLA deals with:
a. Power to arrest
b. Burden of proof regarding proceeds of crime
c. Presumption in inter-connected transactions
d. Retention of records
34. Under Section 24(a), in the case of a person charged under Section 3 of PMLA, the Authority or Court shall:
a. Prove the innocence of the accused
b. Presume that the proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering unless the contrary is proved
c. Ignore the proceeds of crime
d. Require Central Government approval
35. In Section 24(b), for a person other than the one charged under Section 3, the Authority or Court:
a. Cannot presume anything
b. Must presume that proceeds are involved in money-laundering
c. May presume that proceeds of crime are involved in money-laundering
d. Must refer the case to Central Government
36. The term “proceeds of crime” in Section 24 refers to:
a. Only cash
b. Only bank deposits
c. Property derived or obtained directly or indirectly from criminal activity
d. Only foreign transactions
37. In a proceeding under Section 24(a), the presumption regarding proceeds of crime is:
a. Rebuttable by the accused
b. Absolute and cannot be challenged
c. Optional for the Court
d. Applicable only after confiscation
38. Section 24 applies in proceedings:
a. Only for trial of offences
b. Only for adjudication under Section 8
c. For any proceeding relating to proceeds of crime under the Act
d. Only for appeal purposes
39. The presumption under Section 24(a) is mandatory for:
a. Any person involved with proceeds of crime
b. Person charged under Section 3 of PMLA
c. Government authorities
d. Foreign nationals only
40. Section 24(b) differs from 24(a) in that:
a. It applies only to banks
b. The presumption is discretionary (“may presume”) rather than mandatory
c. It applies only outside India
d. It requires Central Government approval
41. True or False: Section 24 shifts the burden of proof regarding proceeds of crime to the accused under Section 3.
a. True
b. False
42. In Section 24(a), if the accused proves that proceeds are not involved in money-laundering:
a. Presumption is maintained
b. Presumption is rebutted
c. Case is automatically dismissed
d. Trial continues without change
43. Section 24 ensures that in money-laundering cases:
a. The accused under Section 3 has to disprove involvement of proceeds of crime
b. The Court must investigate all assets
c. Only the Central Government can determine guilt
d. Assets cannot be seized
44. The presumption under Section 24(b) is:
a. Mandatory for all persons
b. Optional and at the discretion of the Court or Adjudicating Authority
c. Only for foreign nationals
d. Only for bank transactions
45. Section 24 helps in prosecution by:
a. Eliminating the need to prove the origin of proceeds of crime for the accused under Section 3
b. Automatically confiscating property
c. Ignoring foreign transactions
d. Granting immunity to low-value transactions
46. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Section 24(a) presumption is rebuttable, Section 24(b) presumption is discretionary
b. Section 24(a) presumption is discretionary, Section 24(b) presumption is mandatory
c. Both 24(a) and 24(b) are mandatory
d. Both 24(a) and 24(b) are optional
47. The Authority or Court under Section 24(a) shall presume involvement of proceeds of crime:
a. Only if Central Government orders
b. Unless the contrary is proved by the accused
c. Only for cash transactions
d. Only for domestic assets
48. Section 24 applies to:
a. Any person charged with money-laundering under Section 3
b. Any other person indirectly connected to proceeds of crime
c. Both a and b
d. Only banks and financial institutions
49. True or False: Section 24 allows the Court to ignore the origin of proceeds of crime for persons other than the accused under Section 3.
a. True
b. False
50. Section 24 ensures a shift in burden of proof to:
a. The Central Government
b. The Adjudicating Authority
c. The person charged under Section 3
d. Banks only
51. The discretionary presumption under Section 24(b) is applied:
a. Only when the Court thinks it necessary
b. Automatically
c. Only for foreign transactions
d. Only for inter-connected transactions
52. Section 24 makes it easier to prosecute money-laundering by:
a. Assuming the involvement of proceeds of crime for the accused under Section 3 unless rebutted
b. Removing the need for investigation
c. Automatically confiscating all assets
d. Ignoring foreign transactions
53. Section 25 of PMLA deals with:
a. Power of arrest
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Burden of proof
d. Retention of records
54. Which tribunal acts as the Appellate Tribunal under Section 25?
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Administrative Tribunal
d. Tribunal under Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976
55. Section 25 PMLA gives the Appellate Tribunal the power to:
a. Hear appeals against orders of the Adjudicating Authority
b. Prosecute money-laundering offences
c. Freeze assets
d. Conduct investigation
56. True or False: The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 can hear appeals against any authority under the PMLA.
