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THE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY ACT, 2000 |
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CHAPTER I |
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PRELIMINARY |
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What is the short title of the Act? |
Information Technology Act, 2000 |
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To what geographical extent does the IT Act, 2000 apply? |
The whole of India |
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Does the IT Act, 2000 apply to offences committed outside India? |
Yes, to any person committing an offence or contravention outside India |
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What does Section 1(2) of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deal with? |
Extent and application |
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Section 2(a) defines |
access |
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Section 2(b) defines |
Addressee |
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Section 2(c) defines |
adjudicating officer |
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Section 2(d) defines |
Affixing |
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Section 2(da) defines |
Appellate Tribunal |
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Section 2(e) defines |
appropriate Government |
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Section 2(f) defines |
asymmetric crypto system |
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Section 2(g) defines |
Certifying Authority |
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Section 2(h) defines |
certification practice statement |
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Section 2(ha) defines |
communication device |
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Section 2(i) defines |
Computer |
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Section 2(j) defines |
computer network |
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Section 2(k) defines |
computer resource |
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Section 2(l) defines |
computer system |
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Section 2(m) defines |
Controller |
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Section 2(na) defines |
cyber café |
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Section 2(nb) defines |
cyber security |
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Section 2(o) defines |
Data |
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Section 2(p) defines |
digital signature |
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Section 2(q) defines |
Digital Signature Certificate |
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Section 2(r) defines |
electronic form |
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Section 2(s) defines |
Electronic Gazette |
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Section 2(t) defines |
electronic record |
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Section 2(ta) defines |
electronic signature |
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Section 2(tb) defines |
Electronic Signature Certificate |
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Section 2(u) defines |
Function |
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Section 2(ua) defines |
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team |
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Section 2(v) defines |
Information |
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Section 2(w) defines |
Intermediary |
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Section 2(x) defines |
key pair |
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Section 2(y) defines |
Law |
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Section 2(z) defines |
Licence |
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Section 2(za) defines |
Originator |
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Section 2(zb) defines |
Prescribed |
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Section 2(zc) defines |
private key |
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Section 2(zd) defines |
public key |
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Section 2(ze) defines |
secure system |
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Section 2(zf) defines |
security procedure |
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Section 2(zg) defines |
Subscriber |
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Section 2(zh) defines |
verify |
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Under the IT Act, who can commit an offence outside India and still be held liable under this law? |
Any person |
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What does the term 'Access' mean under the IT Act, 2000? |
Gaining entry into, instructing, or communicating with the logical, arithmetical, or memory function resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network |
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Who is considered an 'Addressee' in the context of electronic records? |
A person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record but does not include any intermediary |
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What is the role of an 'Adjudicating Officer' under the IT Act, 2000? |
To resolve disputes related to cybercrimes and contraventions of the Act |
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What does 'Affixing Electronic Signature' mean? |
Adoption of any methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record by means of digital signature |
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Who is the 'Appropriate Government' as per the IT Act, 2000? |
The Central or State Government, depending on the matter |
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What is an 'Asymmetric Crypto System'? |
A system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and a public key to verify the digital signature |
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Who is a 'Certifying Authority'? |
A person who has been granted a licence to issue a Digital Signature Certificate under section 24 |
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What does 'Certification Practice Statement' refer to? |
A statement issued by a Certifying Authority to specify the practices that the Certifying Authority employs in issuing Digital Signature Certificates |
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Define 'Computer' as per the IT Act, 2000. |
Any electronic, magnetic, optical, or other high-speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulations of electronic, magnetic, or optical impulses |
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What constitutes a 'Computer Network'? |
The interconnection of one or more computers or computer systems or communication devices through communication media |
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What does 'Computer Resource' include? |
Computer, communication device, computer system, computer network, data, computer database, or software |
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Define 'Computer System'. |
A device or collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculators which are not programmable and capable of being used in conjunction with external files |
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Who is the 'Controller' under the IT Act, 2000? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities appointed under sub-section (7) of section 17 |
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What is a 'Cyber Appellate Tribunal'? |
A tribunal established to hear appeals against orders passed by the Adjudicating Officer |
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Define 'Data' as per the IT Act, 2000. |
A representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions which are being prepared or have been prepared in a formalized manner |
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What is a 'Digital Signature'? |
Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with the provisions of section 3 |
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What does 'Digital Signature Certificate' mean? |
A certificate issued under sub-section (4) of section 35 |
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Define 'Electronic Form' with reference to information. |
Information generated, sent, received, or stored in media such as magnetic, optical, computer memory, microfilm, computer-generated microfiche, or similar device |
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What is 'Electronic Gazette'? |
Official Gazette published in electronic form |
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Define 'Electronic Record'. |
Data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received, or sent in an electronic form or microfilm or computer-generated microfiche |
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CHAPTER II |
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DIGITAL SIGNATURE AND ELECTRONIC SIGNATURE |
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What is the primary focus of Section 3 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Authentication of electronic records |
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How can an electronic record be authenticated under the IT Act, 2000? |
Using a secure digital signature |
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As per Section 3, who is responsible for authenticating an electronic record? |
The subscriber |
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Which cryptographic method is used for digital signatures in the IT Act, 2000? |
Asymmetric cryptography |
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What are the components of the asymmetric crypto system used for authentication? |
A private key and a public key |
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What does the private key do in the digital signature process? |
It is used by the subscriber to create the digital signature |
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What is the role of the public key in the digital signature process? |
To verify the digital signature created by the private key |
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Under Section 3, when is a digital signature considered secure? |
When it is created in a manner prescribed by the Central Government using a secure system |
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What ensures the integrity and authenticity of an electronic record under Section 3? |
Use of a digital signature |
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Which government authority prescribes the secure procedure for digital signatures under the IT Act? |
Central Government |
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What is the focus of Section 3A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Electronic signatures as a means of authentication |
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Section 3A was inserted into the IT Act, 2000 through which amendment? |
IT Amendment Act, 2008 |
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What does Section 3A allow in addition to digital signatures? |
