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1. Which orders are appealable under Section 68-O?
a. Orders under Section 68-I only
b. Orders under Section 68F only
c. Orders under Sections 68F, 68-I, 68K and 68L
d. Only forfeiture orders
2. Tribunal usually sits in benches of:
a. One member
b. Two members
c. Three members
d. Five members
3. If 2-member bench differs:
a. Matter goes to High Court
b. Chairman decides directly
c. Central Government intervenes
d. Referred to third member nominated by Chairman
4. If Chairman post is vacant:
a. Senior-most member automatically acts
b. High Court appoints interim Chairman
c. Central Government nominates a member to act
d. Tribunal ceases to function
5. Tribunal powers include:
a. Regulate procedure
b. Confirm/modify/set aside orders
c. Inspect records on application
d. All of the above
6. Delay condonation allowed up to:
a. 45 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. No condonation
7. Tribunal may pass orders after:
a. Hearing appellant only
b. Based only on record
c. Hearing parties and further inquiry
d. Approval of High Court
8. Under Section 68P, a notice, declaration, or order under the Chapter on illegally acquired property will not be invalid because of:
a. A clerical mistake in the value of the property.
b. An error in the description of the property or person, provided the property or person is identifiable from the description.
c. The property being located outside India.
d. The property being owned by a relative of the person affected.
9. Under Section 68Q, an order passed or declaration made under this Chapter is:
a. Appealable to any civil court.
b. Appealable only as provided under this Chapter.
c. Non-appealable under any circumstances.
d. Appealable only to the Supreme Court.
10. Section 68Q bars civil courts from:
a. Hearing any criminal case under the NDPS Act.
b. Exercising jurisdiction over matters that the Appellate Tribunal or competent authority is empowered to determine under this Chapter.
c. Approving fines under Section 68K.
d. Passing orders related to forfeiture under Section 60.
11. According to Section 68Q, which of the following cannot be granted by any court?
a. Appellate relief against a declaration under this Chapter.
b. Injunction in respect of any action taken or to be taken under powers conferred by this Chapter.
c. Review of findings by the competent authority under Section 68-I.
d. Inspection of records of the Appellate Tribunal.
12. Under Section 68R, the competent authority and Appellate Tribunal shall have powers of:
a. Criminal courts only
b. Civil courts while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Revenue courts only
d. Appellate courts under the Criminal Procedure Code
13. Which of the following powers of a civil court is specifically granted to the competent authority and Appellate Tribunal under Section 68R?
a. Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath
b. Passing criminal sentences
c. Granting anticipatory bail
d. Hearing appeals under the NDPS Act
14. Section 68R empowers the competent authority and Appellate Tribunal to require:
a. Discovery and production of documents
b. Registration of FIRs
c. Police investigations in other states
d. Grant of injunctions in civil courts
15. In addition to summoning persons and requiring documents, Section 68R allows the competent authority and Appellate Tribunal to:
a. Receive evidence on affidavits
b. Refer cases to criminal courts for trial
c. Grant bail to accused persons
d. Conduct cross-border investigations
16. Under Section 68R, the competent authority or Appellate Tribunal can requisition:
a. Any public record or copy thereof from any court or office
b. Private property without notice
c. Foreign bank records directly
d. Criminal investigation reports from the Supreme Court
17. Which power under Section 68R allows the competent authority or Appellate Tribunal to appoint someone to examine witnesses or documents?
a. Issuing commissions
b. Granting stay orders
c. Summoning attendance of relatives
d. Filing FIRs
18. Under Section 68S(1), the competent authority has the power to require information from:
a. Only officers of the Central Government
b. Officers or authorities of the Central Government, State Government, or local authorities
c. Only private individuals
d. Only officers of the State Government
19. The power of the competent authority under Section 68S(1) is subject to:
a. Any other law prevailing over it
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
c. Approval from a court
d. Consent from the person being investigated
20. The competent authority may require information that is:
a. Only about criminal convictions
b. Only financial records of the accused
c. Useful for, or relevant to, the purposes of this Chapter
d. Limited to personal details of officers
21. Section 68S(2) empowers officers referred to in Section 68T to:
a. Ignore requests from the competent authority
b. Furnish suo motu any information available with them
c. Share only information approved by the judiciary
d. Delay furnishing information until a warrant is issued
22. The suo motu information furnished by officers under Section 68S(2) must be:
a. Useful to the competent authority for the purposes of this Chapter
b. Approved by the Appellate Tribunal before submission
c. Limited to information about convicted persons only
d. Confidential and not used in proceedings
23. Section 68T empowers officers to assist which of the following?
a. Only the competent authority
b. Only the Administrator under section 68G
c. The Administrator under section 68G, competent authority, and Appellate Tribunal
d. Only the Appellate Tribunal
24. Which officers are specifically mentioned in Section 68T(a) to assist in proceedings under this Chapter?
a. Officers of the Central Excise Department
b. Officers of the Narcotics Control Bureau
c. Officers of police
d. Officers of the Customs Department
25. Officers of the Customs Department and Central Excise Department are empowered under which clauses of Section 68T?
a. (b) and (c)
b. (d) and (e)
c. (f) and (g)
d. (h) and (i)
26. Officers of the Income-tax Department are included under Section 68T to assist in proceedings. True or False?
a. True
b. False
c. False
27. Officers appointed under the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 are included in Section 68T under which clause?
a. (c)
b. (e)
c. (g)
d. (j)
28. Which of the following are also empowered to assist according to Section 68T(f) and Section 68T(g)?
a. Police officers and Narcotics Department officers
b. Customs officers and Income-tax officers
c. Only officers of Narcotics Control Bureau
d. Central Excise officers and Enforcement officers
29. Officers of the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau and Directorate of Revenue Intelligence are included under which clauses?
a. (h) and (i)
b. (d) and (e)
c. (b) and (c)
d. (f) and (g)
30. Section 68T allows the Central Government to include other officers of the Central or State Government by:
a. Verbal instruction from the Ministry
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Written consent of the Administrator
d. Approval of the Appellate Tribunal
31. The purpose of including officers under Section 68T is to:
a. Assist only in criminal trials under the IPC
b. Assist the Administrator, competent authority, and Appellate Tribunal in proceedings under this Chapter
c. Draft legislation related to narcotic drugs
d. Conduct regular police investigations
32. Under Section 68U(1), who may issue an order to surrender property?
a. Appellate Tribunal
b. Administrator under Section 68G
c. Competent Authority
d. Police officer
33. Section 68U(1) applies when:
a. Property is declared forfeited
b. Fine under Section 68K(1) is not paid
c. Both A and B
d. Only when appeal is dismissed
34. Possession must be surrendered to:
a. Police officer
b. Competent Authority
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Administrator or authorised person
35. Time for compliance is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
36. If surrender is refused, Administrator may:
a. Approach civil court
b. Impose additional fine
c. Use necessary force to take possession
d. Refer to Tribunal
37. Administrator may requisition:
a. Customs officers
b. Income-tax officers
c. Central intelligence officers
d. Police officers
38. Duty of police officer on requisition:
a. Discretionary
b. Subject to Tribunal approval
c. Mandatory compliance
d. Only if authorised by court
39. Who may amend an order under Section 68V?
a. Competent Authority or Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be
b. Only the competent authority
c. Only the Appellate Tribunal
d. Administrator under Section 68G
40. Time limit for rectification:
a. 6 months
b. 2 years
c. 1 year from the date of the order
d. No time limit
41. Amendment under Section 68V is for:
a. Revoking forfeiture
b. Rectifying mistakes apparent from record
c. Imposing penalties
d. Transferring property
42. If amendment is prejudicial:
a. Can be done without notice
b. Requires Tribunal approval
c. Must wait 30 days
d. Opportunity of hearing must be given
43. Section 68W primarily deals with:
a. Powers to seize property
b. Non-conclusiveness of findings under other laws
c. Penalties for non-compliance
d. Appeals against forfeiture
44. A finding under another law is:
a. Always binding
b. Binding with Tribunal approval
c. Conclusive only for immovable property
d. Not conclusive in proceedings under this Chapter
45. Correct position regarding such findings:
a. Conclusive evidence
b. Completely irrelevant
c. Binding unless challenged
d. Not conclusive but may be considered as evidence
46. Primary mode of service under Section 68X:
a. By courier only
b. By email
c. By hand delivery or registered post
d. By newspaper publication
47. If service fails, alternative method:
a. Newspaper publication
b. Sending to police station
c. Affixing at a conspicuous place
d. Sending to bank
48. “Conspicuous place” means:
a. Only entrance
b. Any visible and noticeable part of premises
c. Only inside property
d. Only government board
49. Section 68X applies to:
a. All laws
b. Income Tax Act
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Chapter V-A NDPS proceedings
50. Liability arises when:
a. Accidental acquisition
b. Only original owner acts
c. Only officers involved
d. Knowing acquisition of property under proceedings
51. Punishment includes:
a. Imprisonment up to 2 years
b. Fine only
c. Community service
d. Imprisonment up to 5 years + fine
52. Mode of acquisition:
a. Only purchase punishable
b. Only inheritance punishable
c. Any mode if knowledge exists
d. Gift excluded
53. “Knowingly” implies:
a. Lack of awareness
b. Knowledge of pending proceedings
c. No documentation
d. Acting under orders Q1. Property is released when:
54. Section 68Z(2) applies to:
a. Clauses (a), (b), (cc)
b. Clauses (c), (d)
c. Clauses (e), (f)
d. Clauses (a), (c)
55. Property is released when:
a. Person acquitted/discharged
b. No appeal or appeal disposed
c. Arrest warrant withdrawn
d. All of the above
56. Section 69 protects actions taken:
a. Negligently or in violation of the Act
b. Only after court approval
c. In good faith or intended to be done in good faith
d. Only administrative actions
57. Protection extends to:
a. Only Central Government officers
b. Only State Government officers
c. Only private individuals
d. Central/State Governments, officers, and persons exercising powers
58. Protection applies when action is:
a. With prior permission
b. In good faith under the Act or rules/orders
c. Only administrative
d. Only when prosecution arises
59. Section 70 empowers Governments to:
a. Ignore international conventions
b. Make rules considering international conventions
c. Make rules only in emergencies
d. Apply rules only domestically
60. Relevant conventions include:
a. Only 1961 Convention
b. Only 1971 Convention
c. Only UN-notified conventions
d. 1961 Convention, 1972 Protocol, 1971 Convention and others joined by India
61. Section 70 applies:
a. Only to Central Government
b. Only to State Government
c. To both Central and State Governments
d. Only for punishment-related rules
62. Nature of obligation under Section 70:
a. Mandatory strict compliance
b. Complete discretion without reference
c. Absolute binding requirement
d. To have regard (not strict compliance)
63. Under Section 71 of the NDPS Act, the Government may:
a. Establish centres only for treatment of addicts
b. Establish, recognise, or approve centres for identification, treatment, management, education, after-care, rehabilitation, and social re-integration of addicts
c. Only supply narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances without any rehabilitation functions
d. Delegate all responsibilities to private institutions without supervision
64. The centres established under Section 71 can supply narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances:
a. Only to addicts registered with the Government
b. Only to anyone, without registration, if requested
c. To registered addicts and to others where such supply is a medical necessity
d. Under no circumstances
65. The Government’s power under Section 71 to establish centres is subject to:
a. No restrictions; the Government can act freely
b. Conditions and manner prescribed by the concerned Government
c. Approval only from the Central Government
d. International conventions only
66. True or False: Section 71 allows the Government to approve centres for education and after-care of addicts.
a. True
b. False
c. False
67. Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned as a function of centres under Section 71?
a. Identification of addicts
b. Social re-integration of addicts
c. Issuing penalties for drug offences
d. Rehabilitation
68. Under Section 71(2), the Government may make rules consistent with the Act to provide for:
a. Only the supply of narcotic drugs from centres
b. Establishment, appointment, maintenance, management, and superintendence of centres
c. Appointment, training, powers, duties, and persons employed in centres
d. Both B and C, and also supply of drugs from centres
69. Which of the following is explicitly mentioned in Section 71(2) as something the Government can regulate through rules?
a. The punishment for violation of drug laws in centres
b. Maintenance and management of the centres
c. Judicial powers of officers in centres
d. International treaties relating to narcotic drugs
70. True or False: Section 71(2) allows the Government to make rules regarding training and powers of persons employed in centres.
a. True
b. False
c. False
71. The supply of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances from the centres is governed under Section 71(2) through:
a. Orders issued by police officers
b. Rules made by the Government consistent with the Act
c. Instructions of the Appellate Tribunal
d. Only international conventions
72. Under Section 72(1), if a person owes a licence fee to the Government, the officer may recover it by:
a. Deducting the amount from money owed to the person
b. Attachment and sale of the person’s goods
c. Recovery from the person or his surety as arrears of land revenue
d. All of the above
73. Section 72 allows recovery of sums due under this Act as if they were:
a. Ordinary debts
b. Arrears of land revenue
c. Penalty under the Indian Penal Code
d. Civil dues recoverable by the court
74. When a person gives a bond under this Act for performing or abstaining from an act (other than under Sections 34 & 39), it is deemed to be:
a. A private obligation
b. A public duty under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act
c. A criminal offence
d. Optional compliance
75. On breach of the bond referred to in Section 72(2), the sum specified in the bond:
a. Cannot be recovered
b. Can be recovered only through civil court proceedings
c. Can be recovered from the person or his surety as arrears of land revenue
d. Must be waived by the Government
76. Section 72 does not apply to bonds under which sections?
a. Section 34 and Section 39
b. Section 33 and Section 36
c. Section 40 and Section 41
d. Section 30 and Section 32
77. Under Section 73, a civil court cannot entertain a suit regarding:
a. Refusal to grant a licence for opium poppy cultivation
b. Cancellation of licence for opium poppy cultivation
c. Weighment and classification of opium
d. All of the above
78. Which of the following matters does not fall under the bar of jurisdiction of civil courts under Section 73?
a. Confiscation of adulterated opium
b. Determination of opium quality and price adjustments
c. Granting compensation for loss due to opium confiscation
d. Withholding licence for cultivation of opium poppy
79. Section 73 bars civil court intervention in cases relating to:
a. Weighment and classification of opium including deductions/additions to standard price
b. Criminal prosecution for illicit drug trade
c. Licensing of synthetic narcotic substances
d. Civil disputes between opium traders
80. True or False: Civil courts can entertain proceedings challenging the cancellation of a licence for the cultivation of opium poppy under Section 73.
a. True
b. False
c. False
81. Under Section 73, the confiscation of opium applies specifically to opium:
a. Found to be of inferior quality
b. