SOGA MCQs Set-I

SOGA MCQs Set-I

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There are 2 Sets of MCQs available for Sale Of Goods Act, 1930 , you are advised to explore all the sets : 

SOGA MCQs Set -1

SOGA MCQs Set -2

 

1. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is:

a. An Act to regulate contracts

b. An Act to define and amend the law relating to the sale of goods

c. An Act to govern immovable property

d. An Act to regulate companies

 

2. The object of the Act is to ______ the law relating to the sale of goods.

a. Repeal and replace

b. Define and amend

c. Codify only

d. Interpret only

 

3. The Preamble states that it is ______ to define and amend the law relating to the sale of goods.

a. Necessary

b. Expedient

c. Mandatory

d. Desirable

 

4. The Act number of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is:

a. Act No. 2 of 1930

b. Act No. 3 of 1930

c. Act No. 5 of 1930

d. Act No. 1 of 1930

 

5. The date of the Act is:

a. 1 July 1930

b. 26 January 1930

c. 15th March, 1930

d. 15 August 1930

 

6. The enacting formula used in the Act is:

a. It is declared as follows

b. It is hereby enacted as follows

c. It shall be enforced as follows

d. It is legislated as follows

 

7. This Act may be called:

a. Indian Sale of Goods Act, 1930

b. Sale of Goods Act, 1930

c. Goods Sale Act, 1930

d. Commercial Goods Act, 1930

 

8. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 extends to:

a. Whole of India except certain States

b. Whole of India

c. Only Union Territories

d. Only metropolitan areas

 

9. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 shall come into force on:

a. 15th March, 1930

b. 1st January, 1930

c. 1st July, 1930

d. 26th January, 1930

 

10. In this Act, definitions apply unless:

a. Otherwise agreed by parties

b. There is anything repugnant in the subject or context

c. Court directs otherwise

d. Government notifies otherwise

 

11. “Buyer” means a person who:

a. Purchases goods only

b. Agrees to purchase goods only

c. Buys or agrees to buy goods

d. Receives goods

 

12. “Delivery” means:

a. Transfer of ownership

b. Voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another

c. Compulsory transfer of goods

d. Transfer of title

 

13. Goods are in a “deliverable state” when:

a. They are ready for inspection

b. The seller is willing to deliver them

c. The buyer would under the contract be bound to take delivery of them

d. They are packed for transport

 

14. A “document of title to goods” includes:

a. Sale deed only

b. Insurance policy

c. Bill of lading

d. Invoice only

 

15. A “document of title to goods” includes:

a. Promissory note

b. Dock warrant

c. Share certificate

d. Debenture

 

16. A “document of title to goods” includes:

a. Warehouse keeper’s certificate

b. Agreement to sell

c. Lease deed

d. Mortgage deed

 

17. A “document of title to goods” includes:

a. Railway receipt

b. Bank passbook

c. Cheque

d. Bond

 

18. A “document of title to goods” includes:

a. Multimodal transport document

b. Insurance contract

c. Partnership deed

d. Power of attorney

 

19. A “document of title to goods” also includes any document used in the ordinary course of business as proof of:

a. Ownership of immovable property

b. Possession or control of goods

c. Financial status

d. Creditworthiness

 

20. Such document authorises the possessor to:

a. Destroy goods

b. Transfer or receive goods

c. Mortgage property

d. Sue for damages

 

21. “Fault” means:

a. Negligence only

b. Wrongful act or default

c. Breach of contract only

d. Fraud only

 

22. “Future goods” means goods:

a. Already owned by seller

b. To be manufactured or produced or acquired by the seller after the contract of sale

c. Delivered immediately

d. Imported goods only

 

23. “Goods” means:

a. Immovable property

b. Every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money

c. Only tangible goods

d. Only consumables

 

24. “Goods” include:

a. Money

b. Actionable claims

c. Stock and shares

d. Land

 