Other electronic signatures that are secure and reliable |
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According to Section 3A(1), an electronic signature is considered valid if it is: |
Reliable and fulfills the conditions prescribed by the Central Government |
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Who prescribes the conditions for reliability of electronic signatures under Section 3A? |
Central Government |
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What is one of the key conditions under Section 3A(2) for an electronic signature to be reliable? |
It must be linked uniquely to the signatory |
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Under Section 3A(2), any electronic signature or electronic authentication technique shall be considered reliable if any alteration to the electronic signature made after affixing such signature |
is detectable |
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According to Section 3A(3), what power does the Central Government have regarding electronic signatures? |
To prescribe procedures and standards for electronic signatures |
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Which term best describes the legal effect of a valid electronic signature under Section 3A? |
Legally recognized authentication |
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The reliability test for electronic signatures under Section 3A(2) includes? |
Identification of the signatory and control over creation data |
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What is the importance of Section 3A in the context of modern e-governance? |
It enables acceptance of multiple secure electronic authentication methods |
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Section 3A(2)(d) states that an electronic signature shall be considered reliable if: |
any alteration to the information made after its authentication by electronic signature is detectable |
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What is meant by "electronic signature creation data" as implied in Section 3A? |
Unique credentials like private keys or credentials used to generate a signature |
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According to Section 3A, if an electronic signature meets the prescribed standards, it shall have: |
Presumptive legal validity |
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CHAPTER III |
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ELECTRONIC GOVERNANCE |
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What does Section 4 of the IT Act, 2000 primarily deal with? |
Legal recognition of electronic records |
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According to Section 4, if any law requires information to be in writing or printed form, it is deemed to be satisfied if: |
The information is available in an electronic form and accessible for future reference |
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Section 4 grants electronic records: |
Equal legal status as written documents |
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Which phrase best reflects the intent of Section 4 of the IT Act? |
“Digital equivalence of paper records” |
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Is physical signature necessary for documents covered under Section 4? |
No, if the electronic record is valid and accessible |
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What is implied when a law requires something to be in writing and it is presented electronically as per Section 4? |
The electronic form is sufficient if it can be retained and referred to later |
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What is the primary focus of Section 5 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Legal recognition of electronic signatures |
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According to Section 5, where any law requires a signature or any document to be signed, that requirement is deemed satisfied by: |
An electronic signature affixed in a manner prescribed by the Central Government |
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Under Section 5, an electronic signature has the same legal validity as: |
A handwritten signature or a physical signature |
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What is meant by “electronic signature” under Section 5? |
An electronic method of authentication using procedures prescribed by law |
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What is the primary focus of Section 6 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in government and its agencies |
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What is the primary focus of Section 6A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Delivery of services by service providers in electronic form |
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What is the primary focus of Section 7 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Retention of electronic records |
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According to Section 7, service providers or entities dealing with electronic records must ensure that the records are: |
Retained in their original electronic format for a prescribed period |
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Section 7 of the IT Act mandates that electronic records be retained in a manner that: |
Ensures that the content remains accessible and usable for future reference |
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The retention period for electronic records as prescribed under Section 7 is: |
Specified by the Central Government |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 7A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To mandate the audit of documents maintained in electronic form |
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Section 7A of the IT Act, 2000 requires that: |
Electronic records be audited periodically to ensure compliance with regulations |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 8 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To mandate the publication of rules, regulations, and notifications in the Electronic Gazette |
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Under Section 8, rules, regulations, and notifications issued under the IT Act must be published in: |
The Electronic Gazette |
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Section 8 of the IT Act, 2000 applies to the publication of: |
Rules, regulations, and notifications under the IT Act |
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What is the significance of publishing rules, regulations, etc., in the Electronic Gazette under Section 8? |
It ensures they are legally binding and publicly accessible |
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Who is responsible for the publication of rules, regulations, etc., in the Electronic Gazette under Section 8? |
The Central Government or any authority designated by the government |
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What is the legal effect of publishing a rule, regulation, or notification in the Electronic Gazette according to Section 8? |
It is considered legally binding and effective as if it had been published in a physical Gazette |
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Who has the Power to make rules under section 10 in respect of electronic signature? |
by Central Government |
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What is the primary focus of Section 10A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure that contracts formed through electronic means are valid |
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Which is a requirement for a contract to be valid under Section 10A? |
The contract must be formed through electronic means, in compliance with the IT Act |
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CHAPTER IV |
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ATTRIBUTION, ACKNOWLEDGEMENT AND DESPATCH OF ELECTRONIC RECORDS |
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What is the main focus of Section 11 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Attribution of electronic records to their originator |
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According to Section 11, an electronic record is attributed to the originator when: |
It is sent from the originator’s computer or device |
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In the context of Section 11, what is meant by "originator" in relation to an electronic record? |
The person who sends or generates the electronic record |
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What is the primary focus of Section 12 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To establish the process for acknowledging the receipt of electronic records |
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According to Section 12, when an electronic record is received, the recipient is required to acknowledge the receipt? |
within a reasonable time |
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What is the purpose of acknowledgment of receipt under Section 12 of the IT Act? |
To confirm that the recipient has received the electronic record |
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Which provision deal with “Time and place of despatch and receipt of electronic record”? |
Sec.13 |
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For the purposes of section 13 if the originator or the addressee has more than one place of business, the principal place of business |
shall be the place of business |
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For the purposes of section 13 if the originator or the addressee does not have a place of business, his usual place of residence |
shall be deemed to be the place of business |
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What is the primary focus of Section 14 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure that electronic records are secure and protected from tampering |
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Under Section 14, what is required for an electronic record to be considered "secure"? |
It must be encrypted and protected against unauthorized access |
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What is the primary focus of Section 15 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To define the process for creating and validating electronic signatures |
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According to Section 15, what is a "secure electronic signature"? |
A signature that is digitally signed with encryption techniques and linked to the signer |
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An electronic signature shall be deemed to be a secure electronic signature if |
the signature creation data, at the time of affixing signature, was under the exclusive control of signatory and no other person |
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An electronic signature shall be deemed to be a secure electronic signature if |
the signature creation data was stored and affixed in such exclusive manner as may be prescribed. |
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In case of digital signature, “the signature creation data” means |
the private key of the subscriber. |
