THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005
1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding variation of service conditions of State Information Commissioners?
a. They may be varied anytime
b. They may be varied with Governor’s approval
c. They shall not be varied to their disadvantage after appointment
d. They may be reduced in public interest
2. The protection against disadvantageous variation of service conditions applies to:
a. Only the State Chief Information Commissioner
b. Only State Information Commissioners
c. Only those appointed after 2019 Amendment
d. Both State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners
3. State Information Commissioners appointed before the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 shall be governed by:
a. Only the amended provisions
b. Fresh rules framed after 2019
c. State Government directions
d. The original Act and rules as if the 2019 Amendment had not come into force
4. The officers and employees necessary for efficient performance of functions of the State Information Commission are provided by:
a. Central Government
b. Governor
c. State Government
d. State Legislature
5. The salaries and allowances of officers and employees of the State Information Commission shall be:
a. Fixed by the State Cabinet
b. Determined by the Commission itself
c. Same as State Secretariat officers
d. Such as may be prescribed
6. Section 16(6) of the RTI Act primarily deals with:
a. Removal of Commissioners
b. Appointment procedure
c. Resignation mechanism
d. Administrative staffing and service conditions of supporting officers and employees
7. Under Section 18(1) of the RTI Act, a complaint may be made to the Information Commission when a person is unable to submit a request for information because:
a. The information sought is exempted
b. No Public Information Officer has been appointed
c. The applicant is illiterate
d. The information is confidential
8. A complaint under Section 18(1)(a) is maintainable when the Assistant Public Information Officer refuses to accept an application for forwarding it to:
a. Only the Central or State Public Information Officer
b. Only the appellate authority under Section 19
c. The Public Information Officer, appellate authority, or Information Commission
d. Only the Information Commission
9. Under Section 18(1), a complaint may be filed by a person who has been refused access to information requested under the Act. This ground falls under which clause?
a. Clause (a)
b. Clause (b)
c. Clause (c)
d. Clause (d)
10. Failure to receive a response to a request for information within the prescribed time limit is covered under:
a. Section 18(1)(b)
b. Section 18(1)(c)
c. Section 18(1)(d)
d. Section 18(2)
11. A complaint can be made under Section 18(1)(d) when the applicant believes that:
a. Information has been wrongly denied
b. Fee demanded is unreasonable
c. Information supplied is false
d. Records are missing
12. Providing incomplete, misleading or false information is a ground for complaint under:
a. Section 18(1)(c)
b. Section 18(1)(d)
c. Section 18(1)(e)
d. Section 18(1)(f)
13. The residual clause permitting complaints in respect of any other matter relating to access to reco ds is contained in:
a. Section 18(1)(d)
b. Section 18(1)(e)
c. Section 18(1)(f)
d. Section 18(2)
14. Before initiating an inquiry under Section 18(2), the Information Commission must be satisfied that:
a. The complaint involves public interest
b. The applicant has exhausted appellate remedies
c. There are reasonable grounds to inquire into the matter
d. The complaint is supported by documentary evidence
15. While conducting an inquiry under Section 18, the Information Commission enjoys the same powers as:
a. A High Court under Article 226
b. A civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. A Sessions Court
d. An appellate authority under Section 19
16. The power to summon and enforce attendance of persons and compel them to give evidence on oath is provided under:
a. Section 18(3)(a)
b. Section 18(3)(b)
c. Section 18(3)(c)
d. Section 18(4)
17. Requiring discovery and inspection of documents during inquiry is a power conferred under:
a. Section 18(3)(a)
b. Section 18(3)(b)
c. Section 18(3)(d)
d. Section 18(3)(f)
18. The power to receive evidence on affidavit is provided under:
a. Section 18(3)(b)
b. Section 18(3)(c)
c. Section 18(3)(e)
d. Section 18(4)
19. Under Section 18(3)(d), the Information Commission may requisition public records from:
a. Only executive offices
b. Only public authorities under the Act
c. Any court or office
d. Only subordinate courts
20. Section 18(4) empowers the Information Commission to examine any record during inquiry notwithstanding:
a. Orders of the State Government
b. Rules framed under the Act
c. Anything inconsistent contained in any other law
d. Judicial precedents
21. During an inquiry under Section 18, no record under the control of a public authority may be withheld from the Information Commission on any ground due to:
a. Section 18(2)
b. Section 18(3)
c. Section 18(4)
d. Section 19(8)
22. Any person who does not receive a decision within the time specified under Section 7(1) or Section 7(3)(a) may prefer an appeal under Section 19(1) within:
a. Fifteen days from the date of application
b. Thirty days from the expiry of the prescribed period
c. Sixty days from the date of application
d. Ninety days from the expiry of the prescribed period
23. An appeal under Section 19(1) lies against which of the following decisions?
a. Decision of the First Appellate Authority
b. Decision of the Information Commission
c. Decision of the Central or State Public Information Officer
d. Decision of the Governor
24. The first appeal under Section 19(1) shall be preferred to:
a. The Information Commission
b. The High Court
c. An officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer in the same public authority
d. The State Government
25. The time limit for filing a first appeal under Section 19(1) is calculated from:
a. The date of filing the RTI application
b. The date of refusal only
c. The expiry of the prescribed period or receipt of decision
d. The date of knowledge of denial
26. The proviso to Section 19(1) empowers the appellate authority to admit an appeal after thirty days if:
a. Public interest is involved
b. The appeal raises a question of law
c. Sufficient cause for delay is shown
d. Delay does not exceed ninety days
27. An appeal against an order passed under Section 11 relating to disclosure of third-party information shall be filed by the third party within:
a. Fifteen days from the date of knowledge
b. Thirty days from the date of the order
c. Sixty days from the date of disclosure
d. Ninety days from the date of order
28. Section 19(2) specifically deals with appeals filed by:
a. Applicants whose request is rejected
b. Public authorities
c. Third parties affected by disclosure under Section 11
d. Information Commissioners
29. A second appeal under Section 19(3) shall lie to:
a. The High Court
b. The State Government
c. The Central or State Information Commission
d. The Supreme Court
30. The limitation period for filing a second appeal under Section 19(3) is:
a. Thirty days
b. Sixty days
c. Ninety days
d. One hundred and twenty days
31. The ninety-day period for filing a second appeal is computed from:
a. The date of filing the RTI application
b. The date on which the first appeal was filed
c. The date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received
d. The date of rejection by the PIO
32. The proviso to Section 19(3) permits the Information Commission to admit a second appeal after ninety days if:
a. The delay is less than one year
b. The matter involves fundamental rights
c. Sufficient cause for delay is established
d. The appeal is supported by affidavit
33. Where the appeal relates to information of a third party, Section 19(4) mandates that:
a. The appeal must be dismissed
b. The third party must be impleaded compulsorily
c. A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given to the third party
d. The information shall not be disclosed under any circumstances
34. The obligation to hear the third party under Section 19(4) lies upon:
a. The Public Information Officer
b. The First Appellate Authority
c. The Central or State Information Commission
d. The concerned Ministry
35. In appeal proceedings under Section 19, the burden of proving that denial of information was justified lies on:
a. The appellant
b. The third party
c. The Public Information Officer who denied the request
d. The appellate authority
36. Section 19(5) incorporates which important principle of administrative law?
a. Audi alteram partem
b. Res judicata
c. Reversal of burden of proof
d. Delegatus non potest delegare
37. The reversal of burden of proof under Section 19(5) applies specifically in:
a. All complaint proceedings
b. Only criminal prosecutions
c. Appeal proceedings under the RTI Act
d. Judicial review proceedings
38. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 19 of the RTI Act?
a. Appeal is mandatory before filing a complaint
b. Appeal and complaint are interchangeable remedies
c. Section 19 provides a two-tier appellate mechanism
d. Second appeal lies directly to the High Court
39. An appeal under Section 19(1) or 19(2) shall ordinarily be disposed of within:
a. Fifteen days from receipt of appeal
b. Thirty days from receipt of appeal
c. Forty-five days from filing of appeal
d. Sixty days from filing of appeal
40. The maximum extended period for disposal of an appeal under Section 19(6) shall not exceed:
a. Thirty days from receipt
b. Forty days from filing
c. Forty-five days from the date of filing
d. Ninety days from receipt
41. Extension of time beyond thirty days for disposal of an appeal under Section 19(6) is permissible only if:
a. Public interest so demands
b. The appellant consents
c. Reasons are recorded in writing
d. The Commission grants permission
42. Section 19(6) applies to appeals filed under which provisions?
a. Only Section 19(1)
b. Only Section 19(3)
c. Section 19(1) and Section 19(2)