a. True
b. False
57. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 is constituted under which Act?
a. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002
b. Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. Companies Act, 2013
58. Section 25 allows appeals against orders of:
a. Special Court only
b. Adjudicating Authority and other authorities under PMLA
c. Central Government only
d. High Court only
59. True or False: Section 25 PMLA created a new tribunal for money-laundering cases.
a. True
b. False
60. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 PMLA deals with appeals from which of the following?
a. Orders of the Adjudicating Authority
b. Orders of authorities under PMLA
c. Both a and b
d. Orders of police officers
61. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 is primarily concerned with:
a. Investigating offences
b. Hearing appeals
c. Confiscating property
d. Freezing bank accounts
62. Section 25 refers to subsection (1) of Section 12 of which Act?
a. Companies Act, 2013
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976
d. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002
63. True or False: Orders of the Special Court can also be appealed in the Appellate Tribunal under Section 25.
a. True
b. False
64. Which of the following authorities’ orders cannot be appealed to the Appellate Tribunal under Section 25?
a. Adjudicating Authority
b. Director under PMLA
c. Special Court for trial
d. Other PMLA authorities
65. Section 25 ensures that appeals under PMLA are:
a. Heard by the High Court only
b. Centralized under an existing tribunal
c. Heard only by Special Court
d. Decided by the Central Government
66. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 PMLA is:
a. A civil tribunal
b. A criminal tribunal
c. The tribunal under the 1976 Act acting for PMLA purposes
d. An administrative tribunal
67. Which of the following is true regarding Section 25?
a. The Appellate Tribunal hears appeals against all PMLA proceedings including trials
b. The Appellate Tribunal only hears appeals against the Adjudicating Authority and other authorities, not trials
c. The Appellate Tribunal can investigate money-laundering cases
d. The Appellate Tribunal has no role in PMLA
68. Section 25 PMLA uses the Appellate Tribunal under the 1976 Act to:
a. Maintain consistency and avoid duplication of tribunals
b. Create a separate tribunal
c. Oversee Special Courts
d. Conduct investigations
69. True or False: Section 25 allows appeals directly to the High Court from the Adjudicating Authority.
a. True
b. False
70. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 25 PMLA is:
a. A newly created PMLA-specific tribunal
b. A tribunal already constituted under the 1976 Act
c. An ad-hoc committee
d. A committee under the Central Government
71. Which type of orders can be appealed in the Appellate Tribunal under Section 25?
a. Orders of the Adjudicating Authority
b. Orders of other PMLA authorities
c. Both a and b
d. Orders of the Special Court
72. Section 25 PMLA ensures that appeals against PMLA authorities:
a. Go to multiple tribunals
b. Are centralized in the Appellate Tribunal under the 1976 Act
c. Are handled by police authorities
d. Can be heard only after confiscation
73. Section 26 of the PMLA deals with:
a. Constitution of Appellate Tribunal
b. Appeal to Appellate Tribunal
c. Revision by High Court
d. Trial by Special Court
74. Who can file an appeal under Section 26(1) of the PMLA?
a. Only the accused
b. Only the Director
c. Director or any person aggrieved
d. Only reporting entities
75. Appeal under Section 26(1) lies against an order passed by:
a. Special Court
b. High Court
c. Adjudicating Authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
76. Section 26(2) specifically provides appeal rights to:
a. Any accused person
b. Banking company
c. Reporting entity
d. Enforcement Directorate
77. A reporting entity may appeal under Section 26(2) against an order of the Director made under:
a. Section 8
b. Section 12
c. Section 13(2)
d. Section 17
78. The limitation period for filing an appeal under Section 26 is:
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
79. The period of 45 days is counted from:
a. Date of passing of order
b. Date of knowledge of order
c. Date of receipt of copy of the order
d. Date of publication of order
80. An appeal under Section 26 shall be filed in:
a. Any form as decided by parties
b. Oral form
c. Prescribed form with prescribed fee
d. Affidavit only
81. Can the Appellate Tribunal condone delay beyond 45 days?
a. No, never
b. Yes, without conditions
c. Yes, if sufficient cause is shown
d. Only with Central Government approval
82. Before condoning delay, the Appellate Tribunal must:
a. Record reasons in writing only
b. Give opportunity of being heard
c. Seek approval of Director
d. Refer matter to Special Court
83. On receiving an appeal, the Appellate Tribunal may:
a. Only confirm the order
b. Only set aside the order
c. Confirm, modify or set aside the order
d. Remand the case compulsorily
84. The Appellate Tribunal shall pass orders after:
a. Summary hearing
b. Written submissions only
c. Giving parties opportunity of being heard
d. Consulting the Adjudicating Authority
85. A copy of the Appellate Tribunal’s order shall be sent to:
a. Parties and concerned Adjudicating Authority or Director
b. Only parties to the appeal
c. Only Central Government
d. Special Court only
86. Appeals under Section 26 are to be disposed of:
a. Within 3 months
b. Within 6 months
c. Within 1 year
d. No time limit
87. The phrase used in Section 26(6) regarding disposal of appeals is:
a. “Shall be disposed”
b. “May be disposed”
c. “Endeavour shall be made”
d. “Must compulsorily dispose”
88. The six-month period under Section 26(6) is counted from:
a. Date of order appealed against
b. Date of admission of appeal
c. Date of filing of appeal
d. Date of hearing
89. Appeal under Section 26(1) can be filed by:
a. Only private individuals
b. Only government authorities
c. Director or any aggrieved person
d. Only accused persons
90. Section 26(3) applies to appeals under:
a. Only sub-section (1)
b. Only sub-section (2)
c. Both sub-section (1) and (2)
d. Only reporting entities
91. Appeal under Section 26 lies to which authority?
a. High Court
b. Special Court
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Supreme Court
92. An appeal under Section 26 is a:
a. Criminal appeal
b. Civil appeal
c. Statutory appeal
d. Constitutional appeal
93. Which of the following orders is appealable under Section 26(2)?
a. Order of Adjudicating Authority
b. Order of Director under Section 13(2)
c. Order of Special Court
d. Order of High Court
94. Filing an appeal under Section 26 automatically stays the impugned order.
a. True
b. False
95. Section 26 empowers the Appellate Tribunal to:
a. Conduct investigation
b. Review its own orders
c. Decide appeals on merits
d. Frame rules
96. The right of appeal under Section 26 is:
a. Fundamental right
b. Natural right
c. Statutory right
d. Constitutional right
97. Who cannot file an appeal under Section 26?
a. Director
b. Reporting entity
c. Person aggrieved
d. Witness
98. Section 26 supplements which provision of PMLA?
a. Section 3
b. Section 8
c. Section 25
d. Section 44
99. The power to entertain delayed appeals under Section 26 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Discretionary
c. Automatic
d. Prohibited
100. Appeal under Section 26 can be filed against orders of:
a. Only Adjudicating Authority
b. Only Director
c. Both Adjudicating Authority and Director
d. Special Court
101. Section 26 ensures:
a. Speedy trial
b. Judicial review
c. Appellate remedy
d. Investigation oversight
102. Which statement is correct?
a. Appeal lies directly to High Court
b. Appeal must be filed within 30 days
c. Tribunal may modify the impugned order
d. Appeal lies only for accused persons
103. Section 35 of the PMLA deals with:
a. Appeal to High Court
b. Powers of Director
c. Procedure and powers of Appellate Tribunal
d. Constitution of Adjudicating Authority
104. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 35 is not bound by the procedure laid down in:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Constitution of India
105. While not bound by CPC, the Appellate Tribunal shall be guided by:
a. Criminal jurisprudence
b. Principles of natural justice
c. Administrative instructions
d. Directions of Central Government
106. Subject to the provisions of PMLA, the Appellate Tribunal has power to:
a. Follow CPC strictly
b. Regulate its own procedure
c. Follow CrPC only
d. Act only through civil courts
107. For discharging its functions, the Appellate Tribunal has the same powers as a:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Civil Court under CPC while trying a suit
d. High Court
108. Which of the following powers is available to the Appellate Tribunal under Section 35(2)?
a. Granting pardon
b. Framing criminal charges
c. Issuing arrest warrants
d. Summoning and examining persons on oath
109. The Appellate Tribunal can require:
a. Arrest of accused
b. Discovery and production of documents
c. Police investigation
d. Sanction from Government
110. Receiving evidence on affidavits is a power of:
a. Special Court only
b. Adjudicating Authority only
c. Director only
d. Appellate Tribunal
111. Requisitioning public records by the Appellate Tribunal is subject to which provisions?
a. Sections 24 & 25 of PMLA
b. Sections 41 & 42 CrPC
c. Sections 123 & 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Sections 91 & 92 CrPC
112. The Appellate Tribunal can issue commissions for:
a. Arrest of accused
b. Confiscation of property
c. Attachment of assets
d. Examination of witnesses or documents
113. Which of the following is correct?
a. Appellate Tribunal cannot review its decisions
b. Appellate Tribunal can review its decisions
c. Review lies only before High Court
d. Review requires Government approval
114. The Appellate Tribunal may dismiss a representation:
a. Only after trial
b. For default or decide it ex parte
c. Only after hearing Central Government
d. Only on merits
115. The Tribunal can set aside:
a. Orders of Special Court only
b. Orders of Director only
c. Orders of dismissal for default or ex parte orders passed by it
d. Orders of High Court
116. Which power can be exercised by the Appellate Tribunal if prescribed by Central Government?
a. Framing offences
b. Any other matter as prescribed
c. Granting sanction
d. Conducting raids
117. An order of the Appellate Tribunal under PMLA is executable as:
a. An administrative order
b. A criminal sentence
c. A decree of a civil court
d. A government notification
118. For executing its orders as a decree, the Appellate Tribunal shall have:
a. Limited powers
b. No powers
c. All powers of a civil court
d. Only powers granted by High Court
119. The Appellate Tribunal may transmit its order for execution to:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Civil Court having local jurisdiction
d. Magistrate Court
120. When transmitted, the civil court shall execute the order as if it were:
a. An administrative order
b. A criminal judgment
c. A decree made by that court
d. An interim order
121. Proceedings before the Appellate Tribunal are deemed to be:
a. Judicial proceedings
b. Administrative proceedings
c. Executive proceedings
d. Investigative proceedings
122. Judicial proceedings are deemed so for the purposes of which IPC sections?
a. Sections 107 & 109
b. Sections 191 & 192
c. Sections 193 & 228
d. Sections 300 & 302
123. For the purposes of Sections 345 and 346 of CrPC, the Appellate Tribunal is deemed to be:
a. A Sessions Court
b. A Magistrate Court
c. A Civil Court
d. A Tribunal only
124. Section 35(1) emphasizes which principle as guiding factor?
a. Strict procedure
b. Natural justice
c. Government policy
d. Criminal law
125. Which of the following is NOT a power under Section 35(2)?
a. Reviewing decisions
b. Issuing commissions
c. Framing criminal charges
d. Receiving evidence on affidavit
126. The Appellate Tribunal’s power to regulate its own procedure is:
a. Absolute
b. Subject to CPC
c. Subject to CrPC
d. Subject to PMLA provisions
127. Execution of Tribunal orders without transmission is permitted under:
a. Section 35(1)
b. Section 35(2)
c. Section 35(3)
d. Section 35(5)
128. Transmission of orders to civil court is provided under:
a. Section 35(2)
b. Section 35(3)
c. Section 35(4)
d. Section 35(5)