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What is the primary objective of Section 16 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To ensure the implementation of security procedures for electronic records and transactions |
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Who prescribe the security procedures and practices under Section 16 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Central Government |
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CHAPTER VI |
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REGULATION OF CERTIFYING AUTHORITIES |
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According to Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for the appointment of the Controller and other officers? |
The Central Government |
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Section 17 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies the appointment of which positions? |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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The Central Government may, also by the same or subsequent notification appoint under sec 17: |
such number of Deputy Controllers, Assistant Controllers, other officers and employees |
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The Controller shall discharge his functions under this Act subject to the general control and directions: |
of the Central Government |
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The Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers shall perform the functions assigned to them by the Controller under the general superintendence and control of: |
the Controller |
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The qualifications, experience and terms and conditions of service of Controller, Deputy Controllers, Assistant Controllers, other officers and employees shall be such as may be prescribed by: |
the Central Government. |
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There shall be a seal of the Office of: |
the Controller |
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What is the primary function of the Controller of Certifying Authorities as outlined in Section 18 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To oversee the working of Certifying Authorities and ensure they comply with the provisions of the Act |
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Under Section 18 of the IT Act, 2000, the Controller is responsible for: |
Ensuring the proper functioning of Certifying Authorities and electronic signatures |
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Which is a responsibility of the Controller under Section 18 of the IT Act? |
Issuing guidelines to Certifying Authorities for the issuance of digital certificates |
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Which provision deal with “Recognition of foreign Certifying Authorities.”? |
Sec.19 |
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Who recognise any foreign Certifying Authority as a Certifying Authority for the purposes of this Act? |
the Controller may with the previous approval of the Central Government, and by notification in the Official Gazette |
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The Controller may, if he is satisfied that any Certifying Authority has contravened any of the conditions and restrictions subject to which it was granted recognition under sub-section (1) he may |
For reasons to be recorded in writing, by notification in the Official Gazette, revoke such recognition. |
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Under Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000, who is authorized to issue electronic signature certificates? |
the Controller |
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What is the primary requirement for an entity to issue electronic signature certificates under Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The entity must obtain a license from the Controller |
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A licence granted under Section 21 of the IT Act, 2000 shall: |
(a) be valid for such period as may be prescribed by the Central Government; (b) not be transferable or heritable |
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According to Section 22 of the IT Act, 2000, Every application for a licence to issue electronic signature certificates shall be in such form as may be prescribed by: |
the Central Government |
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Every application for issue of a licence under Section 22 of the IT Act, 2000 shall be accompanied by: |
(a) a certification practice statement; (b) a statement including the procedures with respect to identification of the applicant; (c) payment of such fees, not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees |
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Which provision deal with “Renewal of licence”? |
Sec.23 |
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An application for renewal of a licence shall be in such form and accompanied by such fees: |
not exceeding five thousand rupees, as may be prescribed by the Central Government |
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An application for renewal of a licence shall be in such form and accompanied by such fees and shall be made: |
Not less than forty-five days before the date of expiry of the period of validity of the licence. |
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Which provision deal with “Procedure for grant or rejection of licence”? |
Sec.24 |
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What can the Controller do, on receipt of an application under sub-section (1) of section 21, after considering the documents accompanying the application and such other factor? |
grant the licence or reject the application |
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Can an application be rejected under section 24 unless the applicant has been given a reasonable opportunity of presenting his case? |
No |
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How can a Certifying Authority reinstate a suspended licence under Section 25 of the IT Act? |
By complying with the terms and conditions set by the Controller for reinstatement |
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What happens if a Certifying Authority’s licence is suspended and it fails to comply with the terms of suspension under Section 25? |
The Controller may revoke the licence permanently |
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Can a licence be revoked unless the Certifying Authority has been given a reasonable opportunity of showing cause against the proposed revocation? |
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No licence shall be suspended for a period exceeding how many days unless the Certifying Authority has been given a reasonable opportunity of showing cause against the proposed suspension? |
Ten days |
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Can the Certifying Authority whose licence has been suspended issue any electronic signature Certificate during such suspension? |
No |
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Under Section 26 of the IT Act, 2000, when a Certifying Authority’s licence is suspended or revoked, who must be notified? |
The Certifying Authority |
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What is the primary purpose of the notice of suspension or revocation under Section 26 of the IT Act, 2000? |
To provide the Certifying Authority an opportunity to rectify the situation |
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According to Section 26, who shall publish the notice of suspension or revocation must be sent in the data base maintained by the Certifying Authority: |
the Controller |
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The data base containing the notice of such suspension or revocation, as the case may be, shall be made available through |
a web site which shall be accessible round the clock |
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What must the notice of suspension or revocation include, as per Section 26 of the IT Act? |
The reason for the suspension or revocation |
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Under Section 27 of the IT Act, 2000, who has the authority to delegate their powers? |
The Controller |
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Section 27 of the IT Act, 2000, The Controller may, in writing, authorise to delegate powers to: |
the Deputy Controller, Assistant Controller or any officer |
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Which provision deal with “Power to investigate contraventions”? |
Sec.28 |
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Who shall take up for investigation any contravention of the provisions of this Act, rules or regulations made thereunder? |
The Controller or any officer authorised by him in this behalf |
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The Controller or any officer authorised by him in this behalf shall exercise the like powers which are conferred on: |
Income-tax authorities under Chapter XIII of the Income-tax Act, 1961 |
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Under Section 29 of the IT Act, 2000, who has reasonable cause to suspect that any contravention of the provisions of this Chapter has been committed, have access to any computer system, any apparatus, data or any other material connected with such system? |
the Controller or any person authorised by him |
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Who direct any person in charge of, or otherwise concerned with the operation of, the computer system, data apparatus or material, to provide him with such reasonable technical and other assistance as he may consider necessary? |
the Controller or any person authorised by him may, by order |
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Which provision deal with “Certifying Authority to follow certain procedures”? |
Sec.30 |
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Which procedure is followed by Every Certifying Authority under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
make use of hardware, software and procedures that are secure from intrusion and misuse |
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Which procedure is followed by Every Certifying Authority under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
provide a reasonable level of reliability in its services which are reasonably suited to the performance of intended functions |
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Which procedure is followed by Every Certifying Authority under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
adhere to security procedures to ensure that the secrecy and privacy of the electronic signatures are assured |
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Which procedure is followed by Every Certifying Authority under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
be the repository of all electronic signature Certificates issued under this Act |
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Which procedure is followed by Every Certifying Authority under Section 30 of the IT Act, 2000? |
publish information regarding its practices, electronic signature Certificates and current status of such certificates |