d. Section 18 only
43. The decision of which authority is declared binding under Section 19(7)?
a. First Appellate Authority
b. Public Information Officer
c. Central or State Information Commission
d. High Court
44. The binding nature of decisions under Section 19(7) applies to:
a. Only public authorities
b. Only appellants
c. Both the complainant and the public authority
d. Only subordinate officers
45. Under Section 19(8)(a), the Information Commission may require a public authority to:
a. Amend the RTI Act
b. Secure compliance with the provisions of the Act
c. Frame new service rules
d. Grant automatic compensation
46. Which of the following is NOT a step expressly mentioned under Section 19(8)(a) for securing compliance?
a. Providing information in a particular form
b. Appointing a Public Information Officer
c. Prosecuting defaulting officials
d. Publishing certain information or categories of information
47. The power to direct appointment of a Central or State Public Information Officer is provided under:
a. Section 19(7)
b. Section 19(8)(a)(ii)
c. Section 19(8)(b)
d. Section 20
48. Requiring changes in practices relating to maintenance, management and destruction of records falls under:
a. Section 19(8)(a)(iv)
b. Section 4(1)(a)
c. Section 18(3)
d. Section 20(1)
49. Enhancing training on the right to information for officials is a power expressly provided under:
a. Section 19(8)(a)(v)
b. Section 19(9)
c. Section 4(2)
d. Section 25
50. Requiring a public authority to provide an annual report in compliance with Section 4(1)(b) is traceable to:
a. Section 19(8)(a)(vi)
b. Section 19(8)(b)
c. Section 25(3)
d. Section 7(9)
51. The power to direct compensation for loss or detriment suffered is provided under:
a. Section 19(7)
b. Section 19(8)(b)
c. Section 20(2)
d. Section 18(1)
52. Imposition of penalties by the Information Commission during appeal proceedings is authorised under:
a. Section 19(6)
b. Section 19(8)(c)
c. Section 19(9)
d. Section 25
53. Which of the following is expressly listed as a power of the Information Commission under Section 19(8)?
a. Granting interim relief
b. Rejecting the application
c. Reviewing its own decision
d. Issuing contempt proceedings
54. Notice of the decision of the Information Commission must be given under Section 19(9) to:
a. Only the complainant
b. Only the public authority
c. Both the complainant and the public authority
d. The State Government
55. The notice under Section 19(9) must include:
a. Reasons for delay only
b. Findings on facts only
c. Any right of appeal
d. Quantum of penalty only
56. The procedure for deciding appeals under Section 19(10) shall be:
a. As laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure
b. As decided by the Information Commissioner
c. As may be prescribed
d. As framed by the State Government
57. Section 19(10) confers procedural flexibility on the Information Commission subject to:
a. Judicial precedents
b. Principles of natural justice alone
c. The procedure prescribed under the Act
d. Approval of the High Court
58. Which sub-section of Section 19 most comprehensively empowers the Information Commission to grant substantive relief?
a. Sub-section (6)
b. Sub-section (7)
c. Sub-section (8)
d. Sub-section (10)
59. Under Section 20(1), penalty may be imposed by the Information Commission at the time of deciding:
a. Only an appeal
b. Only a complaint
c. Both a complaint or an appeal
d. Only second appeals
60. Penalty under Section 20(1) can be imposed on:
a. Any public authority
b. Head of the department
c. Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer
d. First Appellate Authority
61. Refusal to receive an application for information without reasonable cause attracts penalty under:
a. Section 18
b. Section 19
c. Section 20(1)
d. Section 7(9)
62. Failure to furnish information within the time specified under Section 7(1) may lead to:
a. Only warning
b. Only compensation
c. Penalty under Section 20(1)
d. Automatic dismissal
63. Which of the following mental states is expressly mentioned under Section 20(1)?
a. Negligently
b. Accidentally
c. Malafidely
d. Carelessly
64. Knowingly giving incorrect, incomplete or misleading information is a ground for:
a. Rejection of RTI application
b. Compensation only
c. Penalty under Section 20(1)
d. Criminal prosecution
65. Destruction of information which was the subject of the request attracts penalty under:
a. Section 19(8)
b. Section 20(1)
c. Section 20(2) only
d. Section 18(3)
66. Obstructing in any manner in furnishing information is:
a. Not covered under Section 20
b. Covered only if repeated
c. A specific ground under Section 20(1)