129. Which statement is correct?
a. Tribunal is bound by CPC
b. Tribunal follows CrPC strictly
c. Tribunal follows natural justice
d. Tribunal has no procedural flexibility
130. Proceedings before the Appellate Tribunal attract punishment for:
a. Civil contempt only
b. Perjury and insult to court
c. Breach of contract
d. Disobedience of government orders
131. The power to dismiss for default implies:
a. Dismissal without jurisdiction
b. Dismissal for non-appearance
c. Dismissal only after merits
d. Dismissal by police
132. Section 35 primarily establishes that the Appellate Tribunal is:
a. Administrative body
b. Quasi-judicial authority with civil court powers
c. Criminal court
d. Investigative agency
133. Section 36 of the PMLA deals with:
a. Constitution of Appellate Tribunal
b. Powers of Chairman
c. Distribution of business amongst Benches
d. Procedure of Special Court
134. Section 36 applies when:
a. Only one Bench exists
b. Benches are constituted
c. Chairman is absent
d. High Court directs
135. Who is empowered to distribute the business of the Appellate Tribunal under Section 36?
a. Central Government
b. Appellate Tribunal collectively
c. Chairman of the Appellate Tribunal
d. Registrar
136. The distribution of business among Benches is made by:
a. Office order
b. Notification
c. Judicial order
d. Circular
137. The Chairman may distribute business under Section 36:
a. Once only
b. At the time of constitution
c. From time to time
d. Only annually
138. Distribution of business under Section 36 relates to:
a. Criminal trials
b. Investigations
c. Matters before the Appellate Tribunal
d. Appeals to High Court
139. Section 36 empowers the Chairman to:
a. Allocate matters among Benches
b. Decide appeals himself
c. Frame procedural rules
d. Appoint Members
140. The Chairman may also specify under Section 36:
a. Punishments
b. Jurisdiction of Special Court
c. Matters to be dealt with by each Bench
d. Fees payable
141. Distribution of business among Benches is concerned with:
a. Administrative convenience
b. Criminal liability
c. Attachment proceedings
d. Confiscation of property
142. Section 36 confers which type of power on the Chairman?
a. Judicial
b. Investigative
c. Administrative
d. Legislative
143. The power under Section 36 is exercised by issuing a:
a. Judgment
b. Decree
c. Notification
d. Order under CrPC
144. The distribution of business under Section 36 is applicable to:
a. Adjudicating Authority
b. Special Court
c. Appellate Tribunal Benches
d. Enforcement Directorate
145. Which authority has no role under Section 36?
a. Chairman
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Central Government
d. Benches
146. Section 36 helps in:
a. Speedy investigation
b. Speedy disposal of appeals
c. Attachment of property
d. Arrest of accused
147. The Chairman’s power under Section 36 can be exercised:
a. Only once at inception
b. Only with Government approval
c. As and when required
d. Only after consultation with High Court
148. Allocation of cases to Benches under Section 36 is:
a. Mandatory judicial function
b. Discretionary administrative function
c. Investigative function
d. Quasi-criminal function
149. Section 36 ensures that:
a. All appeals go to one Bench
b. Business of Tribunal is properly managed
c. Chairman hears all cases
d. Only one Bench exists
150. The Chairman may distribute business based on:
a. Nature of cases
b. Territorial jurisdiction
c. Subject-matter
d. All of the above
151. The phrase “from time to time” in Section 36 implies:
a. Fixed intervals
b. One-time exercise
c. Continuous power
d. Annual exercise only
152. Distribution of business among Benches is done for:
a. Judicial independence
b. Efficient functioning of Tribunal
c. Central Government control
d. Criminal prosecution
153. Section 36 does not empower the Chairman to:
a. Allocate appeals
b. Specify matters for each Bench
c. Decide merits of appeals
d. Issue notification
154. The power under Section 36 is exercised when:
a. Appeal is filed
b. Tribunal is constituted
c. More than one Bench exists
d. Chairman resigns
155. The business distributed under Section 36 includes:
a. Only administrative work
b. Only appeals
c. Matters before the Appellate Tribunal
d. Matters before Special Court
156. Section 36 complements which provision?
a. Section 24
b. Section 25
c. Section 35
d. Section 42
157. Which statement is correct?
a. Chairman must consult High Court
b. Chairman issues notification for business distribution
c. Central Government allocates business
d. Members decide distribution
158. Section 36 primarily deals with:
a. Substantive rights
b. Criminal liability
c. Administrative arrangement
d. Punitive measures
159. Distribution of business under Section 36 affects:
a. Validity of appeal
b. Jurisdiction of Special Court
c. Which Bench hears which matter
d. Limitation period
160. The authority empowered under Section 36 acts in the capacity of:
a. Judge
b. Prosecutor
c. Administrator
d. Investigator
161. Section 36 ensures that:
a. Tribunal works without rules
b. Tribunal functions systematically through Benches
c. Tribunal follows CPC strictly
d. Tribunal follows CrPC
162. Section 36 is best described as a provision relating to:
a. Appeals
b. Jurisdiction
c. Internal administration of Tribunal
d. Enforcement powers
163. Section 37 of the PMLA deals with:
a. Distribution of business among Benches
b. Power of Chairman to transfer cases
c. Appeal to High Court
d. Jurisdiction of Special Court
164. The power under Section 37 can be exercised by:
a. Central Government
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Chairman of the Appellate Tribunal
d. Registrar
165. Transfer of cases under Section 37 relates to cases pending before:
a. Special Court
b. Adjudicating Authority
c. Benches of the Appellate Tribunal
d. High Court
166. A case may be transferred under Section 37:
a. Only after final order
b. Only at appellate stage
c. While it is pending before a Bench
d. Only after hearing all parties
167. The Chairman may transfer a case on:
a. Direction of Central Government only
b. Application of any of the parties
c. Recommendation of Registrar
d. Order of High Court
168. Apart from an application by parties, the Chairman may transfer a case:
a. With prior approval of Government
b. Only after issuing notice
c. On his own motion
d. Only after final hearing
169. When transfer is made on the application of parties, the Chairman must:
a. Reject it summarily
b. Transfer without hearing
c. Give notice and hear such parties as he desires
d. Refer matter to High Court
170. Notice to parties is mandatory when the Chairman transfers a case:
a. In all circumstances
b. Only when acting on application
c. Only when acting suo motu
d. Never required
171. When acting on his own motion, the Chairman may transfer a case:
a. Only after giving notice
b. Only after hearing all parties
c. Without such notice
d. With approval of Central Government
172. Section 37 empowers the Chairman to transfer a case for the purpose of:
a. Investigation
b. Trial
c. Disposal
d. Review
173. The transfer of a case under Section 37 can be made from:
a. One Special Court to another
b. One Adjudicating Authority to another
c. One Bench to another Bench
d. Tribunal to High Court
174. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Chairman can transfer only administrative matters
b. Chairman can transfer pending cases between Benches
c. Chairman can decide appeals on merits while transferring
d. Chairman can transfer cases only on request of Government
175. The power under Section 37 is:
a. Judicial
b. Investigative
c. Administrative
d. Legislative
176. Section 37 ensures:
a. Uniform sentencing
b. Effective case management
c. Attachment of property
d. Criminal prosecution
177. The Chairman’s power to transfer cases helps in:
a. Speedy disposal of cases
b. Increasing jurisdiction of Tribunal
c. Reducing limitation period
d. Granting bail
178. A case transferred under Section 37 is transferred:
a. For fresh filing
b. For re-investigation
c. For disposal by another Bench
d. For appeal
179. The phrase “after hearing such of them as he may desire to be heard” implies:
a. Mandatory hearing of all parties
b. Discretionary hearing
c. No hearing at all
d. Only written submissions
180. Section 37 is closely related to which provision?
a. Section 24
b. Section 25
c. Section 36
d. Section 42
181. Which of the following authorities has no power under Section 37?
a. Chairman
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Registrar
d. Benches
182. Transfer of cases under Section 37 affects:
a. Merits of the case
b. Substantive rights of parties
c. Forum where the case is heard
d. Limitation period
183. Section 37 does not require:
a. Application by parties
b. Notice in case of application
c. Hearing of parties
d. Prior approval of Central Government
184. Transfer of cases under Section 37 can be done:
a. Only once
b. Only at initial stage
c. At any stage while pending
d. Only before admission
185. The Chairman’s suo motu power under Section 37 indicates:
a. Judicial review
b. Administrative control
c. Criminal jurisdiction
d. Investigative authority
186. Section 37 is intended to:
a. Confer appellate jurisdiction
b. Regulate internal functioning of Tribunal
c. Punish money-laundering
d. Create new offences
187. Which statement is incorrect?
a. Chairman may transfer cases on application
b. Chairman may transfer cases suo motu
c. Chairman must always issue notice
d. Transfer is between Benches
188. The power to transfer cases under Section 37 is exercised by:
a. Passing a decree
b. Issuing notification
c. Administrative order
d. Judicial judgment
189. Section 37 applies to:
a. Special Courts
b. High Courts
c. Appellate Tribunal Benches
d. Adjudicating Authorities
190. The Chairman’s power under Section 37 ensures:
a. Judicial discipline
b. Administrative efficiency
c. Criminal enforcement
d. Substantive justice
191. Transfer under Section 37 does not result in:
a. Change of Bench
b. Change of Chairman
c. Change of forum
d. Change of place of hearing
192. Section 37 primarily reflects the Chairman’s role as:
a. Prosecutor
b. Judge
c. Administrator of the Tribunal
d. Investigator
193. Section 38 of the PMLA deals with:
a. Power of Chairman
b. Decision by majority
c. Distribution of business
d. Appeals to High Court
194. Section 38 applies when the Bench consists of:
a. One Member
b. Two Members
c. Three Members
d. Any number of Members
195. Section 38 becomes applicable when the Members of a Bench:
a. Agree unanimously
b. Differ in opinion
c. Are absent
d. Refer matter suo motu
196. When Members differ in opinion, they shall:
a. Dismiss the appeal
b. Decide by casting vote
c. State the point or points of difference
d. Refer the case to High Court
197. After stating points of difference, the Members shall make a reference to:
a. Central Government
b. Special Court
c. Chairman of the Appellate Tribunal
d. High Court
198. Upon reference under Section 38, the Chairman may:
a. Reject the reference
b. Hear the point himself
c. Transfer the case to High Court
d. Remand the matter
199. Alternatively, the Chairman may refer the case for hearing by:
a. Adjudicating Authority
b. Another Bench
c. A third Member of the Appellate Tribunal
d. Special Court
200. The third Member hears only:
a. Entire case afresh
b. Procedural issues
c. The point or points of difference
d. Questions of law only
201. The final decision under Section 38 shall be according to:
a. Opinion of Chairman
b. Opinion of Presiding Member
c. Opinion of majority
d. Earlier opinion
202. Majority decision shall be of the Members who have:
a. Written the order
b. Dissented
c. Heard the case
d. Been present earlier
203. Members whose opinion counts for majority include:
a. Only third Member
b. Only original Members
c. Only Chairman
d. Those who first heard the case also
204. Section 38 ensures resolution of:
a. Jurisdictional conflicts
b. Difference of opinion
c. Limitation disputes
d. Execution issues
205. If Members do not differ in opinion, Section 38:
a. Applies fully
b. Applies partially
c. Does not apply
d. Requires Chairman’s approval
206. The reference under Section 38 is made:
a. Orally
b. Informally
c. By stating points of difference
d. By affidavit
207. The Chairman’s role under Section 38 is:
a. Investigative
b. Administrative only
c. Adjudicatory or referential
d. Prosecutorial
208. Decision by majority under Section 38 reflects the principle of:
a. Judicial discipline
b. Natural justice
c. Collective decision-making
d. Speedy trial
209. Which authority has the final say in resolving the difference?
a. Central Government
b. Registrar
c. Majority of Members who heard the case
d. High Court
210. Section 38 prevents:
a. Arbitrary decisions
b. Delay in investigation
c. Attachment of property
d. Filing of appeals
211. Section 38 is applicable only to:
a. Special Courts
b. Adjudicating Authority
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. High Court
212. The Chairman under Section 38 may:
a. Modify the appeal
b. Review evidence
c. Hear the point himself
d. Reopen investigation
213. The third Member referred under Section 38 must be:
a. From another tribunal
b. From High Court
c. A Member of Appellate Tribunal
d. A Judicial Magistrate
214. Section 38 promotes:
a. Administrative efficiency
b. Judicial consistency
c. Financial transparency
d. Criminal enforcement
215. Decision by majority under Section 38 is binding on:
a. Central Government
b. Enforcement Directorate
c. Parties to the appeal
d. Special Court only
216. Section 38 is comparable to which general principle?
a. Res judicata
b. Doctrine of precedent
c. Difference of opinion resolution
d. Audi alteram partem
217. Section 38 is triggered by:
a. Appeal filing
b. Hearing completion
c. Difference of opinion on any point
d. Transfer of case
218. The points referred under Section 38 are decided:
a. Independently
b. Separately from main case
c. Along with original hearing
d. According to majority opinion
219. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Section 38 applies to two-member Bench
b. Chairman may hear the point himself
c. Third Member must rehear entire appeal
d. Decision is by majority