1. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022 is:
a. Act No. 17 of 2023
b. Act No. 6 of 2022
c. Act No. 27 of 1992
d. Act No. 6 of 2023
2. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022 received the assent of the Governor on:
a. 6th April, 2022
b. 5th April, 2022
c. 5th August, 2022
d. 5th April, 2023
3. The Act was enacted by the:
a. Parliament
b. Governor by Ordinance
c. Rajasthan State Legislature
d. Rajasthan Public Service Commission
4. The Act was enacted in the:
a. Seventy-second Year of the Republic of India
b. Seventy-fourth Year of the Republic of India
c. Seventy-first Year of the Republic of India
d. Seventy-third Year of the Republic of India
5. The Act was enacted to provide for effective measures to prevent and curb the offences of:
a. Corruption in public employment
b. Leakage of question papers and use of unfair means at public examinations
c. Maladministration in educational institutions
d. Impersonation in all examinations
6. The public examinations covered under the Act are those conducted for the purpose of:
a. Admission to educational institutions
b. Promotion in private employment
c. Recruitment to any post under the State Government
d. Professional licensing only
7. Recruitment under the Act includes recruitment to posts under:
a. State Government only
b. State Government and universities only
c. State Government and local authorities only
d. State Government including autonomous bodies, authorities, boards or corporations
8. Besides prevention of leakage of question papers and use of unfair means, the Act also provides for:
a. Educational tribunals
b. Designated courts for the trial of such offences
c. Service tribunals
d. Vigilance commissions
9.The Act further provides for matters:
a. Connected therewith or incidental thereto
b. Relating to admission procedures
c. Concerning educational qualifications
d. Relating to reservation policy
10. The authorised English translation was published in pursuance of:
a. Article 309 of the Constitution of India
b. Article 226 of the Constitution of India
c. Clause (3) of Article 348 of the Constitution of India
d. Article 254 of the Constitution of India
11. The publication of the authorised English translation in the Rajasthan Gazette was authorised by the:
a. President
b. Governor
c. Chief Justice of Rajasthan
d. State Legislature
12. The long title of the Act specifically refers to prevention and curbing of offences relating to:
a. Recruitment irregularities generally
b. Leakage of question papers and use of unfair means at public examinations
c. Corruption in public service
d. Forgery of educational certificates
13. Section 2 of the Act deals with:
a. Public examinations
b. Definitions
c. Unfair means
d. Examination authorities
14. "Conduct of public examination" includes:
a. Evaluation and declaration of result only
b. Preparation and printing of question papers only
c. Activities from preparation of question papers to declaration of result
d. Recruitment process after declaration of result
15. Which of the following is specifically included in the conduct of public examination?
a. Appointment of candidates
b. Transportation of question papers
c. Service verification
d. Medical examination
16. "Conduct of public examination" includes preparation, printing, supervision, coding, processing, storing, transportation, distribution and:
a. Publication
b. Authentication
c. Collection of question papers, answer sheets, OMR sheets and result sheets
d. Moderation only
17. "Examination authority" means:
a. Any authority conducting recruitment
b. An examination authority as specified in Schedule-I
c. Any department of the State Government
d. Any recruiting agency
18. The examination authorities under the Act are specified in:
a. Schedule-II
b. Rules
c. Official Gazette
d. Schedule-I
19. "Examination center" means:
a. Only the examination hall
b. Any institution or part thereof or any other place fixed and used for holding a public examination
c. Any Government building
d. Any educational institution
20. An examination center includes:
a. Only the room where candidates write the examination
b. Administrative offices only
c. The entire premises attached thereto
d. Parking area only if notified
21. "Examinee" means:
a. Any applicant for recruitment
b. A person who has submitted an application form
c. A person who has been granted permission by the concerning authority to appear in a public examination
d. Any person present in the examination center
22. The definition of "examinee" includes:
a. Invigilator
b. Examiner
c. Observer
d. A person authorized to act as scribe on behalf of the examinee
23. "Public examination" means examination for recruitment to:
a. Posts under the State Government only
b. Posts under autonomous bodies only
c. Any post under the State Government including autonomous bodies, authorities, boards or corporations as specified in Schedule-II