d. Covered under Section 19 only
67. The rate of penalty prescribed under Section 20(1) is:
a. ₹100 per day
b. ₹200 per day
c. ₹250 per day
d. ₹500 per day
68. Penalty of ₹250 per day continues till:
a. Final disposal of appeal
b. Inquiry is completed
c. Application is received or information is furnished
d. Maximum penalty is reached
69. The maximum penalty that can be imposed under Section 20(1) is:
a. ₹10,000
b. ₹20,000
c. ₹25,000
d. No upper limit
70. Before imposing any penalty under Section 20(1), the PIO must be given:
a. A written warning
b. An opportunity to file written submissions
c. A reasonable opportunity of being heard
d. Approval of the Government
71. The burden of proving that he acted reasonably and diligently lies on:
a. The complainant
b. The appellant
c. The Information Commission
d. The PIO
72. Section 20(1) reverses the normal rule of burden of proof by placing it on:
a. The Information Commission
b. The public authority
c. The Central/State PIO
d. The First Appellate Authority
73. Under Section 20(2), disciplinary action may be recommended if the PIO has:
a. Failed once to furnish information
b. Acted negligently
c. Persistently failed without reasonable cause
d. Committed any error
74. Recommendation for disciplinary action under Section 20(2) is made:
a. Directly to the High Court
b. Under service rules applicable to the PIO
c. Under IPC provisions
d. Under contempt jurisdiction
75. Which additional requirement distinguishes Section 20(2) from Section 20(1)?
a. Malafide intent
b. Monetary loss
c. Persistent failure
d. Prior warning
76. The power under Section 20(2) is:
a. Mandatory disciplinary action
b. Advisory in nature
c. A recommendation for disciplinary action
d. Judicial punishment
77. Section 20(2) can be invoked at the time of deciding:
a. Only complaints
b. Only appeals
c. Complaints or appeals
d. Only second appeals
78. Which of the following actions can be taken simultaneously under the RTI Act?
a. Penalty and compensation
b. Penalty and disciplinary recommendation
c. Compensation and disciplinary recommendation
d. All of the above
79. Penalty under Section 20 is imposed by:
a. First Appellate Authority
b. Central or State Government
c. Central or State Information Commission
d. Public Authority
80. Section 20 is primarily intended to ensure:
a. Speedy disposal of appeals
b. Transparency and accountability of PIOs
c. Judicial review
d. Confidentiality of records
81. Section 21 of the RTI Act provides protection against:
a. Departmental inquiry
b. Contempt proceedings
c. Suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding
d. Appeal and revision
82. Protection under Section 21 is available to:
a. Only Public Information Officers
b. Only Information Commissioners
c. Any person
d. Only public authorities
83. The phrase “any person” under Section 21 includes:
a. Only government servants
b. Only statutory authorities
c. Any individual acting under the Act
d. Only officers appointed under the Act
84. Protection under Section 21 applies when the act is:
a. Lawful
b. Authorised
c. Done in good faith
d. Done with permission
85. Which of the following mental elements is crucial for invoking Section 21?
a. Intention
b. Knowledge
c. Negligence
d. Good faith
86. Section 21 protects acts which are:
a. Done under written orders
b. Done under this Act or rules made thereunder
c. Done under executive instructions
d. Done under any law
87. Section 22 of the RTI Act gives overriding effect to:
a. Rules framed under the Act
b. Constitutional provisions
c. Provisions of the RTI Act
d. Orders of Information Commissions
88. The RTI Act overrides which of the following Acts expressly mentioned in Section 22?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Evidence Act, 1872
c. Official Secrets Act, 1923
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
89. Section 22 begins with which legislative expression?
a. Subject to the Constitution
b. Without prejudice to other laws
c. Notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith
d. Save as otherwise provided
90. The phrase “notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith” indicates:
a. Conditional application
b. Harmonious construction
c. Overriding supremacy
d. Partial exclusion
91. Section 22 overrides inconsistency contained in:
a. Only the Official Secrets Act, 1923
b. Only Central laws
c. Any other law for the time being in force
d. Only subordinate legislation
92. Apart from laws, Section 22 also overrides inconsistency in:
a. Executive instructions
b. Judicial precedents
c. Any instrument having effect by virtue of any law
d. Parliamentary debates
93. “Instrument having effect by virtue of any law” would include:
a. Administrative circulars only
b. Contracts, notifications, rules, or orders
c. Judicial judgments
d. Political manifestos
94. The overriding effect under Section 22 applies when there is:
a. Any difference
b. Conflict
c. Inconsistency
d. Ambiguity
95. If disclosure is barred under the Official Secrets Act but permitted under RTI Act, then:
a. Official Secrets Act will prevail
b. Both Acts apply simultaneously
c. RTI Act will prevail
d. Matter goes to Supreme Court
96. Section 22 reflects which legal principle?
a. Lex posterior derogat priori
b. Ejusdem generis
c. Expressio unius est exclusio alterius
d. Delegatus non potest delegare
97. The overriding clause in Section 22 is an example of:
a. Saving clause
b. Ouster clause
c. Non obstante clause
d. Delegation clause
98. Section 23 of the RTI Act bars the jurisdiction of:
a. Information Commissions
b. High Courts only
c. All courts
d. Civil courts only
99. Under Section 23, no court shall entertain:
a. Only suits
b. Only writ petitions
c. Suit, application or other proceeding
d. Only civil appeals
100. The bar under Section 23 applies in respect of:
a. Any administrative action
b. Any order made under the RTI Act
c. Any policy decision
d. Any recommendation of the Commission
101. An order made under the RTI Act can be challenged only by:
a. Filing a civil suit
b. Writ petition under Article 226
c. Criminal complaint
d. Appeal under the RTI Act
102. Section 23 expressly prohibits calling an RTI order in question:
a. Before any authority
b. Before courts except Supreme Court
c. Otherwise than by way of an appeal under the Act
d. Only before civil courts
103. Section 24 primarily deals with:
a. Exemptions relating to personal information
b. Bar of jurisdiction of courts
c. Non-applicability of RTI Act to certain organisations
d. Powers of Information Commissions
104. The RTI Act does NOT apply to which organisations under Section 24(1)?
a. All autonomous bodies
b. Intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule
c. NGOs receiving government aid
d. Public sector undertakings
105. The organisations exempted under Section 24(1) must be established by:
a. State Government only
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. Any statutory authority
106. Information furnished by exempt intelligence organisations to the Central Government is:
a. Always disclosable
b. Partially disclosable
c. Also exempt from the RTI Act
d. Disclosable after 30 days
107. Which type of information is NOT excluded despite Section 24(1)?
a. National security information
b. Cabinet papers
c. Allegations of corruption
d. Trade secrets
108. Information relating to allegations of human rights violations under Section 24(1):
a. Is absolutely exempt
b. Can never be disclosed
c. Requires approval of Central Information Commission
d. Requires approval of Parliament
109. The time limit for providing information relating to human rights violations under Section 24 is:
a. 30 days
b. 48 hours
c. 40 days
d. 45 days
110. The special time limit of 45 days under Section 24 applies notwithstanding:
a. Section 8
b. Section 22
c. Section 7
d. Section 23
111. Which Schedule of the RTI Act lists exempt intelligence and security organisations?
a. First Schedule
b. Second Schedule
c. Third Schedule
d. Fourth Schedule
112. The power to amend the Second Schedule under Section 24(2) vests with:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Information Commission
d. Central Government
113. Amendment of the Second Schedule under Section 24(2) is done by:
a. Ordinance
b. Executive order
c. Notification in Official Gazette
d. Judicial direction
114. Once a notification under Section 24(2) is published, the organisation shall be:
a. Provisionally included
b. Deemed included or omitted from the Schedule
c. Included after parliamentary approval
d. Included after 90 days
115. Every notification issued under Section 24(2) must be laid before:
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Information Commission
c. President
d. Each House of Parliament
116. Section 24(4) empowers which authority to exempt State intelligence organisations?
a. Central Government
b. State Information Commission
c. State Government
d. Governor
117. State intelligence organisations can be exempted by:
a. Rules
b. Ordinance
c. Notification in Official Gazette
d. Executive instructions
118. The exception relating to corruption under Section 24(4) applies to:
a. Only Central organisations
b. Only private bodies
c. State intelligence organisations also
d. NGOs
119. Approval for disclosure of human rights violation information by State intelligence organisations must be taken from:
a. Central Information Commission
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. State Information Commission
120. The time limit for disclosure of human rights violation information by State intelligence organisations is:
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. No time limit
121. Notifications issued under Section 24(4) must be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. State Information Commission
d. State Legislature
122. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 24 provides absolute exemption without exceptions
b. Allegations of corruption are always exempt
c. Human rights violation information requires Commission approval
d. Section 24 overrides Section 22
123. Section 24 strikes a balance between:
a. Transparency and judicial review
b. National security and public accountability
c. Privacy and freedom of speech
d. Federalism and separation of powers
124. The phrase “Nothing contained in this Act shall apply” under Section 24 signifies:
a. Partial exemption
b. Conditional exemption
c. General exclusion subject to provisos
d. Temporary exclusion
125. Which authority finally decides disclosure of human rights information relating to Central intelligence agencies?
a. Central Government
b. Parliament
c. Central Information Commission
d. Supreme Court
126. Section 24 creates an exemption that is:
a. Blanket and absolute
b. Conditional and proviso-based
c. Judicially controlled only
d. Time-bound
127. Section 24 is an exception to the general right provided under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 6
128. Section 25 of the RTI Act deals with:
a. Powers of Information Commission
b. Monitoring and reporting of implementation of the Act
c. Appeals and penalties
d. Bar of jurisdiction
129. Under Section 25(1), which authority is required to prepare an annual report on the implementation of the RTI Act?
a. Appropriate Government
b. Public Authorities
c. Central Information Commission or State Information Commission
d. Parliament
130. The annual report under Section 25(1) is prepared:
a. Before the beginning of each year
b. At the discretion of the Government
c. As soon as practicable after the end of each year
d. Every five years
131. The annual report prepared under Section 25(1) is forwarded to:
a. Parliament only
b. Supreme Court
c. Appropriate Government
d. Comptroller and Auditor General
132. Under Section 25(2), which bodies are responsible for collecting and providing information for preparation of the report?
a. Central and State Governments
b. Each Ministry or Department
c. Information Commissions
d. Public Authorities directly
133. Ministries or Departments collect information under Section 25(2) in relation to:
a. All public authorities in India
b. Only Central public authorities
c. Public authorities within their jurisdiction
d. Private bodies
134. The information collected under Section 25(2) is provided to:
a. Parliament
b. Appropriate Government
c. Central or State Information Commission
d. High Court
135. Section 25(2) also requires Ministries and Departments to comply with requirements relating to:
a. Confidentiality
b. Appeals
c. Furnishing of information and keeping of records
d. Penalties
136. Under Section 25(3)(a), the annual report must state:
a. Number of appeals allowed
b. Number of requests made to each public authority
c. Number of penalties imposed
d. Number of exemptions claimed
137. Section 25(3)(b) requires reporting of:
a. Only rejected applications
b. Only accepted applications
c. Decisions denying access, relevant provisions, and frequency of invocation
d. Recommendations for reform
138. Which of the following is NOT required to be stated under Section 25(3)(b)?
a. Number of decisions denying access
b. Provisions under which denial was made
c. Number of times provisions were invoked
d. Names of applicants
139. Section 25(3)(c) relates to reporting of:
a. Penalties imposed
b. Appeals, their nature, and outcome
c. Disciplinary proceedings
d. Charges collected
140. The phrase “nature of appeals” under Section 25(3)(c) refers to:
a. Criminal or civil appeals
b. First or second appeals
c. Subject-matter and grounds of appeals
d. Appeals filed by government
141. Section 25(3)(d) mandates reporting of:
a. Compensation awarded
b. Transfers of officers
c. Disciplinary action taken against officers
d. Judicial review proceedings
142. Under Section 25(3)(e), the report must mention:
a. Fees prescribed
b. Amount of charges collected by each public authority
c. Penalties imposed
d. Budget allocation
143. Section 25(3)(f) requires inclusion of:
a. Statistical data only
b. Judicial precedents
c. Facts indicating effort to implement the spirit and intention of the Act
d. International best practices
144. Which clause of Section 25(3) deals with recommendations for reform?
a. Clause (d)
b. Clause (e)
c. Clause (f)
d. Clause (g)
145. Recommendations under Section 25(3)(g) may relate to:
a. Only amendment of the RTI Act
b. Development, improvement, modernisation or reform of public authorities
c. Appointment of Information Commissioners
d. Judicial review mechanism
146. Section 25(3)(g) also permits recommendations for amendment to:
a. Constitution
b. RTI Rules only
c. This Act or other legislation
d. Official Secrets Act only
147. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 25?
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural provision
c. Accountability and transparency mechanism
d. Jurisdictional bar
148. Section 25 strengthens the RTI framework primarily by:
a. Imposing penalties
b. Providing appellate remedies
c. Ensuring institutional monitoring and evaluation
d. Granting exemptions
149. Failure of Ministries to supply information under Section 25(2) would directly affect:
a. Appeals process
b. Preparation of annual RTI implementation report
c. Penalty proceedings
d. Judicial review
150. Section 25 applies to:
a. Only Central Information Commission
b. Only State Information Commissions
c. Both Central and State Information Commissions
d. Only appropriate Governments
151. The report under Section 25 serves as a tool for:
a. Criminal prosecution
b. Legislative oversight and policy reform
c. Judicial enforcement
d. Personal grievance redressal
152. Section 25 complements which core provision of the RTI Act?
a. Section 3 – Right to information
b. Section 8 – Exemptions
c. Section 19 – Appeals
d. Section 20 – Penalties
153. Under Section 25(4), who is responsible for causing the annual report of the Information Commission to be laid before the Legislature?
a. Central Information Commission
b. State Information Commission
c. Central Government or State Government, as the case may be
d. Speaker of the House
154. The report referred to in Section 25(4) is the report prepared under:
a. Section 24
b. Section 25(1)
c. Section 19
d. Section 20
155. The obligation under Section 25(4) must be fulfilled:
a. Immediately
b. Before the beginning of the next year
c. As soon as practicable after the end of each year
d. Within ninety days
156. Where a State Legislature consists of two Houses, the report under Section 25(4) shall be laid:
a. Before the Legislative Assembly only
b. Before the Legislative Council only
c. Before each House of the State Legislature
d. Before the Governor
157. In a State having a unicameral legislature, the report under Section 25(4) shall be laid before:
a. The Governor
b. The High Court
c. That one House of the State Legislature
d. The Chief Minister
158. Section 25(4) primarily reflects which constitutional principle?
a. Separation of powers
b. Federal supremacy
c. Legislative oversight over executive action
d. Judicial review
159. Failure to lay the report under Section 25(4) would undermine:
a. Penalty mechanism
b. Right to appeal
c. Parliamentary or legislative accountability
d. Exemption provisions
160. Under Section 25(5), who may issue recommendations to a public authority for non-conforming practices?
a. Appropriate Government
b. Parliament
c. Central or State Information Commission
d. High Court
161. Section 25(5) can be invoked when the practice of a public authority does NOT conform with:
a. Only the provisions of the Act
b. Only the rules framed under the Act
c. The provisions or the spirit of the Act
d. Judicial precedents
162. The phrase “spirit of this Act” in Section 25(5) primarily refers to:
a. Penal consequences
b. Strict procedural compliance
c. Transparency and accountability objectives
d. Confidentiality obligations
163. Recommendations under Section 25(5) are issued for the purpose of:
a. Imposing penalties
b. Awarding compensation
c. Promoting conformity with the Act
d. Initiating disciplinary proceedings
164. Recommendations under Section 25(5) must specify:
a. Penalty amount
b. Steps which ought to be taken by the authority
c. Time-limit for compliance only
d. Names of defaulting officers
165. The power under Section 25(5) is best described as:
a. Adjudicatory
b. Penal
c. Corrective and advisory
d. Mandatory enforcement
166. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Section 25(5)?
a. It mandates disciplinary action
b. It authorises imposition of fine
c. It allows issuance of non-binding recommendations
d. It bars judicial review
167. Section 25(5) strengthens the RTI regime by:
a. Expanding exemptions
b. Ensuring proactive institutional compliance
c. Reducing workload of Information Commissions
d. Limiting discretion of public authorities
168. The primary purpose of educational programmes under Section 26(1)(a) is to:
a. File appeals before Information Commissions
b. Advance public understanding of rights under the Act
c. Outline grounds for rejection of information
d. Explain penalty provisions under the Act
169. The educational programmes under Section 26(1)(a) must particularly focus on:
a. Government officers
b. Judicial officers
c. Disadvantaged communities
d. Media organisations
170. Under Section 26(1)(b), public authorities may:
a. Only provide financial assistance
b. Be encouraged to participate in programmes and undertake them themselves
c. Act solely as facilitators
d. Be bound by judicial directions
171. Section 26(1)(c) requires the appropriate Government to promote:
a. Confidential handling of official records
b. Timely and effective dissemination of accurate information
c. Judicial supervision over public authorities
d. Centralisation of information
172. The dissemination of information under Section 26(1)(c) relates to:
a. Legislative proceedings
b. Activities of public authorities
c. Private organisations
d. Internal disciplinary matters
173. Under Section 26(1)(d), the appropriate Government is empowered to train:
a. Judges
b. Members of Information Commissions
c. Central and State Public Information Officers
d. Ministers and legislators
174. Section 26(1)(d) also allows the appropriate Government to:
a. Appoint Public Information Officers
b. Produce relevant training materials
c. Frame service rules
d. Grant compensation to applicants
175. Section 26(2) requires the Government to compile a guide within:
a. 6 months from commencement of the Act
b. 1 year from commencement of the Act
c. 18 months from commencement of the Act
d. 2 years from commencement of the Act
176. The guide compiled under Section 26(2) must be in:
a. English only
b. Hindi only
c. The official language of the appropriate Government
d. Any language prescribed by rules
177. The guide under Section 26(2) must contain information that is:
a. Exhaustively covering all case laws
b. Reasonably required by a person wishing to exercise rights under the Act
c. Limited to procedural rules only
d. Prescribed by Parliament
178. The information in the guide must be presented in a manner that is:
a. Technical and detailed
b. Judicially interpretative
c. Easily comprehensible
d. Strictly statutory
179. According to Section 26(3), the appropriate Government shall update and publish guidelines:
a. Once every ten years
b. Only when requested by citizens
c. At regular intervals, if necessary
d. Only after parliamentary approval
180. The guidelines under Section 26(3)(a) must include:
a. The history of the Right to Information Act
b. The objects of the Act
c. Names of all officers in public authorities
d. Details of ongoing investigations
181. Section 26(3)(b) requires the guidelines to include the contact information of:
a. Judges of High Courts
b. Ministers of the State and Central Governments
c. Central and State Public Information Officers of every public authority
d. The President of India
182. Which of the following is NOT mentioned under Section 26(3)(b) for inclusion in the guidelines?
a. Postal and street address
b. Phone and fax number
c. Social media handles
d. Electronic mail address (if available)
183. Section 26(3)(c) specifies that the guidelines must include:
a. The historical background of the RTI Act
b. The manner and form in which requests for information shall be made
c. All penalties under the Act
d. Judicial interpretations of the Act
184. Section 26(3)(d) requires the guidelines to include:
a. Duties and assistance provided by the Central/State Public Information Officer
b. Procedures for impeachment of officers
c. Punishments for misuse of information
d. Guidelines for media reporting
185. Section 26(3)(e) states that the guidelines must include:
a. Assistance available from the Supreme Court
b. Assistance available from the Central or State Information Commission
c. Assistance available from local police authorities
d. Assistance available from the Ministry of Home Affairs
186. Section 26(3)(f) requires inclusion of:
a. Historical development of public authorities
b. All remedies in law available regarding acts or failures under the Act, including appeals to the Commission
c. Names of all Central ministers
d. Guidelines for media publications
187. Voluntary disclosure of categories of records in the guidelines is covered under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 4
c. Section 7
d. Section 12
188. Section 26(3)(h) mandates that the guidelines include:
a. Notices regarding penalties for public authorities
b. Notices regarding fees to be paid in relation to requests for access to information
c. Notices regarding judicial proceedings
d. Notices regarding elections
189. Section 26(3)(i) allows the guidelines to include:
a. Additional regulations or circulars related to obtaining access to information under the Act
b. Personal information of officers
c. Secret government files
d. Only annual reports of public authorities
190. Section 26(4) emphasizes that the appropriate Government must:
a. Only issue the guidelines once
b. Update and publish the guidelines at regular intervals if necessary
c. Send guidelines only to Parliament
d. Submit guidelines to courts for approval
191. Who has the power to make rules to carry out the provisions of the RTI Act?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court
c. The appropriate Government, by notification in the Official Gazette
d. The Central Information Commission
192. Section 27(2) allows the rules to provide for all or any of the following matters, without prejudice to the generality of the rule-making power. Which of the following is included?
a. The manner of elections of the Parliament
b. The cost of the medium or print cost price of materials disseminated under Section 4(4)
c. Criminal prosecution procedures
d. Appointment of judges
193. Which section governs the fee payable under rules made by the appropriate Government?
a. Section 4
b. Section 6(1)
c. Section 12
d. Section 24
194. The rules may specify the fee payable under which subsections of Section 7?
a. Sub-sections (1) and (5)
b. Sub-section (2) only
c. Sub-section (3) only
d. Sub-sections (6) and (7)
195. Section 27(2)(ca) allows the rules to specify:
a. Term of office of Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners under Section 13
b. Number of public authorities in India
c. Penalties for applicants
d. Duration of public hearings
196. Section 27(2)(cb) allows rules regarding:
a. Publication of annual reports
b. Salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of Chief/State Information Commissioners
c. Filing of RTI requests by citizens
d. Election procedures
197. Section 27(2)(d) covers:
a. Judicial review of RTI orders
b. Salaries and allowances of officers and employees under Sections 13(6) and 16(6)
c. Guidelines for media reporting
d. Conduct of intelligence agencies
198. Section 27(2)(e) empowers the appropriate Government to make rules for:
a. Appointment of judges in High Courts
b. Procedure adopted by Central or State Information Commission in deciding appeals under Section 19(10)
c. Annual budget of Parliament
d. Election of State Legislatures
199. Section 27(2)(f) allows the rules to cover:
a. Any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed under the Act
b. Constitutional amendments
c. Criminal prosecutions
d. Foreign treaties
200. Who has the power to make rules under Section 28 of the RTI Act?
a. The President of India
b. The Supreme Court
c. The competent authority, by notification in the Official Gazette
d. The Parliament
201. Section 28(2)(i) allows the rules to provide for:
a. Fee for filing appeals with the Information Commission
b. Cost of the medium or print cost price of materials disseminated under Section 4(4)
c. Salaries of officers under Section 13(5)
d. Penalties under Section 20
202. Under Section 28(2)(ii), the rules may specify:
a. Fee payable under Section 6(1)
b. Appointment of Information Commissioners
c. Guidelines for third-party information
d. Procedures for court appeals
203. Section 28(2)(iii) allows rules regarding:
a. Fee payable under Section 7(1)
b. Term of office of Chief Information Commissioner
c. Penalties on public authorities
d. Preparation of annual reports
204. Section 28(2)(iv) gives the competent authority power to make rules about:
a. Any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed under the Act
b. Constitutional amendments
c. Election procedures
d. Judicial appointments
205. Under Section 29(1), every rule made by the Central Government under the Act must be laid before:
a. The Supreme Court
b. The President
c. Each House of Parliament
d. The Election Commission
206. According to Section 29(1), the rules must be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
207. The 30-day period for laying rules may be comprised of:
a. Only one session of Parliament
b. One session or two or more successive sessions
c. Only two successive sessions
d. Any number of sessions without limit
208. If both Houses of Parliament agree to modify a rule or reject it, the rule shall:
a. Continue unchanged
b. Have effect only in the modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be
c. Automatically be invalid
d. Be sent to the Supreme Court for approval
209. Section 29(2) provides that every rule made by a State Government under this Act shall be laid before:
a. The Governor
b. The State High Court
c. The State Legislature
d. The Union Ministry of Law
210. Under Section 30(1), if any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act, who has the power to make provisions to remove it?
a. The Supreme Court
b. The Central Information Commission
c. The Central Government
d. The President
211. Any provision made under Section 30(1) to remove difficulties must be:
a. Consistent with the provisions of the Act
b. Independent of the Act
c. Approved by the Parliament before notification
d. Approved by the State Government
212. According to Section 30(1), within what time limit can the Central Government make orders to remove difficulties?
a. 1 year from commencement of the Act
b. 2 years from commencement of the Act
c. 3 years from commencement of the Act
d. No time limit
213. Under Section 30(2), every order made to remove difficulties shall be laid before:
a. The President
b. Each House of Parliament
c. The Supreme Court
d. The State Legislatures
214. Which Act is repealed by the Right to Information Act, 2005 under Section 31?
a. Official Secrets Act, 1923
b. Freedom of Information Act, 2002
c. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Public Records Act, 1993
215. The repeal under Section 31 takes effect:
a. Immediately from the date of notification of the Right to Information Act, 2005
b. Only after Parliament passes a separate resolution
c. Only after a period of 6 months from the commencement of the Act
d. It depends on the State Government