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Under Section 31 of the IT Act, 2000, Certifying Authorities are required to ensure compliance with: |
The provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 rules, regulations and orders made thereunder |
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Under Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is required to display a license? |
Certifying Authorities |
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Section 32 of the IT Act, 2000, mandates that Certifying Authorities must display their: |
Licenses issued under the Act |
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Under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is responsible for surrendering the license? |
The Certifying Authority |
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Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, allows the Certifying Authority to surrender its licence to: |
The Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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In case of surrender of the licence, Section 33 of the IT Act mandates that the Certifying Authority must: |
Return the licence to the Controller in the prescribed manner |
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According to Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, if a Certifying Authority wishes to surrender its licence, it must: |
Follow the procedure laid down by the Controller |
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Under Section 33 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the consequence of surrendering a licence for the Certifying Authority? |
It ceases to be authorized to issue digital certificates |
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Where any Certifying Authority fails to surrender a licence to the Controller, the person in whose favour a licence is issued, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be |
Liable to penalty which may extend to five lakhs rupees |
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What does every Certifying Authority disclose under section 34 in the manner specified by regulations? |
its electronic signature Certificate, any certification practice statement, notice of the revocation or suspension of its Certifying Authority certificate, |
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CHAPTER VII |
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ELECTRONIC SIGNATURE CERTIFICATES |
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According to Section 35 of the IT Act, 2000, which entity is responsible for issuing an electronic signature certificate? |
The Certifying Authority |
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Who may make an application to the Certifying Authority for the issue of a electronic signature Certificate in such form as may be prescribed by the Central Government? |
Any person |
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Every such application shall be accompanied by such fee not exceeding how many rupees as may be prescribed by the Central Government, to be paid to the Certifying Authority? |
twenty-five thousand |
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Every such application shall be accompanied by |
a certification practice statement |
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On receipt of an application, what can the Certifying Authority do, after consideration of the certification practice statement and after making such enquiries as it may deem fit? |
grant the electronic signature Certificate or for reasons to be recorded in writing, reject the application |
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Whether an application be rejected unless the applicant has been given a reasonable opportunity of showing cause against the proposed rejection? |
No |
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Which provision deal with “Representations upon issuance of Digital Signature Certificate”? |
Sec.36 |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
it has complied with the provisions of this Act |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
it has published the Digital Signature Certificate or otherwise made it available to such person relying on it and the subscriber has accepted it |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
the subscriber holds the private key corresponding to the public key, listed in the Digital Signature Certificate |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
the subscriber holds a private key which is capable of creating a digital signature |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
the public key to be listed in the certificate can be used to verify a digital signature affixed by the private key held by the subscriber |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
the subscriber's public key and private key constitute a functioning key pair |
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What does a Certifying Authority while issuing a Digital Signature Certificate certify? |
the information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate is accurate |
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The Certifying Authority which has issued a Digital Signature Certificate may suspend such Digital Signature Certificate on receipt of a request to that effect from: |
the subscriber listed in the Digital Signature Certificate or any person duly authorised to act on behalf of that subscriber |
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A Digital Signature Certificate shall not be suspended for a period exceeding how many days unless the subscriber has been given an opportunity of being heard in the matter? |
fifteen days |
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On suspension of a Digital Signature Certificate under section 37, the Certifying Authority shall communicate the same: |
to the subscriber. |
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Who can revoke a Digital Signature Certificate Under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000 issued by it? |
Certifying Authority |
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When can Certifying Authority revoke a Digital Signature Certificate?. The Sexual Harrassment Of Woman At Workplace Act Free One Liner Notes |
where the subscriber or any other person makes a request; or upon the death of the subscriber or upon the dissolution of the firm or winding up of the company where the subscriber is a firm or a company. |
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What is the first step the Certifying Authority must take when deciding to revoke a Digital Signature Certificate under Section 38 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Notify the subscriber about the decision |
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According to Section 39 of the IT Act, 2000, Where a Digital Signature Certificate is suspended or revoked under section 37 or section 38, the Certifying Authority shall |
publish a notice of such suspension or revocation, in the repository specified in the Digital Signature Certificate for publication of such notice. |
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Where one or more repositories are specified, the Certifying Authority shall |
publish notices of such suspension or revocation, in all such repositories. |
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The Indecent Representation Of Woman Act Free One Liner Notes |
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CHAPTER VIII |
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DUTIES OF SUBSCRIBERS |
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Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the purpose of generating a key pair? |
To allow secure data transmission |
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Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, specifies that the key pair generated consists of: |
One private key and one public key |
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Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, who is responsible for generating the key pair in a digital signature system? |
the subscriber shall generate |
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What must be done after generating the key pair, according to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000? |
The private key should be kept securely by the subscriber |
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According to Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, what is the relationship between the private key and the public key in a key pair? |
The public key is used for encryption, and the private key is used for decryption |
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Under Section 40 of the IT Act, 2000, the key pair must be: |
Unique and must not be shared between subscribers |
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According to Section 40A of the IT Act, 2000 Duties of subscriber of Electronic Signature Certificate: |
In respect of Electronic Signature Certificate the subscriber shall perform such duties as may be prescribed |
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According to Section 41 of the IT Act, 2000, deals with |
Acceptance of Digital Signature Certificate |
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A subscriber shall be deemed to have accepted a Digital Signature Certificate if he publishes or authorizes the publication of a Digital Signature Certificate: |
(a) to one or more persons; (b) in a repository |
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By accepting a Digital Signature Certificate the subscriber certifies to all who reasonably rely on the information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate that: |
the subscriber holds the private key corresponding to the public key listed in the Digital Signature Certificate and is entitled to hold the same |
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By accepting a Digital Signature Certificate the subscriber certifies to all who reasonably rely on the information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate that: |
all representations made by the subscriber to the Certifying Authority and all material relevant to the information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate are true |
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By accepting a Digital Signature Certificate the subscriber certifies to all who reasonably rely on the information contained in the Digital Signature Certificate that: |
all information in the Digital Signature Certificate that is within the knowledge of the subscriber is true. |
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Which provision deal with “Control of private key”? |
Sec.42 |
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Who shall exercise reasonable care to retain control of the private key corresponding to the public key listed in his Digital Signature Certificate and take all steps to prevent its disclosure? |
Every subscriber |
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What happen if the private key corresponding to the public key listed in the Digital Signature Certificate has been compromised? |