d. Any public employment in India
24. Public examinations covered under the Act are specified in:
a. Schedule-I
b. Schedule-II
c. Rules framed under the Act
d. Notifications issued by the State Government
25. In relation to an examinee, "unfair means" includes:
a. Appearing in more than one examination
b. Taking unauthorized help in a public examination
c. Applying for recruitment through multiple applications
d. Seeking clarification from the examination authority
26. Unauthorized help from any material written, recorded, copied or printed, in any form whatsoever, is included within:
a. Misconduct
b. Corrupt practice
c. Unfair means
d. Breach of examination discipline
27. Use of any unauthorized electronic or mechanical instrument or gadget by an examinee amounts to:
a. Unfair means
b. Misrepresentation
c. Impersonation
d. Abetment
28. In relation to any person, unfair means includes:
a. Impersonating or leaking or attempting to leak or conspiring to leak question paper
b. Discussing examination syllabus
c. Publishing recruitment advertisements
d. Conducting coaching classes
29. Procuring or attempting to procure question paper in an unauthorized manner falls within:
a. Conduct of public examination
b. Public examination
c. Unfair means
d. Examination authority
30. Possessing or attempting to possess question paper in an unauthorized manner is:
a. Expressly included within unfair means
b. Excluded from unfair means
c. Punishable only if possession is proved after examination
d. Covered only under the BNS
31. Solving or attempting to solve question paper in an unauthorized manner is included in:
a. Examination misconduct
b. Unfair means
c. Recruitment malpractice
d. Conduct of public examination
32. Seeking assistance to solve question paper in an unauthorized manner is:
a. Not covered unless assistance is received
b. Covered only when done by an examinee
c. Included within unfair means
d. Covered only if the examination is online
33. Directly or indirectly assisting the examinee in the public examination in an unauthorized manner constitutes:
a. Unfair means
b. Mere irregularity
c. Administrative misconduct
d. Professional negligence
34. The Explanation appended to clause (f) provides that:
a. Examinee is excluded from the expression "any person"
b. Any person means only examination authority
c. Any person includes an examinee
d. Any person means a public servant only
35. Which of the following best reflects the effect of the Explanation to clause (f)?
a. An examinee can also fall within the expression "any person"
b. An examinee is governed only by clause (f)(i)
c. An examinee cannot commit acts under clause (f)(ii)
d. The Explanation restricts the scope of unfair means
36. Words and expressions used in the Act but not defined therein shall have the meanings assigned to them in:
a. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. The Rajasthan General Clauses Act
c. The Constitution of India
d. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
37. Clause (g) applies to words and expressions:
a. Defined in Schedule-I
b. Defined in Schedule-II
c. Not defined in the Act but defined in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
d. Not defined in any law
38. Under clause (g), undefined words and expressions shall have:
a. Similar meanings assigned by courts
b. The same meanings respectively assigned to them in the BNS
c. Meanings prescribed by rules
d. Meanings notified by the State Government
39. Section 3 of the Act deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Examination authorities
c. Prohibition of use of unfair means
d. Penalties
40. Under Section 3, no person shall:
a. Enter an examination center without permission
b. Use unfair means at any public examination
c. Possess a question paper
d. Appear in more than one examination
41. Section 4 of the Act deals with:
a. Prohibition of use of unfair means
b. Possession and disclosure of question paper
c. Examination centers
d. Examination authorities
42. Under Section 4, no person authorized by virtue of his duties in conduct of public examination shall, before the time fixed for opening and distribution of question papers:
a. Open, leak or procure or attempt to procure, possess or solve such question paper or any portion or a copy thereof
b. Supervise the examination
c. Transport question papers
d. Distribute question papers
43. The prohibition under clause (a) extends to:
a. The entire question paper only
b. The question paper but not a copy thereof
c. Such question paper or any portion or a copy thereof
d. Solved answer sheets only
44. Under Section 4(b), no person authorized by virtue of his duties shall:
a. Give any confidential information or promise to give such confidential information related to or in reference to such question paper
b. Conduct the examination
c. Evaluate answer sheets
d. Declare the result
45. The prohibition contained in Section 4 operates before:
a. Commencement of evaluation
b. Declaration of result
c. The time fixed for opening and distribution of question papers
d. Closing of the examination center
46. Section 5 of the Act deals with:
a. Possession and disclosure of question paper
b. Prevention of leakage by person entrusted or engaged with examination work
c. Penalty for unfair means
d. Examination authorities
47. Section 5 applies to a person who:
a. Appears in a public examination
b. Is entrusted or engaged with any work pertaining to public examination
c. Is a member of the public
d. Is an examinee only
48. A person entrusted or engaged with examination work may divulge information obtained through such work:
a. In all circumstances
b. After declaration of result
c. Only where he is permitted by virtue of his duties so to do
d. With the consent of an examinee
49. Under Section 5, the prohibition extends to divulging information:
a. Directly only
b. Indirectly only
c. Through written communication only
d. Directly or indirectly
50. Which of the following expressions is specifically used in Section 5?
a. Divulge or cause to be divulged
b. Publish or circulate
c. Communicate or transmit
d. Reveal or disclose
51. The information protected under Section 5 is information:
a. Received from any source whatsoever
b. Which has come to the person's knowledge by virtue of the work being entrusted to him
c. Obtained from examinees
d. Published in the Official Gazette
52. Under Section 5, no person entrusted or engaged with examination work shall make known to:
a. The State Government
b. The examination authority
c. Any other person
d. Designated Court only
53. Section 6 of the Act deals with:
a. Prevention of leakage by person entrusted with examination work
b. Unauthorized possession or disclosure of question paper and answer sheet or OMR sheet in any form
c. Prohibition of use of unfair means
d. Penalties
54. Section 6 applies to a person who is:
a. Authorized by virtue of his duties
b. An examinee only
c. Not lawfully authorized or permitted by virtue of his duties to do so
d. A member of the examination authority
55. The prohibition under Section 6 operates before:
a. The commencement of evaluation
b. The declaration of result
c. The opening of the examination center
d. The time fixed for the distribution of question papers
56. Under Section 6(a), no unauthorized person shall:
a. Procure or attempt to procure or possess such question paper or answer sheet or OMR sheet or any portion or copy thereof in any form
b. Supervise the examination
c. Evaluate answer sheets
d. Prepare question papers
57. Which of the following materials is expressly covered under Section 6(a)?
a. Question paper only
b. Question paper and answer sheet only
c. Question paper, answer sheet or OMR sheet
d. Result sheet only
58. Under Section 6(a), the prohibition extends to:
a. Original documents only
b. Any portion or copy thereof in any form
c. Printed copies only
d. Electronic copies only
59. Under Section 6(b), no unauthorized person shall:
a. Publish examination results
b. Impart or offer to impart information related to the question paper
c. Conduct interviews
d. Appoint examiners
60. The information referred to in Section 6(b) must be information which the person:
a. Suspects to be confidential
b. Believes may be useful
c. Knows or has reason to believe to be related to, or derived from or to have a bearing upon such question paper
d. Obtained from any source
61. Which expression is specifically used in Section 6(b)?
a. Knows or suspects
b. Knows or apprehends
c. Knows or ought to know
d. Knows or has reason to believe
62. Mere offering to impart information related to a question paper before the prescribed time:
a. Is not covered unless information is actually imparted
b. Is expressly covered under Section 6(b)
c. Is covered only if consideration is received
d. Is covered only if the information is correct
63. Section 6 prohibits unauthorized possession or disclosure in relation to:
a. Question paper only
b. Question paper and result sheet only
c. Question paper, answer sheet or OMR sheet
d. Answer sheet only
64. Section 7 of the Act deals with:
a. Unauthorized possession of question paper
b. Prevention of leakage
c. Prohibition to enter in examination center
d. Unfair means
65. Under Section 7, no person shall enter the premises of the examination center if he:
a. Is not entrusted or engaged with the work pertaining to public examination or conduct of public examination and is not an examinee
