THE DELHI SPECIAL POLICE ESTABLISHMENT ACT, 1946
ACT No. 25 OF 1946
1. Section 1 of the DSPE Act, 1946 provides:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Short title and extent of the Act
c. Powers of DSPE members
d. Offences to be investigated
2. The main purpose of the DSPE Act, 1946 is to:
a. Create a judicial body
b. Constitute a special police force in Delhi for investigation of certain offences
c. Regulate State Police
d. Grant immunity to officers
3. Section 1 mentions the Act extends to:
a. Delhi only
b. Selected Union territories
c. Whole of India
d. Union territories notified by Central Government
4. The Act provides for:
a. Superintendence and administration of the DSPE
b. Punishment for corruption
c. Judicial powers for officers
d. Creation of Special Courts
5. Section 1(1) gives the short title of the Act as:
a. The Central Police Act, 1946
b. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
c. Union Territory Police Act, 1946
d. Special Investigation Act, 1946
6. The preamble states the necessity of the Act is to:
a. Control State Police
b. Constitute a special police force in Delhi
c. Try offences in Union territories
d. Establish Special Courts
7. According to Section 1, the Act extends the powers and jurisdiction of DSPE members to:
a. Delhi only
b. Certain Union territories
c. Other areas for investigation
d. National Capital Territory only
8. The Act ensures DSPE members have powers in regard to:
a. Judicial proceedings
b. Legislative authority
c. Investigation of certain offences
d. Tax collection
9. Section 1 lays down that DSPE is for investigation in:
a. States only
b. Union territories
c. Entire country without restriction
d. Designated metropolitan areas
10. The preamble of Section 1 emphasizes:
a. Creation of Special Courts
b. Necessity of a special police force
c. Judicial supervision
d. Legislative delegation
11. Section 1 indicates that the Act provides for:
a. Trial of offences
b. Extension of powers and jurisdiction of DSPE members
c. Punishment of corrupt officials
d. Grant of immunity
12. The DSPE Act, 1946 was enacted to enable:
a. State Governments to control Delhi Police
b. Central Government to investigate certain offences in Union territories
c. Judicial authorities to try cases in Delhi
d. Creation of Armed Forces in Union territories
13. The DSPE Act, 1946 is enacted to:
a. Limit State Police powers
b. Create a special police force and regulate its powers and jurisdiction
c. Punish officials in Union territories
d. Transfer investigation powers to judiciary
14. Section 1A of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 relates to:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of investigation
c. Interpretation of words and expressions
d. Superintendence of CBI
15. Section 1A applies to words and expressions which are:
a. Defined in the DSPE Act only
b. Not defined anywhere
c. Used in this Act but not defined herein
d. Defined in IPC
16. If a word is not defined in the DSPE Act but is defined in another Act, Section 1A directs reference to:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. General Clauses Act, 1897
17. The number of the Central Vigilance Commission Act mentioned in Section 1A is:
a. Act 1 of 2003
b. Act 15 of 2003
c. Act 45 of 2003
d. Act 52 of 2003
18. The phrase “shall have the meanings” indicates:
a. Discretionary application
b. Mandatory application
c. Optional interpretation
d. Advisory nature
19. Section 1A is an example of:
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural provision
c. Interpretation clause
d. Saving clause
20. The purpose of Section 1A is to:
a. Create new definitions
b. Avoid conflict of laws
c. Ensure uniformity of meaning
d. Repeal earlier provisions
21. If a term is defined both in the DSPE Act and the CVC Act:
a. Definition in CVC Act will apply
b. Definition in DSPE Act will prevail
c. Both definitions apply simultaneously
d. Court will choose suitable meaning
22. Section 1A applies only when the term is:
a. Undefined in both Acts
b. Defined in DSPE Act
c. Undefined in DSPE Act but defined in CVC Act
d. Defined in IPC
23. Section 1A strengthens coordination between:
a. Judiciary and Legislature
b. DSPE Act and IPC
c. DSPE Act and CVC Act
d. DSPE Act and CrPC
24. Section 1A was introduced mainly due to:
a. Establishment of CBI
b. Enactment of CVC Act, 2003
c. Amendment of CrPC
d. Repeal of PC Act, 1947
25. Section 1A prevents which legal problem?
a. Retrospective operation
b. Ambiguity in interpretation
c. Excessive delegation
d. Double jeopardy
26. Section 1A does NOT deal with:
a. Meaning of expressions
b. Interpretation mechanism
c. Investigative powers
d. Reference to another Act
27. Section 1A is applicable to:
a. Only offences
b. Only procedures
c. Words and expressions
d. Punishments
28. The phrase “used herein” refers to:
a. Used in courts
b. Used in the Constitution
c. Used in this Act
d. Used in rules
29. Section 1A adopts meanings “respectively assigned” which implies:
a. Same meaning for all words
b. Random meaning
c. Corresponding meanings
d. Judicially decided meanings
30. Section 1A is similar in nature to:
a. Charging section
b. Interpretation clause in statutes
c. Penal provision
d. Transitional provision
31. Section 1A came into importance mainly after:
a. Establishment of DSPE
b. Creation of CBI
c. Statutory recognition of CVC
d. Enactment of PC Act, 1988
32. Section 2 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 primarily deals with:
a. Superintendence of DSPE
b. Consent of State Government
c. Constitution and powers of special police establishment
d. Appointment of officers
33. Section 2(1) begins with which type of clause?
a. Proviso clause
b. Saving clause
c. Non-obstante clause
d. Explanatory clause
34. The non-obstante clause in Section 2 overrides:
a. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Police Act, 1861
d. Evidence Act, 1872
35. The authority empowered to constitute the Delhi Special Police Establishment is:
a. Parliament
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
36. The special police force constituted under Section 2 is known as:
a. Central Bureau of Investigation
b. Central Vigilance Police
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment
d. National Investigation Agency
37. The main object of constituting DSPE is:
a. Prosecution of corruption cases
b. Trial of offences
c. Investigation of offences
d. Prevention of offences
38. DSPE is empowered to investigate only those offences which are:
a. Cognizable in nature
b. Punishable under IPC
c. Notified under Section 3
d. Triable by Special Judge
39. The territorial jurisdiction of DSPE under Section 2(1) extends to:
a. Whole of India
b. States only
c. Any Union territory
d. Delhi only
40. Section 2(2) makes the powers of DSPE members subject to:
a. Orders of the State Government
b. Orders of the Central Government
c. Orders of the Magistrate
d. Orders of the High Court
41. Members of DSPE shall have powers throughout:
a. Concerned police district
b. Notified metropolitan area
c. Any Union territory
d. National Capital Region
42. DSPE members have powers in relation to:
a. Investigation only
b. Arrest only
c. Investigation and arrest
d. Trial and sentencing
43. DSPE members enjoy powers equivalent to:
a. Central Government officers
b. Judicial officers
c. Police officers of that Union territory
d. Armed forces personnel
44. Section 2(2) confers which of the following on DSPE members?
a. Powers only
b. Powers and privileges only
c. Powers, duties, privileges and liabilities
d. Administrative authority only
45. The liabilities of DSPE members are:
a. Lesser than local police
b. Higher than local police
c. Same as police officers of the Union territory
d. Completely excluded
46. Section 2(3) applies to DSPE officers of:
a. Any rank
b. Below the rank of Sub-Inspector
c. Of or above the rank of Sub-Inspector
d. Inspector only
47. A DSPE officer under Section 2(3) may exercise powers of:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Magistrate
c. Officer in charge of a police station
d. Chief Judicial Magistrate
48. Such powers may be exercised in:
a. Delhi only
b. States with consent
c. Any Union territory
d. Notified police stations only
49. While exercising police station powers, the DSPE officer shall be:
a. Acting under supervision of local SHO
b. Deemed to be officer in charge of police station
c. Considered investigating officer only
d. Acting as magistrate
50. The deeming provision under Section 2(3) creates:
a. Administrative presumption
b. Rebuttable presumption
c. Legal fiction
d. Judicial discretion
51. The phrase “for the time being” in Section 2(3) indicates:
a. Permanent authority
b. Temporary functional authority
c. Emergency power
d. Retrospective effect
52. The exercise of powers under Section 2(3) is:
a. Absolute
b. Subject to Central Government orders
c. Subject to State Government consent
d. Subject to court approval
53. Section 2 does NOT deal with:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of DSPE
c. Consent of State Government
d. Territorial jurisdiction
54. Section 2 establishes DSPE as:
a. Prosecuting agency
b. Judicial authority
c. Central investigating agency
d. Administrative tribunal
55. The word “may” used in Section 2(1) denotes:
a. Mandatory duty
b. Prohibition
c. Discretionary power
d. Compulsion
56. Section 2 is best described as:
a. Penal provision
b. Enabling provision
c. Saving provision
d. Declaratory provision
57. DSPE officers exercising powers of police station officer are deemed to function:
a. Outside limits of station
b. Within limits of their station
c. Across the State
d. Without jurisdiction
58. Section 2(2) ensures DSPE officers are:
a. Immune from prosecution
b. Above local police law
c. Subject to same legal standards as police
d. Independent of all control
59. The jurisdiction conferred under Section 2 is:
a. Judicial
b. Legislative
c. Investigative
d. Quasi-judicial
60. Section 2 read with Section 3 mainly governs:
a. Trial of offences
b. Notification and investigation of offences
c. Punishment for offences
d. Sanction for prosecution
61. Without Section 2, DSPE would:
a. Function under Police Act
b. Have no statutory authority
c. Be subordinate to State Police
d. Lose investigative power
62. Section 3 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 deals with:
a. Constitution of DSPE
b. Powers of investigation
c. Offences to be investigated by DSPE
d. Consent of State Government
63. Under Section 3, who has the power to specify offences for investigation by DSPE?
a. State Government
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. Parliament
64. The power under Section 3 is exercised by:
a. Ordinance
b. Rule
c. Notification
d. Circular
65. The notification under Section 3 must be published in:
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Police Manual
d. Parliamentary record
66. Section 3 empowers the Central Government to specify:
a. Only individual offences
b. Only classes of offences
c. Both offences and classes of offences
d. Only scheduled offences
67. The offences to be investigated by DSPE are:
a. Automatically applicable
b. Determined by courts
c. Specified by Central Government
d. Defined in the Act itself
68. Section 3 is an example of:
a. Penal provision
b. Delegated legislation
c. Judicial power
d. Constitutional mandate
69. Without a notification under Section 3, DSPE:
a. Can investigate all offences
b. Can investigate IPC offences
c. Has no authority to investigate
d. Can investigate with court permission
70. The expression “may” in Section 3 indicates:
a. Mandatory duty
b. Absolute obligation
c. Discretionary power
d. Prohibitory command
71. Section 3 confers power on the Central Government to:
a. Try offences
b. Prosecute offenders
c. Specify investigative jurisdiction
d. Grant sanction
72. Section 3 acts as a link between:
a. Section 1 and Section 2
b. Section 2 and investigation powers
c. DSPE and judicial courts
d. State police and DSPE
73. The offences notified under Section 3 are investigated by:
a. State Police
b. Local Police Station
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment
d. Magistrate
74. Section 3 does NOT empower the Central Government to:
a. Specify offences
b. Specify classes of offences
c. Investigate offences itself
d. Issue notification
75. The power under Section 3 is exercised:
a. Judicially
b. Legislatively
c. Administratively
d. Constitutionally
76. Section 3 is necessary because:
a. DSPE is a constitutional body
b. Investigation powers must be notified
c. Police Act applies
d. Courts require permission
77. The scope of Section 3 can be expanded or restricted by:
a. Parliament
b. Judiciary
c. Central Government notification
d. State Government resolution
78. Section 3 provides the basis for:
a. Prosecution of offenders
b. Trial by Special Judge
c. Identification of offences for investigation
d. Arrest without warrant
79. The notification under Section 3 is:
a. Temporary unless renewed
b. Subject to court approval
c. Mandatory for DSPE investigation
d. Issued by State Government
80. Section 3 does NOT mention:
a. Central Government
b. Official Gazette
c. State consent
d. Classes of offences
81. Section 3 read with Section 2 establishes:
a. Judicial control over police
b. Territorial jurisdiction only
c. Subject-matter jurisdiction of DSPE
d. Administrative hierarchy
82. The offences specified under Section 3 are:
a. Automatically cognizable
b. Always corruption offences
c. Determined by notification
d. Defined in CrPC
83. Section 3 enables DSPE to:
a. Investigate without limits
b. Investigate notified offences only
c. Prosecute accused
d. Frame charges
84. The Central Government’s power under Section 3 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Judicial
c. Discretionary
d. Ministerial
85. Section 3 is a:
a. Charging section
b. Jurisdiction-conferring provision
c. Punishment section
d. Saving clause
86. The phrase “classes of offences” implies:
a. Individual FIRs
b. Specific accused
c. Category or group of offences
d. Only IPC offences
87. Section 3 does not itself:
a. Create offences
b. Specify offences
c. Confer investigative jurisdiction
d. Empower notification
88. Section 3 ensures that DSPE investigation is:
a. Arbitrary
b. Judicially controlled
c. Legally authorized
d. State-controlled
89. The notification under Section 3 must be:
a. Confidential
b. Published
c. Approved by Parliament
d. Issued by judiciary
90. Section 3 helps maintain:
a. Separation of powers
b. Federal balance
c. Rule of law in investigation
d. Judicial supremacy
91. Section 3 of DSPE Act is best described as:
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural safeguard
c. Enabling and regulatory provision
d. Saving clause
92. Section 4(1) vests superintendence of DSPE in respect of Prevention of Corruption Act offences in:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. The Commission
d. Director of DSPE
93. The Commission mentioned in Section 4(1) refers to:
a. State Vigilance Commission
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Judicial Commission
d. Law Commission
94. Section 4(2) states that in matters other than corruption offences, superintendence of DSPE vests in:
a. The Commission
b. The Director
c. Central Government
d. State Government
95. Section 4(3) vests administration of DSPE in:
a. The Commission
b. Central Government
c. An officer appointed by Central Government
d. State Government
96. The officer appointed under Section 4(3) is referred to as:
a. Superintendent
b. Director
c. Inspector-General
d. Commissioner
97. The Director exercises powers similar to:
a. Director-General of Police
b. Inspector-General of Police
c. Superintendent of Police
d. Magistrate
98. The powers of the Director are exercisable as specified by:
a. The Commission
b. The Central Government
c. The State Government
d. Judicial authorities
99. Section 4 ensures that in corruption-related investigations, superintendence lies with:
a. Central Government
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Vigilance Commission
d. State Police
100. For all non-corruption matters, the administrative authority of DSPE is:
a. Central Government
b. The Director
c. The Commission
d. State Government
101. Section 4(3) confers on the Director the power to:
a. Investigate offences personally
b. Exercise powers of an Inspector-General of Police in respect of DSPE
c. Prosecute offences
d. Appoint State Police officers
102. The term “superintendence” in Section 4 primarily relates to:
a. Judicial supervision
b. Oversight of investigations
c. Legislative control
d. Training of officers
103. The superintendence over corruption cases is vested in the Commission to:
a. Ensure administrative efficiency
b. Ensure independent investigation
c. Reduce workload of Central Government
d. Delegate powers to State Government
104. Section 4(2) states “save as otherwise provided in sub-section (1)” implying:
a. All powers are with Central Government
b. Corruption cases are excepted
c. Director has no powers
d. Commission controls all matters
105. Administration of DSPE includes:
a. Financial management, personnel, and operations
b. Judicial powers
c. Legislative enactments
d. State Police supervision
106. The Director exercises powers in respect of DSPE as specified by:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. High Court
107. Section 4 ensures a dual control system:
a. Central Government for all offences
b. Commission for corruption offences and Central Government for others
c. Director only for all offences
d. State Government for non-corruption offences
108. The powers exercisable by the Director are analogous to those of:
a. Superintendent of Police in a State
b. Inspector-General of Police of a State
c. Chief Judicial Magistrate
d. Central Vigilance Officer
109. Section 4(1) applies specifically to offences under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Police Act, 1861
d. Criminal Procedure Code
110. Section 4(2) is a residuary provision meaning:
a. Applies only to corruption cases
b. Applies to all other matters not covered under Section 4(1)
c. Applies to State Police matters
d. Applies to judicial proceedings
111. The Director is appointed by:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. High Court
112. The superintendence by the Commission ensures:
a. Administrative control only
b. Effective investigation of corruption offences
c. Judicial powers of officers
d. Legislative control over DSPE
113. Section 4(3) confers on the Director powers “as the Central Government may specify”, which implies:
a. Director has unlimited powers
b. Powers are delegated and defined by Central Government
c. Director can supersede the Commission
d. Director exercises judicial powers
114. Section 4 is crucial to ensure:
a. Political control of DSPE
b. Proper superintendence and administration of DSPE
c. State Government oversight
d. Judicial supervision
115. In Section 4(1), the phrase “in so far as it relates to investigation of offences” indicates:
a. Limited role of Commission
b. Complete control of Central Government
c. Director’s administrative role
d. Judicial powers
116. The dual control under Section 4 ensures:
a. Independent investigation and central administrative control
b. Central Government control only
c. Commission control only
d. State Government control
117. Section 4(3) confers on the Director powers similar to Inspector-General of Police “in respect of that police establishment”, meaning:
a. Powers only in Delhi
b. Powers in relation to DSPE
c. Powers across State Police
d. Powers to try offences
118. Section 4 read with Section 2 establishes:
a. Subject-matter and administrative control of DSPE
b. Only investigative powers
c. Judicial powers
d. Legislative authority
119. The Director exercises powers delegated by Central Government but does not have:
a. Superintendence over corruption cases
b. Powers to administer DSPE
c. Powers to manage personnel
d. Powers similar to Inspector-General of Police
120. Section 4 distinguishes between:
a. Judicial and executive powers
b. Administrative and superintendence powers
c. State and Central Police powers
d. Legislative and investigative powers
121. Section 4 provides a mechanism for:
a. Complete autonomy of DSPE
b. Coordinated administration and independent investigation
c. Central Government supervision only
d. State Government oversight
122. Section 4A of the DSPE Act deals with:
a. Powers of the Director
b. Committee for appointment of Director
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Offences to be investigated
123. The Director of DSPE is appointed by:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. Prime Minister
c. Central Government
d. President of India
124. Appointment of the Director is based on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:
a. Only Central Government officers
b. Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and Chief Justice of India/Judge
c. Director-General of Police and Home Minister
d. State Police Authorities
125. Who is the Chairperson of the Committee for appointment of Director?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Leader of Opposition
d. Home Minister
126. If there is no recognised Leader of Opposition in the House of the People, the Committee includes:
a. Leader of the single largest Opposition party
b. Deputy Prime Minister
c. Speaker of the House
d. Home Minister
127. The judicial member of the Committee is:
a. Any High Court judge
b. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by him
c. Chief Justice of State
d. Any retired Supreme Court judge
128. Section 4A(2) provides that an appointment is valid even if:
a. Committee members disagree
b. There is a vacancy or absence of a member in the Committee
c. Director is not from IPS
d. Central Government bypasses Committee
129. The Committee recommends officers for appointment as Director on the basis of:
a. Political affiliation
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience in anti-corruption investigation
c. Academic qualifications only
d. Ministerial approval
130. The recommended officers must belong to:
a. State Police Service
b. Indian Police Service (IPS)
c. Central Bureau of Investigation
d. Defence Services
131. The IPS is constituted under:
a. Constitution of India
b. All-India Services Act, 1951
c. Police Act, 1861
d. CrPC
132. Section 4A ensures that the Director’s appointment is:
a. Politically influenced
b. Transparent and merit-based
c. Arbitrary
d. Based on Central Government discretion only
133. The Committee includes the Leader of Opposition as:
a. Chairperson
b. Member
c. Secretary
d. Observer
134. Section 4A(1) implies that the Committee is:
a. Ad hoc
b. Permanent statutory body
c. Independent and high-level
d. State-controlled
135. The Director is appointed primarily for:
a. Administrative supervision of DSPE
b. Investigation of anti-corruption cases
c. Trial of offences
d. Legislative supervision
136. Section 4A ensures that the Director has experience in:
a. Traffic policing
b. Anti-corruption investigations
c. Judicial administration
d. Civil administration
137. Section 4A(3)(a) emphasizes which qualities for recommendation?
a. Political loyalty and seniority
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience
c. Educational qualifications
d. Service length only
138. Section 4A(3)(b) requires officers to be:
a. Part of Central Police Force
b. IPS officers
c. State Police officers
d. Judicial officers
139. Section 4A(2) prevents invalidation of appointment due to:
a. Central Government discretion
b. Committee vacancies or absences
c. Political interference
d. Court order
140. Section 4A reflects a balance between:
a. Executive and judiciary
b. Legislature and executive
c. State and Central Governments
d. Judiciary and State Police
141. The Committee provides a panel of officers, which is:
a. Mandatory for appointment consideration
b. Optional suggestion
c. Only for corruption cases
d. Subject to Parliament approval
142. Section 4A ensures merit-based selection by considering:
a. Only seniority
b. Seniority, integrity, and experience
c. Political recommendation
d. Central Government discretion only
143. Section 4A(1) ensures the Prime Minister acts as:
a. Member
b. Chairperson
c. Observer
d. Secretary
144. In absence of a Leader of Opposition, the Committee includes:
a. Speaker of the House
b. Leader of single largest Opposition party
c. Home Minister
d. Director-General of Police
145. Section 4A(3) emphasizes that officers must have:
a. Political experience
b. Anti-corruption investigation experience
c. Judicial experience
d. Administrative experience only
146. Section 4A is important to ensure:
a. Arbitrary appointments
b. Appointment of Director based on merit and integrity
c. Political control over DSPE
d. Appointment by State Government
147. The judicial member of the Committee is nominated by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Leader of Opposition
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Central Government
148. Section 4A balances powers between:
a. Central Government and State Government
b. Central Government, judiciary, and opposition party
c. State Police and DSPE
d. Courts and executive
149. Section 4A ensures that the Director is recommended from:
a. State Police officers
b. Indian Police Service officers
c. Judicial officers
d. Administrative officers
150. Section 4A(2) protects the appointment from being invalidated due to:
a. Political interference
b. Vacancies or absences in the Committee
c. Central Government discretion
d. State Government objection
151. Section 4A is crucial because it ensures that:
a. Director can act independently with merit and integrity
b. Director is politically appointed
c. Director acts only in Delhi
d. Director has judicial powers
152. Section 4B deals with:
a. Superintendence of DSPE
b. Terms and conditions of service of the Director
c. Appointment of officers
d. Offences to be investigated
153. The minimum term for which the Director holds office is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
154. The term of the Director can be extended in public interest on the recommendation of:
a. Central Government only
b. Committee under Section 4A
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court
155. The extension of the Director’s term can be granted for a period of:
a. Up to six months
b. Up to one year at a time
c. Up to two years at a time
d. No extension allowed
156. No extension shall be granted after a total period of:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years
157. The five-year limit includes:
a. Only initial appointment
b. Initial appointment and all extensions
c. Only extensions
d. Probation period only
158. Section 4B(2) states that the Director shall not be transferred except with:
a. Consent of Central Government
b. Previous consent of the Committee under Section 4A
c. Consent of the Prime Minister only
d. Judicial approval
159. Section 4B ensures security of tenure for the Director to:
a. Prevent arbitrary transfer
b. Limit powers of the Director
c. Give State Government control
d. Avoid judicial interference
160. The Director’s initial term is:
a. Mandatory for one year
b. Minimum two years
c. Maximum five years
d. Not specified
161. Extension of the Director’s term requires:
a. Only Central Government approval
b. Recommendation of the Committee and reasons recorded in writing
c. Consent of State Government
d. Judicial sanction
162. The maximum total tenure of the Director cannot exceed:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years
163. Section 4B prevents:
a. Director from investigating offences
b. Arbitrary transfers by the Central Government
c. Supervision by Commission
d. Appointment of a Deputy Director
164. Section 4B provides for continuity of office of Director for:
a. Minimum one year
b. Minimum two years
c. Minimum three years
d. No minimum
165. Extension of the Director’s term can be made:
a. Multiple times, each up to one year, within the five-year limit
b. Only once for one year
c. Only with parliamentary approval
d. Not allowed
166. Reasons for extension of Director’s term must be:
a. Approved by Parliament
b. Recorded in writing
c. Verbal approval of Central Government
d. Not required
167. Section 4B(2) safeguards the Director’s independence by:
a. Preventing arbitrary transfer without Committee consent
b. Allowing State Government to transfer
c. Allowing Central Government to extend tenure indefinitely
d. Judicial supervision
168. Section 4B applies to:
a. Director and all DSPE officers
b. Only Director of DSPE
c. State Police officers
d. CBI officers only
169. The “Committee” referred in Section 4B is the same as:
a. Committee under Section 4A
b. Central Government body
c. State Police Committee
d. Parliamentary Committee
170. Section 4B ensures that the Director’s tenure is:
a. Short-term and flexible
b. Secure and protected from arbitrary interference
c. Dependent on State Government
d. Controlled by judiciary
171. Section 4B(1) applies notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in:
a. State Police Act rules
b. Rules relating to Director’s conditions of service
c. CrPC provisions
d. Judicial orders
172. Security of tenure under Section 4B is important for:
a. Political control
b. Independence in investigation
c. Limiting Central Government authority
d. State supervision
173. Section 4B(1) ensures the Director’s tenure is:
a. Completely fixed
b. Minimum of two years with possible extensions
c. Maximum of three years only
d. Determined by Central Government alone
174. The Committee’s recommendation for extension must be based on:
a. Political loyalty
b. Public interest
c. Judicial advice
d. Central Government discretion only
175. Maximum extension allowed in total cannot exceed:
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Five years including initial appointment
d. Six years
176. Section 4B(2) protects the Director from:
a. Arbitrary removal or transfer
b. Investigation powers
c. Administrative work
d. Judicial oversight
177. The minimum tenure under Section 4B is designed to:
a. Facilitate State Government control
b. Ensure administrative and investigative continuity
c. Allow frequent changes
d. Depend on Central Government discretion only
178. Section 4B safeguards Director’s term and transfer to ensure:
a. Political independence
b. Operational independence of DSPE
c. Parliamentary control
d. Judicial supervision
179. Section 4B allows extension of term:
a. Only at the discretion of the Central Government
b. Only on recommendation of the Committee and for reasons in writing
c. Automatically
d. Based on State Government approval
180. Section 4B read with 4A ensures:
a. Merit-based appointment and secure tenure of Director
b. Judicial control of DSPE
c. Political control of appointments
d. State Government involvement
181. Section 4B emphasizes:
a. Minimum term, extension conditions, and consent for transfer
b. Powers of Director to prosecute cases
c. Powers of Director in administrative work only
d. Judicial supervision over Director
182. Section 4BA establishes:
a. Directorate of Investigation
b. Directorate of Prosecution
c. Directorate of Vigilance
d. State Police Directorate
183. The Directorate of Prosecution is headed by:
a. Director of DSPE
b. Director of Prosecution
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. State Police Superintendent
184. The minimum rank for the Director of Prosecution is:
a. Under Secretary to Government of India
b. Joint Secretary to Government of India
c. Director General of Police
d. Inspector-General of Police
185. The Director of Prosecution functions under:
a. Central Vigilance Commission
b. Director of DSPE
c. State Government
d. Ministry of Home Affairs
186. Section 4BA(3) states that the Director of Prosecution is appointed by:
a. Central Government on recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
b. Central Government alone
c. State Government
d. Director of DSPE
187. The Director of Prosecution holds office for a minimum period of:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
188. Section 4BA(2) emphasizes that the Director of Prosecution is under:
a. State Police supervision
b. Overall supervision and control of the Director of DSPE
c. Judicial supervision
d. Central Government supervision only
189. The minimum tenure of the Director of Prosecution is guaranteed:
a. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the rules relating to his conditions of service
b. Only with Central Government approval
c. Only with judicial approval
d. Not guaranteed
190. The role of the Director of Prosecution primarily involves:
a. Investigation of offences
b. Conducting prosecution of cases under the Act
c. Administrative control of DSPE
d. Legislative functions
191. The appointment of the Director of Prosecution is based on:
a. Seniority only
b. Recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
c. Central Government discretion alone
d. Political nomination
192. Section 4BA ensures independence of the Director of Prosecution by:
a. Fixing minimum tenure of two years
b. Allowing arbitrary transfer
c. Subordinating him to State Government
d. Allowing political interference
193. The Director of Prosecution must be an officer of:
a. Indian Police Service only
b. Government of India at Joint Secretary level or above
c. State Government
d. Judicial Services
194. The Director of Prosecution reports to:
a. Prime Minister
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. State Government
195. Section 4BA(4) protects the Director of Prosecution against:
a. Arbitrary removal before two years
b. Suspension by State Government
c. Judicial intervention
d. Political interference in appointment
196. The Director of Prosecution is a part of:
a. DSPE
b. Directorate of Prosecution
c. State Police
d. Judicial Department
197. The Director of Prosecution ensures prosecution in:
a. Civil cases
b. Offences under the DSPE Act
c. Traffic offences
d. Tax matters
198. Section 4BA provides a link between:
a. State Police and judiciary
b. DSPE investigation and prosecution
c. Parliament and Central Government
d. CBI and State Police
199. The Director of Prosecution’s tenure is similar to:
a. Director of DSPE under Section 4B
b. State Police Chief
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Judicial officer tenure
200. Section 4BA(3) appointment ensures:
a. Political control
b. Merit-based appointment through Central Vigilance Commission recommendation
c. State Government involvement
d. Arbitrary discretion of Central Government
201. The supervision under Section 4BA(2) implies:
a. Administrative and functional control by Director of DSPE
b. Central Government interference
c. Judicial review
d. State Government interference
202. The minimum tenure of the Director of Prosecution is to ensure:
a. Continuity and independence in prosecution
b. Political control
c. Arbitrary transfer
d. Judicial control
203. Section 4BA emphasizes that the Director of Prosecution must be:
a. At least Joint Secretary rank
b. At least Director General of Police
c. Any officer of State Police
d. Judicial officer
204. Section 4BA ensures that the Director of Prosecution is appointed:
a. Directly by Central Government without recommendation
b. On recommendation of Central Vigilance Commission
c. By State Government
d. By Parliament
205. The Director of Prosecution assists in:
a. Legislative functions
b. Judicial functions
c. Prosecution of cases under the DSPE Act
d. Administrative control of State Police
206. Section 4BA read with Section 4 ensures:
a. Proper coordination between investigation and prosecution
b. Central Government control over State Police
c. Judicial supervision of DSPE
d. Political control of DSPE
207. Section 4C deals with:
a. Appointment of Director
b. Appointment, extension, and curtailment of officers at SP level and above
c. Appointment of Director of Prosecution
d. Superintendence of DSPE
208. The Central Government appoints officers at which level under Section 4C?
a. Inspector level and above
b. Superintendent of Police and above, except Director
c. Director of DSPE
d. Joint Secretary level only
209. The recommendation for appointment under Section 4C is made by:
a. Central Government alone
b. Committee consisting of Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, and Secretaries to Government of India