the subscriber shall communicate the same without any delay to the Certifying Authority. |
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CHAPTER IX |
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PENALTIES, COMPENSATION AND ADJUDICATION |
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Under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000, which actions would result in a penalty? |
Hacking a computer system, Accessing a computer system without authorization, Destroying data on a computer system |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(a) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
accesses or secures access to such computer, computer system or computer network or computer resource |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(b) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
downloads, copies or extracts any data, computer data base or information from such computer, computer system or computer network including information or data held or stored in any removable storage medium |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(c) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
introduces or causes to be introduced any computer contaminant or computer virus into any computer, computer system or computer network |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(d) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
damages or causes to be damaged any computer, computer system or computer network, data, computer data base or any other programmes residing in such computer, computer system or computer network |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(e) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
disrupts or causes disruption of any computer, computer system or computer network |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(f) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
denies or causes the denial of access to any person authorised to access any computer, computer system or computer network by any means |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(g) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
provides any assistance to any person to facilitate access to a computer, computer system or computer network in contravention of the provisions of this Act, rules or regulations made thereunder |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(h) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
charges the services availed of by a person to the account of another person by tampering with or manipulating any computer, computer system, or computer network |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(i) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
destroys, deletes or alters any information residing in a computer resource or diminishes its value or utility or affects it injuriously by any means |
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The person will be liable Under Section 43(j) of the IT Act, 2000-If any person without permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network |
steal, conceal, destroys or alters or causes any person to steal, conceal, destroy or alter any computer source code used for a computer resource with an intention to cause damage |
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What is the Penalty and compensation for damage to computer, computer system, etc under Section 43 of the IT Act, 2000? |
he shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected |
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The penalty for failure to furnish information, return, or report as per Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000, is imposed by the: |
Controller of Certifying Authorities |
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The penalty for failure to furnish information, return, or report as per Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000 is |
Fifteen lakhs |
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Section 44(b) of the IT Act, 2000, stipulates that the fine for failure to furnish information, return, can go up to: |
₹50 thousand |
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Section 44 of the IT Act, 2000 if any person maintain books of account or records, fails to maintain the same, he shall be liable to a penalty not exceeding |
One lakhs |
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Which provision deal with Residuary penalty? |
Section 45 |
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Whoever contravenes any rules or regulations made under this Act, for the contravention of which no penalty has been separately provided shall be liable for: |
"Penalty not exceeding one lakh rupees, in addition to compensation to the person affected by such contravention not exceeding— (a) ten lakh rupees, by an intermediary, company or body corporate; or (b) one lakh rupees, by any other person.". |
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Which provision deal with Power to adjudicate? |
Section 46 |
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Under Section 46 of the IT Act, 2000, the authority empowered to adjudicate on matters relating to the provisions of the Act is the: |
Adjudicating Officer |
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whether any person has committed a contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or of any rule, regulation, direction or order made thereunder which renders him liable to pay penalty or compensation, the Central Government shall appoint: |
any officer not below the rank of a Director to the Government of India or an equivalent officer of a State Government to be an adjudicating officer |
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The adjudicating officer appointed shall exercise jurisdiction to adjudicate matters in which the claim for damage: |
does not exceed rupees five crore |
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If the jurisdiction in respect of the claim for damage exceeding rupees five crores shall vest with: |
the competent court |
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Whether any person appointed as an adjudicating officer unless he possesses such experience in the field of Information Technology and legal or judicial experience as may be prescribed by the Central Government? |
No |
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Which provision deals with Factors to be taken into account by the adjudicating officer: |
Section 47 |
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While adjudging the quantum of compensation the adjudicating officer shall have due regard to the following factors, namely:
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(a) the amount of gain of unfair advantage, wherever quantifiable, made as a result of the default; (b) the amount of loss caused to any person as a result of the default; (c) the repetitive nature of the default. |
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CHAPTER X |
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THE APPELLATE TRIBUNAL |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000, the authority established to hear appeals against decisions made by the adjudicating officer is the: |
Appellate Tribunal |
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Under Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000 deal with |
Establishment of Appellate Tribunal |
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Who will be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act |
The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal established under section 14 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 |
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By which amendment Section 48 of the IT Act, 2000 substituted |
Finance Act, 2017 (7 of 2017) |
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Under Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, an appeal can be made to the Appellate Tribunal against an order passed by: |
controller or an adjudicating officer |
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Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, grants the right to appeal to the Appellate Tribunal in cases where the individual is aggrieved by: |
An order passed by the Adjudicating Officer |
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Whether an appeal lies to the Appellate Tribunal from an order made by an adjudicating officer with the consent of the parties? |
No |
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According to Section 57 of the IT Act, 2000, who can file an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal? |
Any person or party aggrieved by the adjudicating officer's order |
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Every appeal to the Appellate Tribunal shall be filed within a period of |
forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order made by the Controller or the adjudicating officer is received. |
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The appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal shall be dealt with by it as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be made by it to dispose of the appeal finally within |
six months from the date of receipt of the appeal. |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal must follow the procedure prescribed by: |
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the power to: |
Take evidence on oath, summon witnesses, Examine documents and evidence |
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In accordance with Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can: |
(a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath; (b) requiring the discovery and production of documents or other electronic records; |
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In accordance with Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can: |
(a) receiving evidence on affidavits; (b) issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents; (c) reviewing its decisions; (d) dismissing an application for default or deciding it ex parte; |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal has the authority to: |
Direct the production of evidence or documents from parties, Overturn orders based on new evidence, pass an order to enforce compliance |
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Under Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal can call for records from the: |
Adjudicating Officer |
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According to Section 58 of the IT Act, 2000, the Appellate Tribunal’s powers to hear appeals and pass orders are: |
Exclusive to the Appellate Tribunal and not subject to review |
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Under Section 59 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, a person has the right to: |
Be represented by an advocate in any appeal, appoint any person as their legal representative, Represent themselves in an adjudicating process |
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In terms of Section 59 of the IT Act, 2000, if an individual does not wish to be represented by an advocate, they can: |
Appear in person during the proceedings |
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Section 60 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), shall, as far as may be |