b. Is an examinee
c. Is engaged with the conduct of public examination
d. Is entrusted with work pertaining to public examination
66. Which of the following persons may enter the premises of the examination center under Section 7?
a. Any member of the public
b. A person entrusted or engaged with the work pertaining to public examination
c. Any applicant for recruitment
d. Any Government servant
67. Apart from persons entrusted or engaged with examination work, Section 7 permits entry to:
a. Members of the examination authority only
b. Observers only
c. Examinees
d. Police officers only
68. The prohibition under Section 7 relates to entry into:
a. The examination hall only
b. The office of the examination authority
c. The premises of the examination center
d. The strong room only
69. Section 8 of the Act deals with:
a. Conduct of public examination
b. Examination centers
c. No place other than examination center shall be used for public examination
d. Examination authorities
70. Under Section 8, no person entrusted or engaged with the work pertaining to public examination shall:
a. Conduct evaluation outside the examination center
b. Use or cause to be used any place, other than the examination center, for the purpose of holding public examination
c. Store answer sheets outside the examination center
d. Appoint invigilators outside the examination center
71. The prohibition under Section 8 applies to:
a. Any examinee
b. Any member of the public
c. Any recruiting agency
d. A person entrusted or engaged with the work pertaining to public examination
72. Section 9 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalties for examinees
b. Offences by Management, Institution or others
c. Designated Courts
d. Investigation of offences
73. Under Section 9(1), where an offence under the Act has been committed by a Management or Institution or Limited Liability Partnership or others:
a. Only the entity shall be liable
b. Only the officer in charge shall be liable
c. Both the entity and the persons in charge or responsible for conduct of its business may be liable
d. Liability shall arise only after conviction of the entity
74. Every person who, at the time of commission of the offence, was in charge of or responsible to the Management, Institution, Limited Liability Partnership or others for the conduct of its business:
a. Shall be presumed innocent
b. Shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence
c. Shall be liable only to fine
d. Shall not be prosecuted
75. Under Section 9(1), such persons and the Management or Institution or Limited Liability Partnership or others shall be:
a. Liable to departmental action only
b. Liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly
c. Liable only upon proof of personal participation
d. Liable only in civil proceedings
76. The proviso to Section 9(1) provides a defence where the person proves:
a. That the offence was committed by another person
b. That he resigned before prosecution
c. That the offence was committed without his knowledge and that he exercised all due diligence to prevent its commission
d. That he was not physically present at the place of occurrence
77. Which of the following must be proved to avail the benefit of the proviso to Section 9(1)?
a. Lack of knowledge alone
b. Exercise of due diligence alone
c. Good faith only
d. Both absence of knowledge and exercise of all due diligence to prevent the commission of the offence
78. Section 9(2) begins with:
a. A proviso
b. A saving clause
c. A non-obstante clause
d. An explanation
79. Under Section 9(2), a director, partner, manager, secretary or other officer shall also be deemed guilty if the offence was committed with his:
a. Consent or connivance
b. Approval by written order only
c. Financial benefit only
d. Physical participation only
80. Apart from consent or connivance, liability under Section 9(2) may arise where the offence is attributable to:
a. Error of judgment
b. Neglect on the part of such officer
c. Absence from office
d. Delegation of duties
81. A director, partner, manager, secretary or other officer deemed guilty under Section 9(2) shall be:
a. Liable only to fine
b. Liable only after conviction of the entity
c. Exempt from prosecution
d. Liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly
82. Section 10 of the Act deals with:
a. Offences by Management, Institution or others
b. Penalties
c. Designated Courts
d. Investigation
83. Under Section 10(1), an examinee who indulges in unfair means as defined under section 2(f)(i) shall be punishable with imprisonment:
a. Which may extend to one year
b. Which may extend to two years
c. Of either description for a term which may extend to three years
d. For a term not less than three years
84. The minimum fine prescribed under Section 10(1) for an examinee indulging in unfair means is:
a. Fifty thousand rupees
b. One lakh rupees
c. Five lakh rupees
d. Ten lakh rupees
85. In default of payment of fine under Section 10(1), the examinee shall also be liable to imprisonment of either description for a term of:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Nine months
86. Section 10(2) applies to:
a. Examinees only
b. Persons entrusted with conduct of public examination only
c. Any person, including examinee, whether entrusted or authorized with the conduct of public examination or not
d. Examination authorities only
87. Under Section 10(2), indulging or attempting to indulge in unfair means as defined in:
a. Section 2(f)(i)
b. Section 2(f)(ii)
c. Section 2(e)
d. Section 2(d)
