Information Technology Act, 2000
1. Who must assist in the interception under Section 69(3)?
a. Any citizen
b. Subscriber, intermediary, or person in-charge of the computer resource
c. Judiciary
d. Police only
2. Non-compliance with Section 69(3) may attract:
a. Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine
b. Fine only
c. Warning only
d. Community service
3. Section 69 safeguards prevent:
a. Arbitrary or unlawful interception
b. Data monetization
c. Advertising misuse
d. Copyright violations
4. Intermediary refusing to provide technical assistance under Section 69 may face:
a. Warning only
b. Civil damages only
c. Criminal liability with imprisonment and fine
d. Administrative notice only
5. Section 69(4) prescribes punishment for:
a. Non-cooperation with agencies under subsection (3)
b. Publishing obscene material
c. Hacking
d. Data theft
6. Who can issue directions under Section 69A?
a. Central Government or its specially authorised officers
b. High Court only
c. Any government officer
d. Judiciary only
7. Section 69A applies to information that is:
a. Only emails
b. Only social media posts
c. Any information generated, transmitted, received, stored, or hosted in a computer resource
d. Only financial data
8. The reasons for blocking under Section 69A must be:
a. Oral instructions
b. Recorded in writing
c. Secretly decided by intermediary
d. Advertised publicly
9. Which entity is responsible for blocking information under Section 69A?
a. Only intermediaries
b. Only government agencies
c. Intermediaries or government agencies as directed
d. Internet users
10. Section 69A directions must be issued with:
a. Subscriber’s consent
b. Written order and recorded reasons
c. Public notification only
d. Prior approval of Judiciary
11. Which of the following is NOT a ground for issuing Section 69A direction?
a. Maintaining public order
b. Friendly relations with foreign States
c. Cyber defamation
d. Defence of India
12. Section 69A ensures accountability by:
a. Requiring reasons to be recorded in writing
b. Requiring prior consent of users
c. Publishing all blocked content
d. Judicial approval for every direction
13. Section 69B of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Interception of information
b. Power to authorise monitoring and collection of traffic data for cyber security
c. Blocking access to information
d. Preservation of data by intermediaries
14. Who can authorise monitoring and collection of traffic data under Section 69B?
a. Judiciary only
b. Central Government
c. State Government only
d. Any private agency
15. Section 69B applies to:
a. Any computer resource generating, transmitting, receiving or storing traffic data or information
b. Only financial systems
c. Only government servers
d. Social media accounts only
16. Who must provide technical assistance under Section 69B?
a. Any citizen
b. Intermediary or any person in-charge of the computer resource
c. Judiciary
d. Police officers only
17. Penalty for intentional or knowing contravention under Section 69B is:
a. Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to 1 crore rupees, or both
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment up to 7 years
d. Warning only
18. “Computer contaminant” under Section 69B has the meaning assigned in:
a. Section 66
b. Section 43
c. Section 67
d. Section 68
19. Section 69B enhances cyber security by allowing:
a. Monitoring and collection of traffic data
b. Blocking websites
c. Intercepting emails only
d. Preserving data indefinitely
20. Which of the following is NOT covered under Section 69B?
a. Computer contaminant analysis
b. Collection of traffic data
c. Blocking public access to content
d. Prevention of intrusion
21. Authorised monitoring under Section 69B can be done for:
a. Only stored information
b. Only transmitted information
c. Generated, transmitted, received, or stored information
d. None of the above
22. Section 70 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Interception of information
b. Protected system
c. Blocking public access to information
d. Data preservation by intermediaries
23. Who can declare a computer resource as a protected system under Section 70?
a. Judiciary
b. Appropriate Government (Central or State)