25. “Goods” include:

a. Buildings

b. Growing crops

c. Fixtures permanently attached

d. Minerals

 

26. “Goods” include:

a. Grass

b. Land

c. Water bodies

d. Airspace

 

27. “Goods” include things attached to land which are agreed:

a. To remain attached

b. To be severed before sale or under the contract of sale

c. To be mortgaged

d. To be leased

 

28. A person is “insolvent” when he:

a. Commits fraud

b. Ceases to pay debts in the ordinary course of business or cannot pay debts as they become due

c. Is declared bankrupt by court only

d. Defaults once

 

29. “Mercantile agent” means an agent having authority in the customary course of business:

a. Only to sell goods

b. Only to buy goods

c. Only to raise loans

d. To sell, consign, buy goods, or raise money on the security of goods

 

30. “Price” means:

a. Value of goods

b. Money consideration for a sale of goods

c. Market rate

d. Cost price

 

31. “Property” in goods means:

a. Special property only

b. Possession

c. General property in goods

d. Ownership of land

 

32. “Quality of goods” includes their:

a. Price

b. Quantity

c. State or condition

d. Ownership

 

33. “Seller” means a person who:

a. Delivers goods

b. Manufactures goods

c. Sells or agrees to sell goods

d. Stores goods

 

34. “Specific goods” means goods:

a. Defined later

b. Identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made

c. Imported goods

d. Bulk goods

 

35. Expressions used but not defined in this Act but defined in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 shall:

a. Have no meaning

b. Be interpreted by courts only

c. Have the meaning assigned in that Act

d. Be ignored

 

36. The provisions referred to in this section are of:

a. Indian Penal Code, 1860

b. Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Transfer of Property Act, 1882

d. Companies Act, 2013

 

37. Only the ______ provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 apply.

a. Amended

b. Repealed

c. Unrepealed

d. Procedural

 

38. The provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 shall apply:

a. Without any condition

b. Only if notified by government

c. Save in so far as they are inconsistent with the express provisions of this Act

d. Only with court approval

 

39. The provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 shall continue to apply to:

a. All contracts

b. Contracts for the sale of goods

c. Employment contracts

d. Lease agreements

 

40. A contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller:

a. Transfers or agrees to transfer the property in goods to the buyer for a price

b. Transfers possession only

c. Transfers ownership without consideration

d. Transfers services

 

41. A contract of sale may exist between:

a. Two strangers only

b. One part-owner and another

c. Only companies

d. Only individuals

 

42. A contract of sale may be:

a. Void or voidable

b. Absolute or conditional

c. Express or implied only

d. Written only

 

43. Where the property in goods is transferred from seller to buyer, the contract is called:

a. Agreement to sell

b. Bailment

c. Sale

d. Mortgage

 

44. Where transfer of property is to take place at a future time or subject to a condition, the contract is:

a. Sale

b. Contingent Contract

c. Void contract

d. Agreement to sell

 

45. An agreement to sell becomes a sale when:

a. The contract is signed

b.  The goods are identified

c. The time elapses or conditions are fulfilled

d. Payment is made

 

46. A contract of sale is made by:

a. Delivery only

b. Payment only

c. Offer to buy or sell goods and acceptance of such offer

d. Registration only

 

47. A contract of sale may provide for:

a.  Immediate delivery only

b. Immediate payment only

c. Both immediate delivery and payment

d. Immediate delivery or payment or both, or by instalments, or postponed delivery or payment

 

48. A contract of sale may be made:

a. Only in writing

b. Only orally

c. Only by conduct

d. In writing, by word of mouth, partly both, or implied from conduct

 

49. The subject-matter of a contract of sale may be:

a. Only existing goods

b. Only future goods

c. Existing goods or future goods

d. Only specific goods

 

50. Existing goods are goods:

a. To be manufactured

b. Owned or possessed by the seller

c. Imported goods only

d. Future goods

 

51. A contract may be for goods the acquisition of which depends upon:

a. Certainty

b. Payment

c. A contingency which may or may not happen

d. Delivery

 

52. A purported present sale of future goods operates as:

a. Sale

b. Void contract

c. Agreement to sell

d. Bailment

 

53. A contract for the sale of specific goods is void if the goods:

a. Are not delivered

b. Perish or become so damaged without the knowledge of the seller at the time of contract

c. Are delayed in delivery

d. Are not insured

 

54. The condition for voidness under this section is that the goods have perished:

a. After the contract

b. Before the contract with knowledge of buyer

c. At the time when the contract was made without the knowledge of the seller

d. After delivery

 

55. The goods must have become so damaged as:

a. To reduce value

b. To require repair

c. No longer to answer to their description in the contract

d. To delay delivery

 

56. This section applies where there is:

a. A completed sale

b. An agreement to sell specific goods

c. A contract of bailment

d. A lease agreement

 

57. The agreement is avoided if the goods perish:

a. Due to seller’s fault

b. Due to buyer’s fault

c. Without any fault of the seller or buyer

d. Due to negligence

 

58. The goods must perish:

a. After risk passes to the buyer

b. Before the agreement

c. Before the risk passes to the buyer

d. After delivery

 

59. The effect of such perishing is that the agreement:

a. Is avoided

b. Becomes enforceable

c. Becomes voidable

d. Is suspended

 

60. The goods must become so damaged as:

a. To reduce price

b. To delay delivery

c. No longer to answer to their description in the agreement

d. To require replacement

 

61. The price in a contract of sale may be:

a. Fixed by law only

b. Fixed by the contract

c. Fixed by court only

d. Fixed after delivery

 

62. The price may be left to be fixed:

a. By buyer alone

b. By seller alone

c. In manner thereby agreed

d. By court

 

63. The price may be determined by:

a. Market forces only

b. Government notification

c. Course of dealing between the parties

d. Arbitrator only

 

64. Where the price is not determined, the buyer shall pay:

a.  Market price

b. Agreed price

c. Duty price

d. Reasonable price

 

65. What is a reasonable price is:

a. A question of law

b. A question of fact dependent on circumstances of each case

c. Fixed by statute

d. Fixed by court discretion only

 

66. This section applies where price is to be fixed by:

a. Buyer

b. Seller

c. Third party valuation

d. Court

 

67. If the third party cannot or does not make the valuation, the agreement:

a. Becomes voidable

b. Is avoided

c. Becomes enforceable

d. Is suspended

 

68. Where goods have been delivered and appropriated by the buyer, he shall:

a. Return goods

b. Pay market price

c. Pay reasonable price

d. Pay no price

 

69. The proviso applies when:

a. Goods are not delivered

b. Price is fixed

c. Contract is cancelled

d. Goods or part thereof are delivered and appropriated by the buyer

 

70. If the third party is prevented from making valuation due to fault of one party:

a. Contract becomes void

b. Price is fixed by court

c. Other party may sue for damages

d. Agreement is enforced

 

71. The suit for damages may be maintained by:

a. Party not in fault

b. Third party

c. Party in fault

d. Court

 

72. Stipulations as to time of payment are:

a. Always of the essence

b. Not deemed to be of the essence unless a different intention appears

c. Always void

d. Always conditions

 

73. Whether any other stipulation as to time is of the essence depends on:

a. Court discretion

b. Market practice

c. Terms of the contract

d. Seller’s intention

 

74. A stipulation with reference to goods may be:

a. Only a condition

b. Only a warranty

c. A condition or a warranty

d. Neither

 

75. A condition is a stipulation:

a. Collateral to main purpose

b. Essential to the main purpose of the contract

c. Optional

d. Implied only

 

76. Breach of a condition gives rise to:

a. Damages only

b.  No remedy

c. Specific performance only

d. Right to treat the contract as repudiated

 

77. A warranty is a stipulation:

a. Essential to the contract

b. Collateral to the main purpose of the contract

c. Implied by law only

d. Void

 

78. Breach of a warranty gives rise to:

a. Right to reject goods

b. Right to treat contract as repudiated

c. Claim for damages only

d. No remedy

 

79. Whether a stipulation is a condition or warranty depends on:

a. Name given by parties

b. Price of goods

c. Construction of the contract

d. Delivery terms

 

80. A stipulation may be a condition though called:

a. Agreement

b. Warranty

c. Term

d. Clause

 

81. Where a condition is to be fulfilled by the seller, the buyer may:

a. Reject goods only

b. Waive the condition

c. Sue for damages only

d. Terminate contract only

 

82. The buyer may elect to treat breach of condition as:

a. Breach of warranty

b. Void contract

c. Breach of agreement

d. No breach

 

83. Where contract is not severable and buyer has accepted goods, breach of condition:

a. Leads to rejection

b. Can only be treated as breach of warranty

c. Makes contract void

d. Leads to rescission automatically

 

84. In such case, rejection of goods is not allowed unless:

a. Court permits

b. Seller agrees

c. There is an express or implied term to that effect

d. Goods are defective

 

85. This section does not affect cases where fulfilment is excused:

a. By agreement

b. By court order

c. By law due to impossibility or otherwise

d. By seller’s discretion

 

86. In a contract of sale, unless a different intention appears, there is:

a. No implied terms

b. Implied undertaking as to title

c. Only express terms

d. Only warranties

 

87.  There is an implied condition that in a sale the seller:

a. Has possession

b. Has delivered goods

c. Has a right to sell the goods

d. Has insured goods

 

88. In an agreement to sell, the seller:

a. Has right to sell immediately

b. Will have a right to sell at the time when property is to pass

c. Transfers possession only

d. Has no obligation

 

89. There is an implied warranty that the buyer shall:

a. Receive goods only

b. Inspect goods

c. Resell goods

d. Have and enjoy quiet possession of the goods

 

90. There is an implied warranty that goods shall be free from:

a.  Defects only

b. Charges or encumbrances of third parties not declared or known to the buyer

c. Damage

d. Delay

 

91. In a contract of sale by description, there is an implied condition that goods shall:

a. Be durable

b. Correspond with the description

c. Be cheap

d. Be new

 

92. Where sale is by sample as well as description, goods must:

a. Correspond with sample only

b. Correspond with description only

c. Correspond with both sample and description

d. Correspond with either

 

93. It is not sufficient that bulk corresponds with sample if:

a. Goods are delayed

b. Goods do not correspond with description

c. Price is unpaid

d. Goods are damaged

 

94. As a general rule, there is:

a. Always implied condition as to quality

b. Always implied warranty

c. No implied warranty or condition as to quality or fitness

d. Only implied warranty

 

95. Exception arises where buyer makes known:

a. Price

b. Quantity

c. Particular purpose

d. Delivery time

 

96. The buyer must rely on:

a. Seller’s skill or judgment

b. Market conditions

c. Government standards

d. Own inspection

 

97. Goods must be of a description which:

a. Buyer deals in

b. Seller supplies in the course of business

c. Court approves

d. Government notifies

 

98. In such case, goods shall be:

a. Merchantable

b. Durable

c. New

d. Reasonably fit for such purpose

 

99. No implied condition as to fitness exists when goods are sold:

a. Under patent or trade name

b. By description

c. By sample

d. By auction

 

100. Where goods are bought by description from a seller dealing in such goods, there is an implied condition of:

a. Durability

b. Merchantable quality

c. Fitness

d. Ownership

 

101. If buyer has examined goods, there is no implied condition as to:

a. Price

b. Quantity

c. Defects which such examination ought to have revealed

d. Ownership

 