88. Which of the following is also punishable under Section 10(2)?
a. Contravening or abetting to contravene any of the provisions of the Act
b. Failure to appear in examination
c. Withdrawal of candidature
d. Delay in evaluation
89. The minimum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 10(2) is:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Fourteen years
90. The maximum punishment under Section 10(2) may extend to:
a. Twenty years imprisonment
b. Imprisonment for life
c. Ten years imprisonment
d. Rigorous imprisonment for fourteen years
91. The minimum fine prescribed under Section 10(2) is:
a. One lakh rupees
b. Five lakh rupees
c. Ten lakh rupees
d. One crore rupees
92. The fine under Section 10(2) may extend to:
a. One crore rupees
b. Five crore rupees
c. Ten crore rupees
d. Twenty crore rupees
93. In default of payment of fine under Section 10(2), the person shall also be liable to imprisonment of either description for a term of:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
94. The words "in conspiracy or otherwise" appearing in Section 10(2) indicate that liability may arise:
a. Only when conspiracy is proved
b. Only when direct participation is established
c. Whether in conspiracy or otherwise
d. Only where there is abetment
95. The proviso to Section 10(2) empowers the Court to impose imprisonment for a term of less than ten years:
a. For reasons recorded separately by the State Government
b. For any reason considered appropriate
c. If the accused pleads guilty
d. For adequate and special reasons to be recorded in the judgment
96. Which of the following correctly reflects the proviso to Section 10(2)?
a. The Court cannot award less than ten years' imprisonment under any circumstances
b. The Court may award a lesser sentence only after obtaining Government approval
c. The Court may, for adequate and special reasons recorded in the judgment, impose a sentence of less than ten years
d. The Court may reduce only the fine and not the imprisonment
97. Section 11 of the Act deals with:
a. Penalties
b. Debarment on conviction
c. Designated Courts
d. Investigation of offences
98. An examinee who has been convicted of an offence under the provisions of this Act shall be:
a. Permanently debarred from taking any public examination
b. Debarred from taking any public examination for one year
c. Debarred from taking any public examination for a period of two years
d. Debarred only from the examination in relation to which the offence was committed
99. The consequence of conviction under the Act, as provided in Section 11, is:
a. Cancellation of candidature only
b. Debarment from taking any public examination for a period of two years
c. Disqualification from Government service for five years
d. Permanent blacklisting from all recruitments
100. Section 12 of the Act deals with:
a. Debarment on conviction
b. Attachment and confiscation of property
c. Designated Courts
d. Investigation of offences
101. Under Section 12(1), no person shall:
a. Acquire immovable property
b. Transfer property during investigation
c. Hold or be in possession of any proceeds of any offence under this Act
d. Hold Government property
102. An investigating officer may seize property under Section 12(2) if he has reason to believe that the property:
a. Belongs to the accused
b. Represents proceeds of any offence under this Act
c. Is likely to be transferred
d. Is situated outside Rajasthan
103. Before making an order of seizure under Section 12(2), the investigating officer must obtain:
a. Permission of the Designated Court
b. Approval of the District Magistrate
c. Prior approval in writing of the State Government
d. Consent of the property holder
104. Where it is not practicable to seize the property, the investigating officer may:
a. Confiscate the property immediately
b. Sell the property by auction
c. Refer the matter to the police station
d. Make an order of attachment
105. An order of attachment under Section 12(2) directs that the property shall not be transferred or otherwise dealt with except with the prior permission of:
a. The investigating agency only
b. The State Government only
c. The officer making such order or, as the case may be, the Designated Court
d. The District Magistrate
106. A copy of the order of seizure or attachment shall be served on:
a. The State Government
b. The person concerned
c. The District Magistrate
d. The Public Prosecutor
107. The investigating officer shall inform the Designated Court of the seizure or attachment within:
a. Twenty-four hours
b. Forty-eight hours
c. Seven days
d. Fifteen days