c. Any private agency
d. Intermediaries only
24. Who can be authorised to access protected systems?
a. Any citizen
b. Private companies
c. Judiciary only
d. Persons authorised by appropriate Government through order in writing
25. Protected systems are notified because they affect:
a. Public entertainment
b. Critical Information Infrastructure
c. Online marketing
d. Commercial competition
26. Who prescribes the procedures and practices for protected systems?
a. Judiciary
b. Central Government
c. State Government only
d. Intermediaries
27. Attempting to access a protected system without authorisation attracts:
a. Imprisonment up to 10 years and fine
b. Warning only
c. Civil damages only
d. Community service
28. Section 70 complements which other IT Act provisions?
a. Sections 69, 69A, and 69B (interception, blocking, monitoring for cyber security)
b. Section 67B only
c. Section 43 only
d. Section 67A only
29. Section 70A of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Protected system
b. National nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection
c. Interception of information
d. Blocking public access to information
30. Who can designate a national nodal agency under Section 70A?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Judiciary
d. Any private company
31. The national nodal agency is responsible for:
a. Regulating social media content
b. Measures including Research and Development for protection of Critical Information Infrastructure
c. Blocking websites
d. Tax collection
32. Section 70A complements which other IT Act provision?
a. Section 70 (Protected system)
b. Section 69 (Interception)
c. Section 69A (Blocking for public access)
d. Section 67C (Data preservation)
33. Research and Development by the national nodal agency includes:
a. Development of malware
b. Protection measures for Critical Information Infrastructure
c. Social media marketing strategies
d. E-commerce regulations
34. Section 70A works in conjunction with Section 70 to:
a. Protect Critical Information Infrastructure
b. Monitor social media trends
c. Block websites arbitrarily
d. Preserve user personal data
35. Who appoints the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team under Section 70B?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Judiciary
d. Private organisations
36. CERT-In is provided with:
a. Director General only
b. Director General and other officers and employees as prescribed
c. Intermediaries
d. Judiciary officials
37. Functions of CERT-In include:
a. Collection, analysis, and dissemination of cyber incident information
b. Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
c. Emergency measures for handling incidents
d. Coordination of cyber incident response activities
e. Issuing guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes, and white papers
f. All of the above
38. CERT-In can call for information and give directions to:
a. Judiciary only
b. Service providers, intermediaries, data centres, body corporates, and any other person
c. Citizens only
d. Private IT companies unrelated to cyber security
39. Penalty for failure to provide information or comply with CERT-In directions under Section 70B is:
a. Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to 1 crore rupees, or both
b. Fine only
c. Warning only
d. Imprisonment up to 7 years
40. No court shall take cognizance of any offence under Section 70B except:
a. On information from any citizen
b. On complaint made by an officer authorised by CERT-In
c. Suo motu by any court
d. On report by State Government
41. Collection, analysis, and dissemination of information on cyber incidents by CERT-In is aimed at:
a. Enhancing national cybersecurity and cyber incident preparedness
b. Social media marketing
c. Blocking competitor websites
d. Monitoring personal emails
42. Section 70B ensures accountability by:
a. Allowing court cognizance only on authorised officer’s complaint
b. Automatic judicial monitoring
c. Public complaint mechanism
d. Voluntary compliance
43. Section 70B complements which other IT Act provisions?
a. Section 66 only
b. Section 67 only
c. Sections 69, 69A, 69B, 70, 70A
d. Section 43 only
44. Misrepresentation under Section 71 refers to:
a. Making false statements to the Controller or Certifying Authority to obtain a licence or electronic signature certificate
b. Blocking websites
c. Unauthorized access to protected systems
d. Preserving data incorrectly
45. The Controller or Certifying Authority is involved in Section 71 because:
a. They issue licences and electronic signature certificates
b. They block websites
c. They preserve data only
d. They regulate social media content
46. Misrepresentation or suppression of material fact in Section 71 is considered:
a. Civil offence
b. Criminal offence
c. Administrative violation only
d. Optional compliance
47. Maximum imprisonment under Section 71 is:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
48. Misrepresentation includes:
a. Providing false information
b. Concealing relevant facts
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
49. Section 72 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Cyber terrorism
b. Penalty for breach of confidentiality and privacy
c. Protected systems
d. Misrepresentation for licence
50. Section 72 applies when a person:
a. Accesses electronic records with consent and shares them
b. Secures access to electronic records without consent and discloses them
c. Blocks websites
d. Preserves intermediary data
51. The penalty under Section 72 may extend to:
a. One lakh rupees
b. Five lakh rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. One crore rupees
52. Section 72 is applicable to persons acting under:
a. Powers conferred under this Act, rules, or regulations
b. Voluntary access
c. Social media platforms only
d. Personal data storage only
53. The liability under Section 72 arises when:
a. Data is published voluntarily
b. Data is disclosed without consent
c. Data is encrypted
d. Data is deleted
54. Section 72 protects information even when:
a. Held by intermediaries
b. Held by government or private person acting under powers of the Act
c. Publicly available
d. Both A and B
55. Section 72A of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Breach of confidentiality of electronic records
b. Penalty for disclosure of information in breach of lawful contract
c. Protected system
d. Cyber terrorism
56. Section 72A applies to:
a. Only individuals
b. Only private companies
c. Only government employees
d. Any person including intermediaries who has access to personal information under a lawful contract
57. The maximum penalty under Section 72A is:
a. Five lakh rupees
b. Twenty-five lakh rupees
c. One lakh rupees
d. One crore rupees
58. Section 72A penalty is aimed at preventing:
a. Unauthorized or wrongful disclosure of personal information causing wrongful loss or gain
b. Unauthorized access to public websites
c. Social media content manipulation
d. Tax evasion
59. Section 72A is applicable except as otherwise provided under:
a. This Act or any other law in force
b. Civil contracts
c. Criminal law only
d. Company regulations only
60. Section 72A penalty is:
a. Up to Rs. 25 lakh
b. Up to Rs. 5 lakh
c. Up to Rs. 1 lakh
d. Up to Rs. 50,000
61. Section 73 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Penalty for cyber terrorism
b. Penalty for publishing electronic signature certificate false in certain particulars
c. Penalty for breach of privacy
d. Interception of information
62. Section 73 prohibits publishing an electronic signature certificate if:
a. Certifying Authority listed has not issued it
b. Subscriber listed has not accepted it
c. The certificate has been revoked or suspended
d. All of the above
63. Publishing a false electronic signature certificate is allowed:
a. For personal gain
b. Only for verifying an electronic signature created prior to suspension or revocation
c. Without any restriction
d. For commercial purposes
64. Maximum imprisonment under Section 73 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
65. Maximum fine under Section 73 is:
a. One lakh rupees
b. Fifty thousand rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. Twenty-five lakh rupees
66. Section 73 applies to publishing electronic signature certificates:
a. For commercial gain only
b. Without authorization from Certifying Authority
c. Only in government organisations
d. Only in private companies
67. Section 73 complements which other provisions?
a. Sections 71 and 72A (misrepresentation and privacy)
b. Section 70A (national nodal agency)
c. Section 69 (interception)
d. Section 67C (data retention)
68. Section 73 imposes liability for publishing:
a. False electronic signature certificates
b. Unauthorized emails
c. Publicly available information
d. Social media posts
69. Section 74 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Breach of privacy
b. Publication for fraudulent purpose
c. Protected systems
d. Interception of information
70. Maximum imprisonment under Section 74 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
71. Maximum fine under Section 74 is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. Twenty-five lakh rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. One lakh rupees