c. State Government
d. Director of DSPE only
210. Who acts as Chairperson of the Committee under Section 4C?
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. Director of DSPE
d. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs
211. Members of the Committee include:
a. Vigilance Commissioners and Secretaries to Government of India
b. State Police Officers
c. Judiciary members
d. Director of Prosecution
212. The Committee consults which officer before submitting recommendations?
a. Prime Minister
b. Director of DSPE
c. Central Government Secretary
d. Chief Justice of India
213. The Central Government on receipt of the recommendation shall:
a. Approve automatically
b. Pass such orders as it thinks fit
c. Reject all recommendations
d. Forward to State Government
214. Section 4C also covers:
a. Tenure extension and curtailment
b. Appointment of Director
c. Judicial supervision
d. Legislative powers
215. The Committee under Section 4C is responsible for recommending:
a. Only initial appointments
b. Appointments, extension, and curtailment of tenure of officers at SP level and above
c. Judicial powers
d. State Government approval
216. The Secretary members in the Committee are from:
a. Ministry of Finance and Law
b. Ministry of Home Affairs and Department of Personnel
c. Ministry of Defence only
d. State Government
217. Section 4C ensures that the Director of DSPE is:
a. Consulted before recommendations
b. Ignored in the appointment process
c. Sole authority for appointment
d. Part of the Committee as Chairperson
218. The recommendation under Section 4C is advisory to:
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Judicial authority
d. Prime Minister
219. Section 4C applies to officers:
a. Below Superintendent of Police
b. Superintendent of Police and above, excluding Director
c. Only Director
d. Director of Prosecution only
220. Section 4C emphasizes:
a. Merit, integrity, and administrative experience
b. Political appointment
c. State Government recommendation
d. Judicial approval
221. The Central Government may act on the recommendation:
a. Automatically
b. At its discretion to pass orders as it thinks fit
c. Only after judicial approval
d. Only with State Government consent
222. Section 4C ensures consultation with Director to:
a. Maintain operational continuity
b. Give political control
c. Allow arbitrary appointments
d. Allow State interference
223. The Committee under Section 4C is chaired by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. Director of DSPE
d. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs
224. The purpose of Section 4C is to:
a. Regulate appointments, extension, and curtailment of SP level officers
b. Control judicial powers
c. Control Director of Prosecution
d. Control State Police
225. Section 4C ensures checks and balances by:
a. Committee consultation with Director and Central Government approval
b. State Government involvement
c. Judicial oversight only
d. Political nomination
226. Members of the Committee include:
a. Only Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Vigilance Commissioners and two Secretaries to Government of India
c. Only Director of DSPE
d. Only Central Government officers
227. Section 4C ensures that appointment and tenure management are:
a. Arbitrary
b. Transparent and merit-based
c. Controlled by State Government
d. Subject to political influence
228. The Central Government may:
a. Reject or modify the Committee’s recommendation
b. Appoint without recommendation
c. Act on State Government advice
d. Act only on judicial order
229. Section 4C read with Section 4A ensures:
a. Director consulted for senior officer appointments
b. Director has sole authority
c. Committee has no role
d. Political appointments only
230. Section 4C ensures operational efficiency by:
a. Fixing tenure of SP and above officers
b. Direct control of State Government
c. Judicial supervision
d. Political influence
231. The Committee’s recommendation under Section 4C is:
a. Mandatory for Central Government to implement
b. Advisory for Central Government to act upon
c. Binding on Director
d. Subject to judicial review
232. Section 4C safeguards DSPE’s independence by:
a. Including Director in consultation process
b. Allowing arbitrary transfer
c. Excluding Central Government
d. Bypassing merit-based selection
233. Section 4C covers:
a. Only appointment
b. Appointment, extension, and curtailment of tenure of SP-level officers
c. Judicial powers
d. State Police functions
234. The Secretary members in the Committee are responsible for:
a. Administrative oversight
b. Judicial decisions
c. Political nomination
d. State Police supervision
235. Section 4C ensures that DSPE officers above SP level:
a. Are appointed through a transparent committee process
b. Are nominated by Central Government alone
c. Are controlled by State Government
d. Are appointed by judiciary
236. Section 4C’s consultation mechanism with the Director ensures:
a. Operational continuity and informed recommendations
b. Political control
c. Arbitrary transfer
d. Judicial review
237. Section 5 deals with:
a. Appointment of Director
b. Extension of powers and jurisdiction of DSPE to other areas
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Investigation of corruption cases only
238. Under Section 5(1), powers of DSPE can be extended to:
a. Only Union territories
b. Any area in a State, including Railway areas
c. Only Delhi
d. Only State capitals
239. The Central Government may extend powers of DSPE under:
a. A written order
b. Judicial approval
c. State Government approval
d. Notification in Gazette
240. Section 5(2) provides that when powers are extended, a DSPE member:
a. Remains only a DSPE officer
b. Is deemed a member of the local police force of that area
c. Cannot investigate offences
d. Requires State Government approval for every action
241. While exercising powers in an extended area, a DSPE officer:
a. Has powers, functions, and privileges of a local police officer
b. Has limited powers
c. Requires additional permission from judiciary
d. Is only an advisor
242. Section 5(2) states that DSPE members are subject to:
a. Only DSPE rules
b. Liabilities of local police officers in that area
c. Central Vigilance Commission only
d. Judicial supervision only
243. Officers of DSPE of or above the rank of Sub-Inspector may:
a. Exercise powers of the officer in charge of a police station in the extended area
b. Only assist local police
c. Require State Government approval for every action
d. Cannot exercise any powers
244. While exercising powers of the officer in charge of a police station, DSPE officers:
a. Are deemed officers in charge of that station
b. Remain subordinate to State Police only
c. Are not authorized to register FIRs
d. Cannot arrest persons
245. Extension of powers under Section 5 applies to offences:
a. Notified under Section 3
b. Only economic offences
c. Only corruption cases
d. Any offence under IPC automatically
246. Section 5 ensures DSPE officers can function in:
a. Union territories only
b. Any State area designated by Central Government
c. State capitals only
d. Delhi only
247. Section 5 allows DSPE members to discharge functions of a police officer:
a. Only in Delhi
b. In extended areas as per Central Government orders
c. Only in Union territories
d. Only under judicial supervision
248. Section 5(3) applies to officers of DSPE of rank:
a. Constable
b. Head Constable
c. Sub-Inspector and above
d. Director only
249. Powers exercised under Section 5(3) include:
a. Investigation and administrative functions of a police station
b. Judicial powers
c. Legislative powers
d. Revenue collection powers
250. Section 5 empowers DSPE officers in extended areas to:
a. Investigate and arrest
b. Only investigate
c. Only advise local police
d. Only register complaints
251. Section 5(1) requires that the Central Government may extend powers:
a. For specific offences or classes of offences
b. For all offences automatically
c. Only for economic offences
d. Only for corruption offences
252. A DSPE officer in an extended area is subject to:
a. Local police rules and liabilities
b. DSPE rules only
c. Central Government instructions only
d. Judiciary approval for every action
253. Section 5 ensures coordination between:
a. DSPE and local police in extended areas
b. State Police only
c. Judiciary and DSPE only
d. Ministry of Home Affairs only
254. Powers under Section 5 are granted by:
a. State Government
b. Central Government order
c. Judicial authority
d. Director of DSPE
255. Section 5 ensures officers of DSPE can function as:
a. Regular local police officers in extended areas
b. Advisors only
c. Judicial officers
d. Central Government secretaries
256. Extension under Section 5 includes:
a. Railway areas within a State
b. Only State capitals
c. Only urban areas
d. Only Union territories
257. Section 5 ensures that DSPE officers of rank Sub-Inspector and above can:
a. Exercise powers of Station House Officer in extended areas
b. Only investigate cases
c. Only register FIRs
d. Only assist local police
258. While exercising police station powers, DSPE officers are:
a. Deemed to be officers in charge of the station
b. Subordinate to State Police only
c. Independent without coordination
d. Not allowed to file charges
259. Section 5(2) ensures DSPE officers have:
a. Same powers, functions, privileges, and liabilities as local police
b. Limited advisory powers
c. Only investigation powers
d. Only administrative powers
260. Central Government can make orders under Section 5:
a. To extend powers to any specified area in a State
b. To modify State police laws
c. To appoint judicial officers
d. o control State Government
261. Section 5 read with Section 2 ensures:
a. DSPE officers can exercise police powers in other areas like their own jurisdiction
b. DSPE officers remain limited to Delhi
c. Judicial approval required for every action
d. State Police can overrule DSPE
262. Section 5 is important to:
a. Enable DSPE to investigate offences across multiple areas
b. Limit DSPE to Delhi
c. Give State Governments control over DSPE
d. Allow judiciary to supervise DSPE directly
263. Officers acting under Section 5 are deemed:
a. Part of local police of the extended area
b. Only DSPE officers
c. Judicial officers
d. Administrative officers only
264. Section 5 ensures DSPE officers have powers:
a. Subject to Central Government orders
b. Subject to judicial approval every time
c. Controlled by State Government
d. Limited to Delhi
265. Section 5(3) allows:
a. Sub-Inspectors and above to act as Station House Officers
b. Only Directors to act as SHO
c. Constables to act independently
d. Officers below Sub-Inspector to act as SHO
266. Section 5 provides DSPE officers in extended areas with:
a. Full police powers, privileges, and liabilities
b. Advisory powers only
c. Judicial powers only
d. Limited investigatory powers
267. Section 6 deals with:
a. Extension of DSPE powers to Union territories
b. Consent of State Government to exercise powers and jurisdiction
c. Appointment of Director
d. Superintendence of DSPE
268. Can DSPE exercise powers in any area of a State without State Government consent?
a. Yes, under Section 5
b. No, consent of the State Government is required
c. Only in Union territories
d. Only in railway areas
269. Section 6 applies to areas in a State that are:
a. Union territories
b. Railway areas only
c. Areas not being Union territories or railway areas
d. Only State capitals
270. Section 6 restricts DSPE powers to:
a. Areas with prior consent of State Government
b. Areas notified by Central Government only
c. Only Delhi
d. Only Union territories
271. Section 6 clarifies that Section 5:
a. Cannot override the requirement of State Government consent
b. Grants DSPE unrestricted powers
c. Allows judicial approval instead of State consent
d. Grants powers only to Directors
272. Consent of the State Government under Section 6 is required for:
a. Exercise of powers and jurisdiction in the State
b. Appointing officers in DSPE
c. Superintendence of DSPE
d. Judicial powers
273. Section 6 ensures that the federal structure is respected by:
a. Requiring State Government consent
b. Allowing Central Government to override State
c. Ignoring State Government
d. Giving powers only to judiciary
274. Without State Government consent, DSPE cannot:
a. Investigate offences in that area
b. Advise local police
c. Assist judicial authorities
d. File reports
275. Section 6 applies notwithstanding:
a. Section 5 extension orders
b. Section 4B tenure rules
c. Judicial powers
d. Appointment rules
276. Section 6 emphasizes the principle of:
a. State sovereignty over its territory
b. Central Government supremacy
c. Judicial control over DSPE
d. Political supervision
277. Areas in a State where consent is required include:
a. All areas except Union territories and railway areas
b. Only State capitals
c. Only urban areas
d. Union territories only
278. Section 6 prevents:
a. Unauthorized exercise of powers by DSPE in a State
b. Appointment of Director
c. Superintendence by Central Government
d. Extension to Union territories
279. Section 6 safeguards:
a. Federal balance between State and Centre
b. Political appointments
c. Judicial supervision
d. State police recruitment
280. Section 6 is applicable when Section 5 powers are:
a. Extended to a State area
b. Limited to Delhi only
c. Restricted to Union territories
d. Exercised within the Central Government only
281. The main requirement under Section 6 is:
a. Prior consent of the State Government before exercising powers
b. Central Government order only
c. Judicial approval only
d. Approval from Parliament
282. Section 6 respects the autonomy of:
a. State Governments
b. Union territories
c. Judiciary
d. Central Government officers
283. Section 6 makes it clear that DSPE cannot function in a State without:
a. Prior written consent of that State Government
b. Notification under Section 3
c. Recommendation of Director
d. Parliamentary approval
284. Section 6 ensures that DSPE’s powers in a State are:
a. Conditional upon State consent
b. Automatic once Section 5 applies
c. Subordinate to judiciary only
d. Unlimited
285. Section 6 preserves:
a. Federal structure and State control over law and order
b. Central Government supremacy
c. Political appointments in DSPE
d. Judiciary control
286. Section 6 applies to:
a. All areas in a State except Union territories and railway areas
b. Only Union territories
c. Only Delhi
d. Only Central Government offices
287. Section 6 ensures DSPE officers do not:
a. Exercise powers arbitrarily in State areas
b. Investigate offences in Delhi
c. Supervise State Police
d. Appoint officers
288. Consent under Section 6 can be given by:
a. State Government of the area concerned
b. Central Government
c. Director of DSPE
d. Parliament
289. Section 6 prevents conflict between:
a. DSPE powers and State Police jurisdiction
b. Director and Central Government
c. Judicial and administrative functions
d. Parliament and State legislatures
290. Without State Government consent, DSPE powers under Section 5 are:
a. Ineffective in that State area
b. Fully valid
c. Subject to Central Government discretion
d. Valid only in Union territories
291. Section 6 ensures that the exercise of DSPE powers is:
a. Coordinated with the State Government
b. Independent of State Government
c. Controlled by judiciary
d. Subject to political approval
292. Section 6A deals with:
a. Extension of DSPE powers to Union territories
b. Approval of Central Government to conduct inquiry or investigation
c. Appointment of Director
d. Superintendence of DSPE
293. DSPE shall not conduct an inquiry under Section 6A without:
a. Previous approval of Central Government
b. Consent of State Government
c. Approval of Parliament
d. Judicial permission
294. Section 6A applies specifically to offences under:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Railways Act, 1989
d. Police Act, 1861
295. Approval is required when the allegation relates to:
a. Employees of State Governments
b. Employees of Central Government of level Joint Secretary and above
c. All DSPE officers
d. Local police only
296. Approval is also required for officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. State Government offices only
b. Corporations established under any Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government
c. Union territories only
d. Judiciary
297. Section 6A(2) provides an exception to approval requirement for:
a. Arrest of a person on the spot for accepting or attempting to accept gratification other than legal remuneration
b. Investigation of high-level officers
c. Officers of Joint Secretary level
d. Parliamentary approvals
298. The exception under Section 6A(2) is limited to:
a. Gratification other than legal remuneration
b. Corruption in Central Government offices
c. All officers of Central Government
d. Officers of State Governments
299. Section 6A ensures that inquiries against senior officers require:
a. Prior approval of Central Government
b. Judicial permission only
c. State Government consent
d. Parliamentary approval
300. Officers covered under Section 6A include:
a. Joint Secretary and above in Central Government
b. Sub-Inspectors and above
c. Constables only
d. State Government officers
301. Officers in corporations, societies, and Government companies under Central Government require:
a. Central Government approval for DSPE inquiry
b. State Government approval
c. Judicial permission
d. No approval
302. Section 6A(2) allows DSPE to arrest on the spot:
a. For accepting or attempting to accept illegal gratification
b. For any corruption case automatically
c. Only after Central Government approval
d. Only for high-ranking officers
303. The term “legal remuneration” in Section 6A(2) refers to:
a. Lawful salary or payment due to a person
b. Bribe
c. Unauthorised benefit
d. None of the above
304. Section 6A emphasizes:
a. Central control over investigation of high-ranking officers
b. State control over DSPE
c. Judicial approval for every case
d. Parliamentary supervision
305. Section 6A applies to officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. Corporations under Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities
b. Only Union territories
c. State Government offices
d. Judiciary
306. DSPE cannot investigate senior officers without approval to maintain:
a. Federal and administrative hierarchy
b. Political influence
c. State control
d. Parliamentary consent
307. Section 6A(2) exception is aimed at:
a. Immediate action to prevent loss of evidence or catch offenders red-handed
b. Arrest of high-ranking officials only
c. Investigation of corporations
d. Judicial intervention
308. Section 6A requires approval for:
a. Inquiry or investigation into offences under PC Act 1988 against high-level officials
b. Routine police complaints
c. All State Government employees
d. Only directors of DSPE
309. Section 6A ensures DSPE acts with:
a. Proper authorization when dealing with senior Central Government employees
b. Absolute discretion
c. State Government intervention
d. Parliamentary approval
310. Approval under Section 6A is required for officers of:
a. Government companies under Central Government
b. State Government
c. Judiciary only
d. All DSPE officers
311. Section 6A(2) does not require approval for:
a. Spot arrest for accepting illegal gratification
b. Investigation of Joint Secretary level officers
c. Investigation of officers in Government companies
d. Offences in Union territories
312. Section 6A prevents:
a. Unauthorized inquiry into senior officers of Central Government
b. Investigation of ordinary officers
c. Arrest without judicial supervision only
d. State Government control
313. Section 6A applies to officers appointed by Central Government in:
a. Local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government
b. State-run corporations
c. Judiciary
d. Municipalities only
314. Section 6A(1)(a) specifically refers to employees of Central Government of rank:
a. Joint Secretary and above
b. Under Secretary and above
c. Director only
d. Constable and above
315. Section 6A ensures administrative control over:
a. Investigation of senior Central Government employees
b. State Police
c. Judiciary
d. Parliament
316. Section 6A balances:
a. Need for prompt action against corruption and protection of high-level officials from arbitrary inquiry
b. Central and State Police control
c. Judicial control and parliamentary control
d. Appointment of Director and officers