108. Under Section 12(4), the Designated Court may:
a. Modify only the order of attachment
b. Confirm or revoke the order of seizure or attachment
c. Order confiscation directly
d. Review the investigation
109. Before passing an order under Section 12(4), the Designated Court shall:
a. Hear the investigating officer only
b. Obtain Government approval
c. Give an opportunity of making representation to the person whose property is being attached
d. Issue a public notice
110. The requirement of giving an opportunity of making representation is contained in the:
a. Explanation
b. Main provision of sub-section (4)
c. Proviso to sub-section (4)
d. Sub-section (5)
111. Under Section 12(5), confiscation may be ordered where:
a. The accused is arrested
b. The accused is charge-sheeted
c. The property is attached
d. The accused has been convicted of any offence punishable under this Act
112. The authority empowered to order confiscation under Section 12(5) is:
a. State Government
b. Investigating Officer
c. Designated Court
d. District Magistrate
113. Confiscation under Section 12(5) may relate to:
a. Movable property only
b. Immovable property only
c. Cash only
d. Movable or immovable property or both
114. Property confiscated under Section 12(5) shall stand confiscated to:
a. The Central Government
b. The Examination Authority
c. The State Government
d. The Designated Court
115. Confiscated property shall vest in the State Government:
a. Subject to existing encumbrances
b. Free from all encumbrances
c. Subject to court approval
d. After publication in the Official Gazette
116. The Explanation defines "proceeds of any offence under this Act" to mean:
a. Only cash recovered from the accused
b. Only movable property obtained from the offence
c. All kinds of properties derived or obtained from commission of any offence under this Act or acquired through funds traceable thereto
d. Property standing only in the name of the accused
117. According to the Explanation, proceeds of any offence under this Act shall include:
a. Cash only when found with the accused
b. Cash irrespective of the person in whose name such proceeds are standing or in whose possession they are found
c. Cash deposited in Government accounts only
d. Cash recovered after conviction only
118. Under the Explanation, proceeds of offence include properties:
a. Acquired through funds traceable to any offence under this Act
b. Acquired before commencement of the Act
c. Acquired by inheritance only
d. Acquired through lawful income
119. Section 13 of the Act deals with:
a. Liability of Management etc. to pay all cost and expenditure
b. Investigation of offences
c. Designated Courts
d. Attachment of property
120. Section 13 becomes applicable when a person of the Management of Institution or Limited Liability Partnership or others has been found guilty of an offence under:
a. Section 10(1)
b. Section 10(2)
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
121. Under Section 13, the cost and expenditure related to the examination shall be determined by:
a. State Government
b. Examination Authority
c. Designated Court
d. Investigating Officer
122. Besides liability to pay all cost and expenditure related to the examination, the Management or Institution or Limited Liability Partnership or others shall:
a. Be suspended for five years
b. Be de-recognized for ten years
c. Be blacklisted for twenty years
d. Be banned forever
123. Section 14 of the Act deals with:
a. Designated Courts
b. Investigation of offences
c. Offences to be cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
d. Power to appoint Designated Courts
124. All offences specified under the Act shall be:
a. Cognizable and bailable
b. Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
c. Non-cognizable and non-bailable
d. Cognizable and compoundable
125. Under Section 14, offences under the Act are:
a. Compoundable with permission of Court
b. Compoundable by the State Government
c. Non-compoundable
d. Compoundable by the complainant
126. Which of the following correctly describes offences specified under the Act?
a. Non-cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
b. Cognizable, bailable and compoundable
c. Cognizable, non-bailable and compoundable
d. Cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
127. Section 15 of the Act deals with:
a. Investigation of the offences
b. Cognizance of offences
c. Designated Courts
d. Search and seizure
128. Under Section 15, investigation of offences under the Act shall not be conducted by a police officer below the rank of:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. Deputy Superintendent of Police