72. Section 74 applies to publication of electronic signature certificates:
a. For personal use only
b. For fraudulent or unlawful purposes
c. Only for government use
d. Only for private companies
73. Section 74 protects the integrity of:
a. Electronic signature system
b. Social media platforms
c. E-commerce websites
d. Government data only
74. Section 74 complements which other sections of the IT Act?
a. Sections 73 and 71
b. Section 70 only
c. Section 67C
d. Section 69A
75. Section 74 applies irrespective of:
a. Whether the certificate is revoked or suspended
b. Whether it is government-issued
c. The certificate type
d. Both A and C
76. Section 74 penalty ensures:
a. Accuracy, authenticity, and trust in electronic signature certificates
b. Monitoring social media
c. Blocking harmful content
d. Preserving intermediary data
77. Section 74 complements Section 73 by:
a. Targeting creation or publication with fraudulent intent
b. Regulating lawful use
c. Preserving intermediary data
d. Blocking websites
78. Section 75 allows the Act to apply to offences committed outside India:
a. Only to Indian citizens
b. Irrespective of nationality
c. Only to foreign nationals
d. Only to companies registered in India
79. Section 75 applies if the offence committed outside India involves:
a. Any government website
b. A computer, computer system, or computer network located in India
c. Only social media platforms
d. Only financial institutions
80. Section 75 ensures jurisdiction over:
a. Cyber offences affecting Indian computer systems
b. Only domestic cyber offences
c. Only Indian government websites
d. Only e-commerce fraud
81. Section 75 applies to:
a. Cyber crimes committed globally impacting Indian infrastructure
b. Only crimes committed physically in India
c. Only crimes on Indian government servers
d. Only e-commerce disputes
82. Section 76 of the IT Act, 2000 relates to:
a. Extraterritorial jurisdiction
b. Confiscation
c. Breach of privacy
d. Fraudulent publication
83. Under Section 76, which of the following can be confiscated?
a. Computer
b. Computer system
c. Storage accessories
d. All of the above
84. Confiscation under Section 76 applies when:
a. Any provision of the IT Act is contravened
b. Rules, orders or regulations are contravened
c. Contravention has been or is being committed
d. All of the above
85. Which authority decides confiscation under Section 76?
a. Police officer
b. Certifying Authority
c. Court adjudicating the confiscation
d. Controller
86. Confiscation under Section 76 is:
a. Mandatory in all cases
b. Discretionary subject to court satisfaction
c. Automatic without inquiry
d. Optional for police
87. Section 76 applies to contravention of:
a. The IT Act only
b. Rules only
c. Orders and regulations only
d. IT Act, rules, orders and regulations
88. Section 76 applies irrespective of:
a. Ownership of device
b. Nationality of offender
c. Location of offence
d. Age of offender
89. Section 76 is applicable even if:
a. Device belongs to third party
b. Device is rented
c. Possessor is innocent
d. All of the above
90. Section 77 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Compounding of offences
b. Confiscation
c. Compensation, penalties or confiscation not to interfere with other punishment
d. Cognizance of offences
91. According to Section 77, penalty imposed under the IT Act:
a. Is final and exclusive
b. Prevents further punishment
c. Does not interfere with punishment under other laws
d. Cancels criminal liability
92. Section 77 prevents the defence of:
a. Lack of jurisdiction
b. Double jeopardy
c. Prior punishment under IT Act
d. Limitation period
93. Section 77 supports the principle of:
a. Natural justice
b. Concurrent liability
c. Estoppel
d. Res judicata
94. Section 77 negates the argument that:
a. IT Act is special law
b. IT Act punishment bars other punishment
c. Courts lack jurisdiction
d. Evidence is invalid
95. Section 77 allows application of:
a. Criminal law only
b. Civil law only
c. Both civil and criminal laws
d. Administrative law only
96. Section 77A of the IT Act deals with:
a. Cognizance of offences
b. Compounding of offences
c. Confiscation
d. Appeal
97. Which offences cannot be compounded under Section 77A?
a. Offences punishable with fine only
b. Offences punishable with imprisonment up to three years
c. Offences punishable with life imprisonment
d. Minor offences
98. Offences punishable with imprisonment exceeding how many years cannot be compounded?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
99. Compounding is not permitted if the accused is liable to enhanced punishment due to:
a. Nature of offence
b. Previous conviction
c. Age of accused
d. Place of offence
100. Compounding is prohibited if the offence is committed against:
a. Any adult
b. A foreign national
c. A child below 18 years
d. A government servant
101. Section 77A also bars compounding of offences committed against:
a. Senior citizens
b. Public servants
c. Women
d. Companies
102. The application for compounding shall be filed in the court where:
a. Appeal is pending
b. Sentence is passed
c. Offence is pending for trial
d. FIR is registered
103. Which provisions of BNSS apply to compounding under Section 77A?
a. Sections 320 and 321
b. Sections 265 and 265
c. Sections 360 and 361
d. Sections 290 and 291
104. Compounding under Section 77A can be done:
a. Before filing FIR
b. During investigation only
c. When offence is pending for trial
d. After appeal
105. Prior conviction of the accused affects compounding by:
a. Prohibiting compounding
b. Making it invalid
c. Making it compulsory
d. Reducing punishment
106. Section 77A follows which principle?
a. Mandatory prosecution
b. Zero tolerance
c. Settlement of minor cyber offences
d. Strict liability
107. Section 77B of the IT Act relates to:
a. Compounding of offences
b. Cognizance of offences
c. Bailability and cognizability of offences
d. Confiscation
108. Under Section 77B, an offence punishable with imprisonment of three years and above shall be:
a. Non-cognizable
b. Cognizable
c. Non-bailable
d. Compoundable
109. Offence punishable with imprisonment of exactly three years shall be:
a. Non-bailable
b. Cognizable and non-bailable
c. Triable by Magistrate
d. only Bailable
110. Section 77B overrides provisions of:
a. BNS
b. BSA
c. BNSS
d. Civil Procedure Code
111. Offence punishable with imprisonment of two years under IT Act shall be:
a. Cognizable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Covered under Section 77B
