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There are 6 Sets of MCQs available for Information Technology Act, 2000, you are advised to explore all the sets :
1. Notice of suspension or revocation shall be published in:
a. Official Gazette
b. Controller’s database
c. Repository specified in the Digital Signature Certificate
d. Website of Central Government
2. Section 39 does NOT require publication of notice when:
a. Certificate is suspended
b. Certificate is revoked
c. Certificate is revoked under Section 38
d. Certificate is issued
3. Section 39 forms part of provisions relating to:
a. Cyber offences
b. Electronic governance
c. Digital Signature Certificates
d. Adjudication
4. Notice under Section 39 is required irrespective of whether suspension is:
a. Temporary
b. Voluntary or in public interest
c. Permanent
d. Judicial
5. The obligation under Section 39 arises:
a. On receipt of application
b. On issue of certificate
c. On suspension or revocation
d. On renewal
6. Section 40 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Issue of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Suspension of certificate
c. Generating key pair
d. Revocation of licence
7. Section 40 applies when a Digital Signature Certificate has been:
a. Issued
b. Revoked
c. Suspended
d. Accepted by the subscriber
8. Who is responsible for generating the key pair under Section 40?
a. Certifying Authority
b. Controller
c. Subscriber
d. Central Government
9. The public key listed in the Digital Signature Certificate corresponds to the:
a. Controller’s key
b. Subscriber’s private key
c. Certifying Authority’s key
d. Government key
10. Under Section 40, the subscriber shall generate the key pair by applying:
a. Prescribed form
b. Certification practice statement
c. Security procedure
d. Licensing conditions
11. Security procedure under Section 40 ensures:
a. Confidentiality of records
b. Integrity of key generation
c. Speed of certification
d. Cost reduction
12. The public key generated under Section 40 is:
a. Kept secret
b. Published in certificate
c. Destroyed after use
d. Held by Controller only
13. Section 40 supports which core principle of digital signatures?
a. Non-repudiation
b. Transparency
c. Confidentiality
d. Jurisdiction
14. The phrase “corresponds to the private key” refers to:
a. Encryption standard
b. Mathematical relationship between keys
c. Physical storage
d. Licence terms
15. Section 40 does NOT deal with:
a. Acceptance of certificate
b. Generation of key pair
c. Security procedure
d. Revocation of certificate
16. Section 40A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 relates to:
a. Issue of Electronic Signature Certificate
b. Revocation of certificate
c. Duties of subscriber of Electronic Signature Certificate
d. Suspension of licence
17. Section 40A applies specifically in respect of:
a. Digital Signature Certificate
b. Electronic Signature Certificate
c. Licence of Certifying Authority
d. Repository
18. Who is required to perform duties under Section 40A?
a. Certifying Authority
b. Controller
c. Subscriber
d. Central Government
19. Section 40A does not itself specify the duties but refers to:
a. Regulations
b. Notifications
c. Prescribed provisions
d. Judicial precedents
20. Failure to perform duties under Section 40A may attract:
a. Criminal trial only
b. Civil consequences under the Act
c. No legal effect
d. Constitutional remedies
21. Section 40A strengthens which principle of electronic authentication?
a. Accountability of subscriber
b. Licensing control
c. Judicial review
d. Government supervision
22. Section 40A does NOT empower:
a. Prescribing duties
b. Imposing subscriber obligations
c. Granting licence
d. Ensuring compliance
23. Duties under Section 40A are supplementary to:
a. Constitutional provisions
b. BNSS
c. Other provisions of the IT Act
d. Income-tax Act
24. Section 40A was introduced to align the Act with:
a. Electronic signature framework
b. International trade law
c. Paper-based signatures
d. Criminal jurisprudence
25. Section 41 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Issue of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Acceptance of Digital Signature Certificate
c. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate
d. Suspension of licence
26. A subscriber is deemed to have accepted a Digital Signature Certificate when he:
a. Applies for the certificate
b. Publishes or authorises publication of the certificate
c. Renews the certificate
d. Revokes the certificate
27. Publication of a Digital Signature Certificate to one or more persons amounts to:
a. Revocation
b. Suspension
c. Acceptance
d. Renewal
28. Publication of a Digital Signature Certificate in a repository indicates:
a. Issue of certificate
b. Acceptance of certificate
c. Expiry of certificate
d. Suspension of certificate
29. By accepting a Digital Signature Certificate, the subscriber certifies that he:
a. Has applied for the certificate
b. Holds the private key corresponding to the public key
c. Has published the certificate
d. Has renewed the certificate
30. Acceptance of a Digital Signature Certificate implies that the subscriber is:
a. In possession of the public key only
b. Entitled to hold the corresponding private key
c. Authorised by Controller
d. Acting on behalf of Certifying Authority
31. Under Section 41, the subscriber certifies that all representations made to the Certifying Authority are:
a. Partly true
b. Presumed true
c. True
d. Subject to verification
32. The certification under Section 41 includes material relevant to:
a. Issue of licence
b. Information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate
c. Investigation proceedings
d. Repository maintenance
33. Information certified under Section 41 must be true insofar as it is:
a. Published publicly
b. Prescribed by regulations
c. Within the knowledge of the subscriber
d. Verified by Controller
34. Section 41 imposes responsibility on the subscriber towards:
a. Central Government
b. Certifying Authority
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. Persons relying on the Digital Signature Certificate
35. Section 41 creates a presumption of acceptance when the subscriber:
a. Receives the certificate
b. Downloads the certificate
c. Publishes the certificate
d. Applies for verification
36. Section 41 ensures trust in Digital Signature Certificates by:
a. Penalising misuse
b. Fixing liability on Controller
c. Binding the subscriber to representations
d. Regulating repositories
37. Section 42 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Acceptance of Digital Signature Certificate
b. Control of private key
c. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate
d. Generation of key pair
38. Under Section 42, the duty to retain control of the private key lies on:
a. Certifying Authority
b. Controller
c. Subscriber
d. Repository
39. A subscriber must exercise ______ care to retain control of the private key.
a. Reasonable
b. Extraordinary
c. Absolute
d. Minimal
40. Section 42 mandates that the subscriber shall take all steps to prevent:
a. Renewal of certificate
b. Suspension of licence
c. Disclosure of private key
d. Publication of certificate
41. If the private key is compromised, the subscriber must communicate the same to:
a. Central Government
b. Certifying Authority
c. Controller
d. Adjudicating Officer
42. Communication of compromise of private key must be made:
a. After reasonable time
b. Within prescribed period
c. Without any delay
d. After investigation
43. Liability of the subscriber continues even after compromise of the private key until:
a. Repository is updated
b. Certificate is suspended
c. Court order is passed
d. Certifying Authority is informed
44. Control of private key is essential to ensure:
a. Validity of licence
b. Security of digital signature
c. Jurisdiction of courts
d. Issuance of certificate
45. Reasonable care under Section 42 includes:
a. Delegation of private key
b. Public disclosure
c. Preventing unauthorised access
d. Publishing key in repository
46. Communication of compromise is a:
a. Discretionary act
b. Mandatory duty
c. Optional requirement
d. Conditional obligation
47. Section 42 reinforces which principle?
a. Absolute liability
b. Vicarious liability
c. Due diligence
d. Natural justice
48. Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Cyber terrorism
b. Penalty and compensation for damage to computer resources
c. Adjudication
d. Offences by companies
49. Section 43 applies when an act is done:
a. With lawful authority
b. With court permission
c. Without permission of owner or person in charge
d. During investigation
50. Liability under Section 43 is:
a. Criminal punishment
b. Imprisonment only
c. Civil liability by way of compensation
d. Both imprisonment and fine
51. Compensation under Section 43 is payable to:
a. Government
b. Controller
c. Person so affected
d. Certifying Authority
52. Charging services to another person’s account by manipulation is covered under:
a. Clause (e)
b. Clause (f)
c. Clause (h)
d. Clause (j)
53. Destroying or altering information affecting its utility is covered under:
a. Clause (d)
b. Clause (i)
c. Clause (h)
d. Clause (j)
54. Theft or destruction of computer source code with intention to cause damage falls under:
a. Clause (g)
b. Clause (h)
c. Clause (i)
d. Clause (j)
55. “Computer contaminant” means instructions designed to:
a. Secure data
b. Modify or destroy data or usurp normal operation
c. Encrypt data
d. Backup system
56. “Computer database” includes information in the form of:
a. Text only
b. Text, image, audio, video
c. Audio only
d. Video only
57. A computer virus operates when:
a. Instruction is executed or event occurs
b. System is shut down
c. Antivirus is installed
d. Network disconnects
58. Adding data without permission amounts to:
a. No offence
b. Damage
c. Access
d. Assistance
59. Section 43 is adjudicated by:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. High Court
60. Section 43 is read with:
a. Section 66 for criminal liability
b. Section 69
c. Section 79
d. Section 85
61. Mens rea is:
a. Mandatory
b. Presumed
c. Not required
d. Required only in clause (j)
62. Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Punishment for hacking
b. Compensation for failure to protect data
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Breach of confidentiality
63. Liability under Section 43A arises when a body corporate is:
a. Strictly liable
b. Negligent in implementing security practices
c. Acting fraudulently
d. Acting maliciously
64. Compensation under Section 43A is payable to:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Controller
d. Person so affected
65. “Body corporate” under Section 43A includes:
a. Company only
b. Company and partnership only
c. Company, firm, sole proprietorship and association of individuals
d. Government companies only
66. Section 43A applies when data involved is:
a. General information
b. Public record
c. Sensitive personal data or information
d. Official secrets
67. “Sensitive personal data or information” is defined as:
a. Information decided by courts
b. Information prescribed by Central Government
c. Any confidential information
d. Information notified by State Government
68. Liability under Section 43A is based on:
a. Absolute liability
b. Strict liability
c. Negligence
d. Intention
69. Negligence must relate to:
a. Financial audit
b. Employee misconduct
c. Implementation and maintenance of security practices
d. Tax compliance
70. Reasonable security practices may be specified in:
a. Agreement between parties
b. Any law in force
c. Prescribed rules of Central Government
d. All of the above
71. Liability under Section 43A arises when negligence causes:
a. Data theft
b. Financial loss only
c. Wrongful loss or wrongful gain
d. Reputation damage only
72. Liability under Section 43A is:
a. Criminal liability
b. Civil liability by way of compensation
c. Disciplinary liability
d. Contractual liability only
73. Mens rea under Section 43A is:
a. Essential
b. Presumed
c. Not required
d. Required in all cases
74. Section 43A was inserted primarily to address:
a. Cyber crimes
b. Data protection and privacy
c. E-commerce fraud
d. Cyber terrorism
75. Section 43A is adjudicated by:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. High Court
76. Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Compensation for damage
b. Penalty for failure to furnish information, return, etc.
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Breach of confidentiality
77. Section 44 applies to:
a. Only companies
b. Only certifying authorities
c. Any person required under the Act
d. Only government servants
78. Penalty under Section 44 is:
a. Criminal punishment
b. Civil liability
c. Administrative fine
d. Compensatory damages
79. Under Section 44(A), the failure relates to:
a. Accessing computer without permission
b. Furnishing document, return or report
c. Disclosure of information
d. Hacking
80. The maximum penalty under Section 44(A) is:
a. Five lakh rupees
b. Ten lakh rupees
c. fifteen lakh rupees
d. Twenty-five lakh rupees
81. Penalty under Section 44(A) is imposed for:
a. Every day of default
b. Each such failure
c. Each month of default
d. Each year of default
82. Documents under Section 44(A) are furnished to:
a. Adjudicating Officer only
b. Controller or Certifying Authority
c. Central Government
d. Appellate Tribunal
83. Maximum penalty under Section 44(B) is:
a. ₹10,000 per day
b. ₹25,000 per day
c. ₹50,000 per day
d. ₹1,00,000 per day
84. Section 44 penalties are imposed by:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. High Court
85. Section 44 penalties are:
a. Mandatory minimum
b. Discretionary up to maximum limit
c. Fixed amount
d. Compoundable offences
86. Section 45 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Penalty for data breach
b. Residuary penalty
c. Cyber terrorism
d. Intermediary liability
87. Section 45 applies when:
a. A cyber offence is committed
b. No penalty is separately provided elsewhere
c. There is loss of data
d. There is hacking
88. Section 45 covers contravention of:
a. Only the Act
b. Only rules
c. Rules, regulations, directions or orders
d. Only regulations
89. Maximum penalty under Section 45 is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1,00,000
c. ₹5,00,000
d. ₹10,00,000
90. Section 45 provides for:
a. Only penalty
b. Only compensation
c. Both penalty and compensation
d. Imprisonment
91. Maximum compensation payable by intermediary/company/body corporate is:
a. ₹1 lakh
b. ₹5 lakh
c. ₹10 lakh
d. ₹25 lakh
92. Compensation payable by “any other person” shall not exceed:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹1 lakh
c. ₹5 lakh
d. ₹10 lakh
93. Section 45 penalty is imposed by:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. High Court
94. Section 45 comes under which chapter of IT Act?
a. Cyber crimes
b. Penalties and adjudication
c. Digital signature
d. Intermediaries
95. Section 46 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Cyber offences
b. Power to adjudicate
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Cyber appeals
96. The purpose of Section 46 is to adjudge:
a. Criminal offences
b. Civil disputes
c. Contravention leading to penalty or compensation
d. Cyber terrorism
97. Adjudication under Section 46 relates to contravention of:
a. Only the Act
b. Act, rules, regulations, directions or orders
c. BNS only
d. BNSS only
98. Adjudicating Officer under Section 46 is appointed by:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. State Government
99. Minimum rank required for appointment as Adjudicating Officer is:
a. District Judge
b. Secretary to Government
c. Director to Government of India or equivalent
d. Magistrate
100. Equivalent officer may belong to:
a. Private sector
b. State Government
c. Judiciary
d. Local authority
101. Appointment of Adjudicating Officer is subject to:
a. Section 45
b. Section 58
c. Sub-section (3) of Section 46
d. Section 47
102. Jurisdiction of Adjudicating Officer extends to claims up to:
a. ₹1 crore
b. ₹2 crore
c. ₹5 crore
d. ₹10 crore
103. Claims exceeding ₹5 crore shall be adjudicated by:
a. Adjudicating Officer
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Competent court
d. High Court only
104. Jurisdiction under Section 46 relates to:
a. Compensation only
b. Damage claims
c. Penalty only
d. Criminal fines
105. Before imposing penalty or compensation, the Adjudicating Officer shall give:
a. Written notice only
b. Police hearing
c. Reasonable opportunity of making representation
d. No hearing
106. Inquiry by Adjudicating Officer is conducted:
a. As per BNSS
b. As per CPC
c. At his discretion
d. In the manner prescribed by Central Government
107. A person shall NOT be appointed unless he has:
a. Technical degree only
b. Legal experience only
c. IT and legal or judicial experience
d. Administrative experience only
108. Qualifications are prescribed by:
a. Central Government
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Appellate Tribunal
109. When more than one Adjudicating Officer is appointed:
a. Jurisdiction is concurrent
b. Jurisdiction is random
c. Matters and places are specified by Central Government
d. Jurisdiction decided by Appellate Tribunal
110. Adjudicating Officer has powers of:
a. Criminal court
b. Revenue court
c. Civil court
d. Administrative tribunal
111. Proceedings before Adjudicating Officer are deemed to be:
a. Administrative proceedings
b. Quasi-judicial
c. Departmental inquiry
d. Judicial proceedings
112. Judicial proceedings are within meaning of BNS sections:
a. 191 and 192
b. 229 and 267
c. 195 and 196
d. 199 and 200
113. Adjudicating Officer is deemed civil court for purposes of BNSS sections:
a. 388 and 389
b. 300 and 301
c. 345 and 346
d. 360 and 361
114. For purposes of CPC, Adjudicating Officer is deemed civil court for:
a. Order I
b. Order VII
c. Order XXI
d. Order XXXIX
115. Claim of ₹6 crore will be adjudicated by:
a. Adjudicating Officer
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Competent court
d. Controller
116. Section 47 becomes applicable at which stage of proceedings under the IT Act, 2000?
a. At the time of filing complaint
b. At the time of adjudging quantum of compensation
c. At the stage of appeal
d. At the stage of investigation
117. The factors mentioned under Section 47 are to be considered by which authority?
a. Controller of Certifying Authorities
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Adjudicating Officer
d. Civil Court
118. Section 47 applies to compensation under which part of the IT Act?
a. Chapter VIII
b. Chapter IX
c. Chapter X
d. Chapter XI
119. The gain referred to in Section 47 must be:
a. Presumed
b. Hypothetical
c. Quantifiable wherever possible
d. Estimated arbitrarily
120. Gain of unfair advantage under Section 47 must arise due to:
a. Criminal offence
b. Negligence
c. Default
d. Contractual breach
121. Repetitive nature of default is relevant for determining:
a. Quantum of compensation
b. Limitation period
c. Jurisdiction
d. Criminal liability
122. If a default is committed multiple times, the adjudicating officer may:
a. Dismiss the case
b. Reduce compensation
c. Increase compensation
d. Transfer the case
123. Section 47 does NOT require consideration of:
a. Unfair gain
b. Loss suffered
c. Repetition of default
d. Intention of the defaulter
124. Section 47 is relevant only after:
a. Filing of appeal
b. Proof of contravention
c. Registration of FIR
d. Appointment of Controller
125. If no unfair gain is proved, compensation can still be based on:
a. Criminal intent
b. Public interest
c. Loss caused to a person
d. Nature of offence
126. Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Appointment of adjudicating officer
b. Establishment of Appellate Tribunal
c. Powers of civil court
d. Appeals to High Court
127. Which body functions as the Appellate Tribunal under the IT Act after the 2017 amendment?
a. Cyber Appellate Tribunal
b. National Company Law Tribunal
c. Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
d. Securities Appellate Tribunal
128. From which point in time does TDSAT act as Appellate Tribunal under the IT Act?
a. From enactment of IT Act, 2000
b. From notification by Central Government
c. From commencement of Part XIV of Chapter VI of Finance Act, 2017
d. From date of appeal filed
129. Which authority specifies the matters and places of jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal?
a. Appellate Tribunal itself
b. Supreme Court of India
c. Central Government
d. State Government
130. The specification of jurisdiction under Section 48(2) is done through:
a. Rules
b. Regulations
c. Circular
d. Notification
131. Section 48 primarily relates to which stage of proceedings?
a. Investigation
b. Adjudication
c. Appeal
d. Execution
132. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 48 is a:
a. Temporary body
b. Administrative authority
c. Statutory tribunal
d. Executive committee
133. Section 48 reflects which legislative intent?
a. Decentralisation of cyber disputes
b. Consolidation of tribunals
c. Creation of special cyber courts
d. Elimination of appellate remedies
134. The words “on and from the commencement” in Section 48 indicate:
a. Prospective operation
b. Retrospective operation
c. Conditional operation
d. Temporary operation
135. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 48 is common to disputes under:
a. Only IT Act
b. IT Act and BNS
c. IT Act and TRAI Act
d. IT Act and BNSS
136. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 48?
a. It abolishes appellate remedy
b. It transfers appellate functions to TDSAT
c. It creates a new tribunal
d. It empowers High Courts
137. Section 52D of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deals with:
a. Appeal to High Court
b. Decision by majority of Appellate Tribunal
c. Powers of adjudicating officer
d. Investigation of offences
138. If a two-member bench of the Appellate Tribunal differs in opinion, the matter is referred to:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. Chairperson of the Appellate Tribunal
d. High Court
139. In Section 52D, “decision by majority” includes:
a. Only members who first heard the case
b. Only the Chairperson
c. Members who first heard the case and those who later hear it
d. Only the dissenting member
140. Section 52D applies to benches consisting of:
a. One member
b. Two members
c. Three members
d. Any number of members
141. The Chairperson’s decision in Section 52D is based on:
a. His own opinion only
b. Opinion of the Central Government
c. Majority of Members who have heard the case
d. Arbitrary discretion
142. Section 52D provides a mechanism for:
a. Appeal to High Court
b. Resolving split decisions in Appellate Tribunal
c. Criminal prosecution of members
d. Revision of IT Act rules
143. Section 55 of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of adjudicating officers
b. Finality of orders constituting Appellate Tribunal
c. Penalties for contraventions
d. Powers of Controller
144. Under Section 55, can the appointment of the Chairperson or Member of the Appellate Tribunal be challenged?
a. Yes, in High Court
b. Yes, in Supreme Court
c. No, it cannot be called in question
d. Only by a government officer
145. Which of the following is protected under Section 55?
a. Decisions of the Central Government on IT policy
b. Proceedings before Appellate Tribunal
c. Any act of private companies
d. Orders of Cyber Crime cells
146. The principle laid down in Section 55 is similar to which legal doctrine?
a. Doctrine of Ultra Vires
b. Doctrine of Finality
c. Doctrine of Natural Justice
d. Doctrine of Res Judicata
147. Which of the following statements is true under Section 55?
a. Tribunal proceedings can be called into question for minor procedural errors
b. Tribunal appointments and proceedings are final and cannot be questioned merely on constitution defects
c. Central Government can reverse Tribunal proceedings for any reason
d. High Court has automatic power to review Tribunal constitution
148. Section 57 of the IT Act primarily deals with:
a. Adjudication by Controller
b. Appeal to Appellate Tribunal
c. Penalties for contraventions
d. Appointment of Certifying Authorities
149. Who can prefer an appeal under Section 57(1)?
a. Any government officer
b. Any person aggrieved by an order of Controller or adjudicating officer
c. Only the Central Government
d. Only Certifying Authorities
150. Under Section 57(2), an appeal shall not lie to the Appellate Tribunal if:
a. The order is more than one year old
b. The Controller approves the order
c. The appeal fee is unpaid
d. The order is made by adjudicating officer with the consent of the parties