c. Additional Superintendent of Police
d. Inspector of Police
129. Which of the following police officers is competent under Section 15 to investigate an offence under the Act?
a. Inspector of Police
b. Sub-Inspector of Police
c. Deputy Superintendent of Police
d. Additional Superintendent of Police
130. Section 15 prescribes a minimum rank requirement in relation to:
a. Arrest
b. Investigation
c. Cognizance
d. Prosecution
131. Section 16 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to appoint Designated Courts
b. Cases triable by Designated Courts
c. Investigation of offences
d. Special Public Prosecutors
132. Section 16 begins with:
a. A proviso
b. An explanation
c. A non-obstante clause
d. A saving clause
133. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 or any other law for the time being in force, offences specified under the Act shall be tried by:
a. Judicial Magistrate First Class
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. High Court
d. Courts designated under the Act
134. The non-obstante clause in Section 16 overrides:
a. The Indian Penal Code only
b. The BNSS and any other law for the time being in force
c. The Evidence Act only
d. The Constitution of India
135. Section 17 of the Act deals with:
a. Designated Public Prosecutors
b. Cases triable by Designated Courts
c. Power to appoint Designated Courts
d. Jurisdiction of High Court
136. The authority empowered to designate Courts under Section 17 is:
a. High Court of Rajasthan
b. State Government
c. Governor
d. Designated Court
137. Designated Courts under Section 17 shall be designated by:
a. Executive order
b. Circular
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial order
138. Before designating Courts of Sessions under Section 17, the State Government shall act in consultation with:
a. Advocate General of Rajasthan
b. Chief Secretary
c. Chief Justice of the High Court of Rajasthan
d. Director General of Police
139. Section 18 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to remove difficulties
b. Power to make rules
c. Act not in derogation of any other law
d. Designated Courts
140. The provisions of this Act shall be:
a. In substitution of all other laws
b. In addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of any other law for the time being in force
c. Subject only to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Applicable only where no other law exists
141. Section 18 indicates that the Act:
a. Repeals inconsistent laws
b. Overrides all other laws
c. Operates in addition to other laws for the time being in force
d. Applies only in the absence of any other law
142. Which of the following best describes Section 18?
a. Non-obstante provision
b. Penal provision
c. Saving provision preserving operation of other laws
d. Rule-making provision
143. Section 19 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to make rules
b. Power to remove difficulties
c. Delegation of powers
d. Repeal and savings
144. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act, the State Government may:
a. Issue directions
b. Make rules
c. By order published in the Official Gazette, make provisions necessary for removing the difficulty
d. Amend the Act by notification
145. Any provision made under Section 19(1) for removing difficulties must be:
a. Approved by the High Court
b. Consistent with the provisions of the Act
c. Approved by the Legislature in advance
d. Temporary in nature only
146. No order under Section 19 shall be made after the expiry of:
a. One year from commencement of the Act
b. Three years from commencement of the Act
c. Two years from commencement of the Act
d. Five years from commencement of the Act
147. The limitation of two years for issuing orders under Section 19 is contained in the:
a. Explanation
b. Main provision
c. Schedule
d. Proviso
148. Every order made under Section 19 shall be laid before:
a. The High Court of Rajasthan
b. The State Government
c. The House of the State Legislature
d. The Designated Court
149. Such order shall be laid before the House of the State Legislature:
a. Before publication in the Official Gazette
b. As soon as may be after it is made
c. Within thirty days
d. At the next budget session only
150. Section 20 of the Act deals with:
a. Power to remove difficulties
b. Delegation of powers
c. Power to make rules
d. Special procedure
151. Under Section 20(1), the power to make rules is vested in the:
a. Governor
b. State Government
c. State Legislature
d. Designated Court
152. Rules under Section 20 may be made for:
a. Removing difficulties
b. Amending the Schedules
c. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
d. Constituting Designated Courts
153. Every rule made under Section 20 shall be laid before the House of the State Legislature for a period of not less than:
a. Seven days
b. Ten days
c. Fourteen days
d. Thirty days
154. The period of fourteen days for laying rules may comprise:
a. One session only
b. Two successive sessions only
c. One session or two successive sessions
d. Any number of sessions
155. If the House of the State Legislature makes modifications in a rule, the rule shall thereafter have effect:
a. As originally made
b. Only in such modified form
c. Only after fresh notification
d. Only after Governor's approval
156. If the House resolves that a rule should not be made, such rule shall:
a. Continue for six months
b. Remain suspended
c. Be of no effect
d. Require reconsideration by the State Government
157. Any modification or annulment of a rule under Section 20(2) shall be:
a. Retrospective in operation
b. Without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done thereunder
c. Subject to approval of the High Court
d. Effective only after publication in the Gazette