d. Non-compoundable
112. Cognizable offences under Section 77B allow police to:
a. Compound offence
b. Arrest without warrant
c. Grant bail
d. Conduct trial
113. Offence punishable with imprisonment of four years shall be:
a. Bailable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Cognizable
d. Compoundable
114. Section 78 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Power to adjudicate
b. Power to investigate offences
c. Power to arrest
d. Power to compound offences
115. Investigation of offences under the IT Act can be done by:
a. Any police officer
b. Police officer not below the rank of Inspector
c. Sub-Inspector only
d. Magistrate
116. A Sub-Inspector can investigate offences under IT Act:
a. Independently
b. With court permission
c. Only if authorised under Section 78
d. Cannot investigate
117. Section 78 fixes minimum rank for investigation to ensure:
a. Speedy trial
b. Special expertise
c. Judicial control
d. Revenue recovery
118. The minimum rank requirement under Section 78 is mandatory because of:
a. Technical nature of cyber offences
b. Revenue implications
c. Federal structure
d. Judicial economy
119. Investigation under Section 78 does NOT include:
a. Collection of evidence
b. Arrest
c. Adjudication
d. Filing charge-sheet
120. Section 79 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Punishment for hacking
b. Exemption from liability of intermediary
c. Power to block websites
d. Investigation of cyber offences
121. Under Section 79(1), an intermediary shall not be liable for:
a. Its own content
b. Third party information
c. Government data
d. Judicial records
122. Section 79(2)(A) applies where intermediary’s function is limited to:
a. Editing content
b. Publishing content
c. Providing access to a communication system
d. Monitoring users
123. Which act disqualifies intermediary from protection under Section 79?
a. Passive hosting
b. Due diligence
c. Initiating transmission
d. Temporary storage
124. Intermediary must NOT select which of the following to claim exemption?
a. Time of transmission
b. Receiver of transmission
c. Server location
d. Data retention period
125. Guidelines for due diligence are prescribed by:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. State Government
126. Actual knowledge under Section 79(3)(B) arises when intermediary is:
a. Informed by user
b. Informed by media
c. Notified by appropriate Government or its agency
d. Personally aware
127. While removing content, intermediary must ensure:
a. Evidence is destroyed
b. Evidence is preserved
c. Content is edited
d. Content is archived publicly
128. Immunity under Section 79 is available when intermediary acts:
a. Actively
b. Negligently
c. Passively
d. Fraudulently
129. Section 79A of the IT Act deals with:
a. Admissibility of electronic records
b. Examiner of Electronic Evidence
c. Intermediary liability
d. Cyber investigation
130. Under Section 79A, who may notify an Examiner of Electronic Evidence?
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. State Government
131. Examiner of Electronic Evidence is notified for the purpose of:
a. Investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Providing expert opinion
d. Adjudication
132. Which authority can be specified as Examiner of Electronic Evidence?
a. Private forensic lab B Department, body or agency of Government
b. Any individual expert
c. Advocate
d. Advocate
133. Examiner under Section 79A can belong to:
a. Central Government only
b. State Government only
c. Central or State Government
d. Private sector
134. Examiner of Electronic Evidence provides opinion on:
a. Electronic evidence
b. Factual disputes
c. Legal issues
d. Criminal intent
135. Section 79A relates to which branch of law?
a. Civil law
b. Constitutional law
c. BSA
d. Contract law
136. Section 79A was introduced to address:
a. Cyber terrorism
b. Digital forensics
c. Intermediary immunity
d. Online fraud
137.Section 80 of the IT Act relates to:
a. Confiscation
b. Power to enter, search and arrest
c. Investigation of offences
d. Trial of offences
138. Power under Section 80 can be exercised by:
a. Any police officer
b. Constable
c. Sub-Inspector
d. Police officer not below Inspector
139. Apart from police officers, power under Section 80 may be exercised by:
a. Judicial officers
b. Private persons
c. Officers authorised by Central Government
d. Advocates
140. Under Section 80, entry and search can be conducted in:
a. Private residence only
b. Court premises
c. Office of Magistrate
d. Public place
141. Arrest under Section 80 can be made:
a. Only with warrant
b. With prior court permission
c. Without warrant
d. Only during investigation
142. A person may be arrested under Section 80 if he is:
a. Convicted
b. Reasonably suspected
c. Named in FIR only
d. Summoned by court
143. Arrest under Section 80 applies to a person who:
a. Has committed an offence
b. Is committing an offence
c. Is about to commit an offence
d. All of the above
144. Officer other than police arresting a person must:
a. Release immediately
b. Conduct trial
c. Produce before Magistrate or police station
d. Impose fine
145. If arrested by non-police officer, the person shall be taken to:
a. District Court
b. High Court
c. Magistrate having jurisdiction
d. Revenue authority
146. Application of BNSS under Section 80 is:
a. Subject to provisions of Section 80
b. Excluded
c. Absolute
d. Optional
147. Entry, search or arrest under Section 80 is governed mainly by:
a. BNS
b. BNSS
c. IT Act
d. Police Act
148. Section 81 of the IT Act deals with:
a. Confiscation
b. Overriding effect of the Act
c. Investigation of offences
d. Intermediary liability
149. Section 81 starts with which principle?
a. Harmonious construction
b. Rule of strict interpretation
c. Non-obstante clause
d. Doctrine of severability
150.Section 81 gives overriding effect over:
a. BNS only
b. BNSS only
c. Contract Act only
d. All other laws