102. An implied condition or warranty may be annexed by:

a. Court order

b. Agreement

c. Usage of trade

d. Statute only

 

103. An express condition or warranty does not negative an implied one unless:

a. Expressly stated

b. Inconsistent therewith

c. Approved by court

d. Written

 

104. A contract is for sale by sample when:

a. Goods are shown

b. There is a term, express or implied, to that effect

c. Price is fixed

d. Goods are inspected

 

105. There is an implied condition that:

a. Sample is perfect

b. Goods are new

c. Goods are cheap

d. Bulk shall correspond with sample in quality

 

106. Buyer shall have:

a. Immediate delivery

b. Right to reject

c. Reasonable opportunity to compare bulk with sample

d. Right to resell

 

107. Goods shall be free from:

a. Visible defects

b. Any defect rendering them unmerchantable not apparent on reasonable examination of sample

c. Minor defects

d. Packaging issues

 

108. This section applies to:

a. Unscertained goods

b. Ascertained goods

c. certained goods

d. Future goods only

 

109. In a contract for sale of unascertained goods, property in the goods:

a. Passes on contract

b. Passes on delivery

c. Does not pass unless and until goods are ascertained

d. Passes on payment

 

110. The condition for transfer of property is that the goods must be:

a. Delivered

b. Paid for

c. Ascertained

d. Inspected

 

111. This section applies to:

a. Unascertained goods

b. Future goods only

c. Specific or ascertained goods

d. Perishable goods

 

112. Property in goods is transferred to the buyer:

a. On delivery

b. On payment

c. On registration

d. At such time as the parties intend it to be transferred

 

113. The intention of the parties is gathered from:

a. Price only

b. Terms of contract only

c. Terms of contract, conduct of parties and circumstances of the case

d. Court order

 

114. The rules in Sections 20 to 24 are:

a. Mandatory rules

b. Rules for damages

c. Rules for ascertaining intention of parties as to time of passing of property

d. Rules for delivery

 

115. The rules in Sections 20 to 24 apply:

a. Always

b. Only when goods are delivered

c. Unless a different intention appears

d. Only when court directs

 

116. This section applies where the contract is:

a. Conditional

b. Unconditional

c. Void

d. Contingent

 

117. The goods must be:

a. Unascertained

b. Future goods

c. Specific goods in a deliverable state

d. Perishable goods

 

118. Property in goods passes:

a. On delivery

b. On payment

c. When the contract is made

d. On registration

 

119. Passing of property is immaterial to:

a. Nature of goods

b. Time of payment or delivery even if postponed

c. Place of contract

d. Quantity of goods

 

120. This section applies where the seller is bound:

a. To deliver goods

b. To insure goods

c. To do something to put goods into a deliverable state

d. To fix price

 

121. Property in goods does not pass until:

a. Contract is made

b. Delivery is made

c. Such thing is done and buyer has notice thereof

d. Payment is made

 

122. This section applies where seller must:

a. Deliver goods

b. Store goods

c.  Weigh, measure, test or do some act to ascertain price

d. Insure goods

 

123. Property does not pass until:

a. Contract is made

b. Delivery is complete

c. Such act is done and buyer has notice thereof

d. Payment is made

 

124. This section applies to:

a. Specific goods

b. Ascertained goods

c. Unascertained or future goods

d. Perishable goods

 

125. Goods must be:

a. Delivered

b. Insured

c. Of that description and in a deliverable state

d. Registered

 

126. Property passes when goods are:

a. Delivered

b. Paid for

c. Unconditionally appropriated to the contract

d. Inspected

 

127. Appropriation may be made by:

a. Seller only

b. Buyer only

c. Seller or buyer with assent of the other

d. Court only

 

128. Assent may be:

a. Written only

b. Oral only

c. Express or implied

d. Registered only

 

129. Assent may be given:

a. Before appropriation only

b. After appropriation only

c. Either before or after appropriation

d. At delivery only

 

130. Delivery to a carrier without reserving right of disposal amounts to:

a. Conditional delivery

b. No appropriation

c. Unconditional appropriation

d. Void contract

 

131. Delivery may be made to:

a. Buyer only

b. Carrier or other bailee for transmission to buyer

c. Court only

d. Warehouse only

 

132. This section applies when goods are delivered:

a. For immediate sale

b. On approval or “on sale or return”

c. Under bailment

d. Under mortgage

 

133. Property in goods passes when buyer:

a. Receives goods

b. Makes payment

c. Signifies approval or acceptance to the seller

d. Inspects goods

 

134. Property also passes when buyer:

a. Stores goods

b. Does any act adopting the transaction

c. Negotiates price

d. Insures goods

 

135. Where buyer retains goods without giving notice of rejection:

a. Property never passes

b. Contract becomes void

c. Property passes after certain conditions

d. Seller must sue

 

136. If time for return is fixed, property passes on:

a. Delivery

b. Payment

c. Expiration of such time

d. Inspection

 

137. If no time is fixed, property passes on expiration of:

a. Delivery period

b. Reasonable time

c. Court time

d. Contract time

 

138. This section applies where there is a contract for:

a. Unascertained goods only

b. Specific goods or goods subsequently appropriated to the contract

c. Future goods only

d. Perishable goods

 

139. The seller may reserve the right of disposal:

a. Only by law

b. By terms of the contract or appropriation

c. By court order

d. By buyer’s consent

 

140. The right of disposal may be reserved until:

a. Delivery

b. Payment

c. Certain conditions are fulfilled

d. Inspection

 

141. Where right of disposal is reserved, property does not pass:

a. On delivery

b. On payment

c. Until conditions imposed by seller are fulfilled

d. On contract

 

142. This applies notwithstanding delivery to:

a. Buyer only

b. Carrier or other bailee for transmission to buyer

c. Court only

d. Warehouse only

 

143. Where goods are deliverable to the order of seller by bill of lading or railway receipt, the seller is:

a. Absolutely deemed

b. Prima facie deemed to reserve right of disposal

c. Not deemed

d. Conditionally deemed

 

144. Where seller draws on buyer for price and sends bill of exchange with document of title, it is to secure:

a. Delivery

b. Inspection

c. Acceptance or payment of bill of exchange

d. Insurance

 

145. If buyer does not honour the bill of exchange, he is bound to:

a. Keep goods

b. Sell goods

c. Return bill of lading or railway receipt

d. Pay damages

 

146. If buyer wrongfully retains such document, property in goods:

a. Passes

b. Does not pass

c. Is void

d. Is suspended

 

147. The expressions “railway” and “railway administration” have meanings assigned under:

a. Sale of Goods Act

b. Indian Contract Act

c. Indian Railways Act, 1890

d. Companies Act

 

148. Unless otherwise agreed, goods remain at the seller’s risk until:

a. Delivery

b. Payment

c. Property therein is transferred to the buyer

d. Inspection

 

149. When property in goods is transferred to the buyer, the goods are at:

a. Seller’s risk

b. Buyer’s risk

c. Joint risk

d. No risk

 

150. Risk passes to the buyer:

a. Only after delivery

b. Only after payment

c. Whether delivery has been made or not

d. Only after inspection

 

151. Where delivery is delayed due to fault, risk lies with:

a. Seller always

b. Buyer always

c. Party in fault

d. Carrier

 

152. Such risk is for loss which:

a. Occurs naturally

b. Is insured

c. Might not have occurred but for such fault

d. Is unavoidable

 

153. This section does not affect duties or liabilities of:

a. Parties as owners

b. Parties as bailees of each other’s goods

c. Court officers

d. Carriers

 

154. Where goods are sold by a person who is not the owner and without authority, the buyer:

a. Gets full ownership

b. Gets better title than seller

c. Acquires no better title than the seller had

d. Gets conditional title

 