apply to an appeal made to the Appellate Tribunal |
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Section 60 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the limitation for: |
Instituting a legal proceeding or complaint |
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Under Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the limitation period for a complaint? |
The limitation period starts from the date the person knows of the offence |
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According to Section 60 of the IT Act, 2000, a limitation period can be extended if: |
The appellant can show valid reasons for the delay |
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Under Section 61 of the IT Act, 2000, which is true regarding the jurisdiction of civil courts? |
Civil courts are excluded from cases covered under the IT Act |
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Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 specifies that civil courts will not have jurisdiction in which cases? |
Digital signature violations, Appeal against a penalty imposed under the IT Act, Cases related to offenses under the IT Act |
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Under Section 61 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, in matters involving the violation of the Act, the jurisdiction lies with: |
The Adjudicating Officer or the Appellate Tribunal |
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Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for an appeal to the High Court against which? |
Orders passed by the Appellate Tribunal |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, an appeal against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal must be filed in: |
The High Court |
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Under Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the time frame for filing an appeal to the High Court is: |
sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Appellate Tribuna |
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The High Court, in an appeal under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, can: |
Set aside the order of the Appellate Tribunal if it finds a legal error |
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The High Court’s decision on an appeal filed under Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, is: |
Final and binding on all parties |
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As per Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, if the High Court dismisses the appeal, the decision of the Appellate Tribunal will: |
Stand confirmed and be final |
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According to Section 62 of the IT Act, 2000, who is authorized to file an appeal to the High Court? |
Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Appellate Tribunal |
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Section 63 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with: |
Compounding of contraventions |
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According to Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000, a contravention can be compounded by: |
by the Controller or such other officer as may be specially authorised by him in this behalf or by the adjudicating officer |
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The process of compounding under Section 63 of the IT Act, 2000 allows the contravention to be |
Settled by mutual consent without prosecution |
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Under Section 63 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the term 'compounding' refers to: |
A settlement or fine for violating the provisions of the IT Act |
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Section 64 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the: |
Recovery of penalty or compensation |
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Section 64 of the IT Act, 2000 allows the penalty or compensation to be recovered as: |
an arrear of land revenue and the licence or the electronic signature Certificate, as the case may be, shall be suspended till the penalty is paid. |
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CHAPTER XI |
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OFFENCES |
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Section 65 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the offense of: |
Tampering with computer source documents |
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According to Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000, a person is said to have tampered with computer source documents if they: |
Alter, destroy, or conceal any computer source code |
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Whoever knowingly or intentionally conceals, destroys or alters or intentionally or knowingly causes another to conceal, destroy, or alter any computer source code used for a computer, computer programme, computer system or computer network, when the computer source code is required to be kept or maintained by law for the time being in force, shall be punishable under sec 65 |
with imprisonment up to three years, or with fine which may extend up to two lakh rupees, or with both. |
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Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with: |
Computer-related offenses |
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Under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, –If any person, dishonestly or fraudulently, does any act referred to in section 43, he shall be punishable |
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine which may extend to five lakh rupees or with both. |
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Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, covers which type of computer-related offense? |
Unauthorized access to a computer system or network |
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Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000, provides a penalty for offenses such as: |
Hacking |
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Section 66A strucked down in which case? |
Shreya singhal v. Union of India (2015) |
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On which ground sec. 66A Was strucked down by supreme court? |
It violates the Article 19(1) |
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Section 66B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the punishment for: |
Dishonestly receiving stolen computer resources or communication devices |
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Whoever dishonestly receive or retains any stolen computer resource or communication device knowing or having reason to believe the same to be stolen computer resource or communication device, shall be punished |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh or with both. |
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Section 66C of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the punishment for: |
Identity theft |
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According to Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000, identity theft is defined as the act of: |
Using someone's personal information without their consent |
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Whoever, fraudulently or dishonestly make use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person shall be punished |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to rupees one lakh. |
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Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Cheating by personation using computer resources |
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Under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, the act of cheating by personation involves: |
Using someone else's identity to deceive or mislead others |
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In Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, "personation" refers to: |
Pretending to be someone else to deceive or cheat |
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Which actions can be punishable under Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000? |
Sending fraudulent emails pretending to be from a bank, using a fake identity to open an online account |
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Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, applies when someone pretends to be: |
A person or entity to gain financial or other benefits |
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Whoever, by means of any communication device or computer resource cheats by personation under Section 66D shall be punished with |
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to one lakh rupees. |
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In Section 66D of the IT Act, 2000, "cheating by personation" is when: |
Someone impersonates another person for malicious purposes |
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Section 66E of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Violation of privacy |
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Whoever, intentionally or knowingly captures, publishes or transmits the image of a private area of any person without his or her consent, under circumstances violating the privacy of that person, shall be punished |
with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees, or with both. |
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Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Cyber terrorism |
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Under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, cyber terrorism refers to: |
Using computer resources to cause fear or harm to individuals or the country |
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Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, punishes acts that threaten the sovereignty, integrity, and security of: |
The country |
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Under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, an individual is punished for cyber terrorism if they: |
Use computer systems to cause damage to national security |
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Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, applies when the act of cyber terrorism causes: |
Damage to the sovereignty and integrity of India |
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Cyber terrorism under Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, includes acts that: |
Damage computer systems, Disrupt or destroy the operation of computer systems or networks, Harm the security and integrity of the nation |
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In Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000, cyber terrorism is classified as: |
A criminal offense |
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Whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punishable |
with imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life. |
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Section 67 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form |
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Under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, which is considered an offense? |
Publishing obscene material on social media platforms, sharing offensive or sexually explicit content through email, Transmitting obscene material via instant messaging |
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Which actions would be punishable under Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Posting an adult video on a website, sharing a nude image without consent, Distributing explicit content through a messaging app |
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Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000, aims to prevent the distribution of which types of content? |
Obscene material such as pornographic content |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form shall be punished on first conviction under Section 67 |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and with fine which may extend to five lakh rupees |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form shall be punished in the event of second or subsequent conviction under Section 67 |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years and also with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees. |
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Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, applies to the transmission or publication of material in: |
Electronic form |
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Under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, sexually explicit material is defined as: |
Material that depicts sexual acts or behaviors, Material intended to promote or depict sexual activity in a vulgar manner, Material that is offensive and causes harm to the public moral order |
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What is the primary purpose of Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000? |
To prevent the transmission of sexually explicit content in electronic form |
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Which types of content is punishable under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000? |
Pornographic images shared without consent, Explicit videos uploaded to websites, Text messages containing sexually explicit language |
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Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, applies to all forms of electronic transmission including: |
Email, social media, Websites |
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Under Section 67A of the IT Act, 2000, which materials could potentially be classified as sexually explicit content? |
Videos depicting sexual acts, Pictures containing nudity intended to stimulate sexual desire, Audio content with explicit sexual language |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting of material containing sexually explicit act, etc., in electronic form Under Section 67A shall be punished on first conviction |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years and with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting of material containing sexually explicit act, etc., in electronic form Under Section 67A shall be punished in the event of second or subsequent conviction |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and also with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees. |
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Section 67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for: |
Publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit acts |
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Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, specifically targets the publication or transmission of material that depicts: |
Children in sexually explicit acts |
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Section 67B of the IT Act, 2000, applies to the publication or transmission of material that: |
Depicts children engaged in sexually explicit activities |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting of material depicting children in sexually explicit act, etc., in electronic form shall be punished on first conviction |
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years and with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees |
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Punishment for publishing or transmitting of material depicting children in sexually explicit act, etc., in electronic form shall be punished in the event of second or subsequent conviction |
with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and also with fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees |
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Children under Section 67B means a person who has not completed |
the age of 18 years |
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Section 67C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, requires intermediaries to preserve and retain information for: |
As prescribed by the central Government |
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Under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, intermediaries must retain information to assist authorities in cases of: |
Cybercrimes and illegal activities |
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The period for which intermediaries are required to preserve information under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, depends on: |
Government regulations and instructions |
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Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000, applies to: |
All intermediaries handling electronic records |
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Which is an obligation of intermediaries under Section 67C of the IT Act, 2000? |
They must preserve and retain data for a prescribed period |
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any intermediary who intentionally or knowingly contravenes the provisions of not to preserve and retain such information as may be specified for such duration and in such manner and format as the Central Government may prescribe under sec 67C |
Shall be liable to penalty extend to twenty-five lakhs |
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Section 68 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, grants power to the Controller to: |
Issue directions to regulate electronic records |
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Which entities can receive directions from the Controller under Section 68 of the IT Act, 2000? |
Certifying Authorities, Intermediaries providing online services, Service providers of electronic records |
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The Controller, under Section 68, may give directions to ensure the protection of: |
Information security and compliance |
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Any person who intentionally or knowingly fails to comply with any order to take such measures or cease carrying on such activities as specified in the order under sec 68 |
shall be liable to penalty which extend to twenty-five lakhs |
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Under Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the government has the power to issue directions for the interception or monitoring of: |
Any information through computer resources |
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Which authority is empowered under Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, to issue directions for interception or decryption of information? |
Central Government or any authorized agency |
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According to Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, the directions for interception, monitoring, or decryption can be given for which type of information? |
Any information transmitted through computers, computer systems, or networks |
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The primary purpose of Section 69 of the IT Act, 2000, is to allow the government to issue directions related to: |
National security, public order, or investigation of offenses |
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The subscriber or intermediary or any person who fails to assist the agency under sec 69 |
shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine. |
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Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, empowers the government to issue directions to block public access to any information that is: |
Related to national security, public order, or sovereignty of India |
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Under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the government has the authority to block access to information on: |
Any computer resource |
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As per Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, the blocking order can be issued to: |
Websites, web pages, or information on any computer resource that poses a threat to national security |
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The intermediary who fails to comply with the direction to block for access by the public or cause to be blocked for access by the public any information generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted in any computer resource shall be punished with under sec 69A |
an imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and also be liable to fine. |
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Section 69B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, grants the government the power to: |
Authorize monitoring and collection of traffic data for the purpose of cybersecurity |
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Under Section 69B of the IT Act, who can authorize the monitoring and collection of traffic data or information through computer resources for the purpose of cybersecurity? |
The Central Government or an authorized officer |
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The purpose of monitoring and collecting traffic data under Section 69B of the IT Act is to ensure: |
National security and prevention of cyber threats |
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The power to monitor and collect traffic data for cybersecurity purposes under Section 69B can be exercised by: |
Authorized officers of the government designated for cybersecurity |
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According to Section 69B, the monitoring and collection of traffic data is authorized for the purpose of: |
Protecting against cyber threats and ensuring cybersecurity |
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Under Section 69B, the government can authorize the monitoring of traffic data from: |
Any computer resource, including the internet and communication networks |
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Any intermediary who intentionally or knowingly contravenes the provisions provide technical assistance and extend all facilities to such agency to enable online access or to secure and provide online access to the computer resource generating, transmitting, receiving or storing such traffic data or information shall be punished under sec 69B |
an imprisonment for a term which any extend to one year or fine extend to one crore or both |
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The appropriate Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare any computer resource which directly or indirectly affects the facility of Critical Information Infrastructure: |
a protected system under sec.70 |
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The Central Government may, by notification published in the Official Gazette, designate any organisation of the Government as |
National nodal agency under sec.70A |
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The Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint an agency of the Government to be called |
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team under sec.70B |
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Whoever makes any misrepresentation to, or suppresses any material fact from the Controller or the Certifying Authority for obtaining any licence or electronic signature Certificate, as the case may be, shall be punished under sec 71 |
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both |
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If any person who has secured access to any electronic record, book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material without the consent of the person concerned discloses such electronic record, book, register, correspondence, information, document or other material to any other person shall be punished under sec 72 |
Liable to penalty which extend to 5 lakhs |
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Any person including an intermediary who, while providing services under the terms of lawful contract, has secured access to any material containing personal information about another person, with the intent to cause or knowing that he is likely to cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain discloses, without the consent of the person concerned, or in breach of a lawful contract, such material to any other person, shall be punished |
Liable to penalty which extend to TWENTY-FIVE lakhs |
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Penalty for publishing electronic signature Certificate false in certain particulars under section 73 |
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both |
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Whoever knowingly creates, publishes or otherwise makes available a electronic signature Certificate for any fraudulent or unlawful purpose shall be punished under section 74 |
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both. |
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Whether the provision of Act shall apply to an offence or contravention committed outside India by any person if the act or conduct constituting the offence or contravention involves a computer, computer system or computer network located in India. |
Yes (sec.75) |
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Any computer, computer system, floppies, compact disks, tape drives or any other accessories related thereto, in respect of which any provision of this Act, rules, orders or regulations made thereunder has been or is being contravened |
shall be liable to confiscation under sec 76 |
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Which provision deal with Compensation, penalties or confiscation not to interfere with other punishment? |
Sec.77 |
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Which offences can be compounded under Section 77A of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Offences punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years |
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Under Section 77A, a court may not compound an offence if: |
The accused has a previous conviction leading to enhanced punishment, The offence affects the socio-economic conditions of the country, The offence has been committed against a child below the age of 18 years or a woman |
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According to Section 77A, who may file an application for compounding an offence? |
The accused |
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Which sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, apply to the compounding process under Section 77A? |
Sections 265B and 265C |
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Under Section 77A, can an offence affecting the socio-economic conditions of the country be compounded? |
No, it cannot be compounded |
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An offence under the IT Act punishable with imprisonment of 3 years and above treated as |
cognizable |
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What is the main objective of introducing Section 77B in the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
To clarify which offences are bailable |
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Which is a non-bailable offence under the IT Act as per Section 77B? |
Section 66F – Cyber terrorism |
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What is the effect of Section 77B on judicial interpretation regarding bailability? |
It provides guidance for uniform classification |
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What type of offence is considered bailable according to Section 77B? |
Those punishable with imprisonment for three years or less |
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Does Section 77B make a distinction between first-time offenders and repeat offenders? |
No |
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CHAPTER XII |
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INTERMEDIARIES NOT TO BE LIABLE IN CERTAIN CASES |
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Which provision deal with Exemption from liability of intermediary in certain cases? |
Sec.79 |
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Whether an intermediary liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted by him? |
No |
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When an intermediary shall not be liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted by him? |
the function of the intermediary is limited to providing access to a communication system over which information made available by third parties is transmitted or temporarily stored or hosted |
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When an intermediary shall be liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted by him? |
the intermediary has conspired or abetted or aided or induced or upon receiving actual knowledge and used to commit the unlawful act. |
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CHAPTER XIIA |
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EXAMINER OF ELECTRONIC EVIDENCE |
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Which provision deal with Central Government to notify Examiner of Electronic Evidence? |
Sec.79A |
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CHAPTER XIII |
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MISCELLANEOUS |
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Under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, who is authorized to enter, search, and arrest without a warrant? |
Police officer not below the rank of Inspector |
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Which is considered a "public place" under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Public conveyance |
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What is the primary condition for a police officer to exercise powers under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
The officer must be reasonably suspicious of an offence under the Act |
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Under Section 80, what must an officer do if they arrest a person other than a police officer? |
Take the person before a magistrate or officer-in-charge of a police station without unnecessary delay |
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What does the term "public place" include under Section 80 of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Any place intended for use by, or accessible to, the public |
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Which is NOT included in the definition of "public place" under Section 80? |
Private residence |
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Which provision deal with Application of the Act to electronic cheque and truncated cheque? |
Sec.81A |
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Who shall be deemed to be public servants under section 82 of the Information Technology Act, 2000?? |
Controller, Deputy Controller and Assistant Controller |
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Which provision deal with “No suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Central Government, the State Government, the Controller or any person acting on behalf of him, and adjudicating officers for anything which is in good faith done”? |
Sec.84 |
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Who prescribe the Modes or methods for encryption under section 84A? |
The Central Government |
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Under Section 84B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, who is liable for punishment if they abet an offence under this Act? |
Both the abettor and the person committing the offence |
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Section 84B specifies that the punishment for abetment is: |
Equal to the punishment prescribed for the primary offence |
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Who is considered to have abetted an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, as per Section 84B? |
Any person who aids or encourages the commission of an offence under the Act |
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In case of abetment, which applies as per Section 84B? |
The abettor shall receive the same punishment as the person committing the offence |
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Which offences can be subject to abetment under Section 84B of the Information Technology Act, 2000? |
Sending offensive messages through communication service, etc., Publishing obscene material online, Hacking a computer system |
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Under Section 84C of the Information Technology Act, 2000, what happens if a person attempts to commit an offence under this Act? |
They will be punished as if they committed the offence |
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If a person is caught attempting to hack into a computer system under Section 84C, what will the court do? |
Punish the person as if the hacking was successfully completed |
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What is the key point about the punishment for attempting to commit an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000, as outlined in Section 84C? |
imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may extend to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence, or with such fine as is provided for the offence, or with both |
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Which offences can be subject to punishment under Section 84C of the IT Act if attempted? |
Hacking, Identity theft, Publishing obscene material |