155. Exception applies where the owner is:

a. Silent

b. Absent

c. Precluded by his conduct from denying seller’s authority

d. Unknown

 

156. A mercantile agent can pass valid title when:

a. He acts without consent

b. He is in possession with consent of owner

c. He acts outside business

d. He acts negligently

 

157. The mercantile agent must act:

a. Arbitrarily

b. In ordinary course of business

c. Under court order

d. Under written authority only

 

158. The buyer must act:

a. With notice

b. In good faith and without notice of lack of authority

c. With suspicion

d. With verification

 

159. This section applies where one of several joint owners has:

a. Partial possession

b. No possession

c. Sole possession with permission of co-owners

d. Illegal possession

 

160. Property passes to buyer when he buys:

a. With notice

b. In good faith and without notice of lack of authority

c. Without payment

d. Under protest

 

161. This section applies where possession is obtained under:

a. Void contract

b. Illegal contract

c. Voidable contract

d. Express contract

 

162. Buyer acquires good title if contract:

a. Is rescinded

b. Is void

c. Has not been rescinded at time of sale

d. Is illegal

 

163. Buyer must act:

a. With notice

b. In good faith and without notice of seller’s defect of title

c. With negligence

d. With suspicion

 

164. Where seller continues in possession after sale, transfer to third person is valid if:

a. Third person has notice

b. Third person acts in good faith without notice of previous sale

c. Delivery is delayed

d. Payment is pending

 

165. Such transfer has effect as if seller was:

a. Owner

b. Agent

c. Expressly authorised by owner

d. Bailee

 

166. This includes transfer under:

a. Lease only

b. Mortgage only

c. Sale, pledge or other disposition

d. Gift only

 

167. Where buyer obtains possession with consent of seller, further transfer is valid if:

a. Buyer informs seller

b. Third person acts in good faith without notice of seller’s lien or right

c. Payment is complete

d. Goods are delivered

 

168. Such transfer has effect as if seller’s lien or right:

a. Exists

b. Is enforced

c. Did not exist

d. Is voidable

 

169. It is the duty of the seller to:

a. Manufacture goods

b. Deliver the goods

c. Insure goods

d. Store goods

 

170. It is the duty of the buyer to:

a. Inspect goods

b. Accept and pay for the goods

c. Transport goods

d. Resell goods

 

171. These duties are to be performed:

a. As per market practice

b. As per court order

c. In accordance with the terms of the contract of sale

d. As per seller’s discretion

 

172. Unless otherwise agreed, delivery and payment are:

a. Independent conditions

b. Concurrent conditions

c. Subsequent conditions

d. Void conditions

 

173. The seller must be ready and willing to:

a. Transfer ownership

b. Give possession of goods in exchange for price

c. Insure goods

d. Deliver goods after payment

 

174. The buyer must be ready and willing to:

a. Accept goods later

b. Pay price in exchange for possession of goods

c. Inspect goods only

d. Pay after delivery

 

175. Delivery of goods may be made by:

a. Physical transfer only

b. Registration only

c. Doing anything agreed by parties as delivery

d. Court order

 

176. Delivery includes acts which:

a. Transfer ownership only

b. Put goods in possession of buyer or authorised person

c. Fix price

d. Create contract

 

177. Part delivery in progress of whole delivery:

a. as no effect

b. Has same effect as delivery of whole for passing property

c. Is void

d. Requires registration

 

178. Part delivery with intention of severing:

a. Transfers whole property

b. Transfers nothing

c. Does not operate as delivery of remainder

d. Transfers ownership automatically

 

179. The seller is not bound to deliver goods unless:

a. Payment is made

b. Buyer inspects goods

c. Buyer applies for delivery

d. Goods are ready

 

180. This rule applies:

a. Always

b. Only by custom

c. Apart from any express contract

d. Only in writing 

 

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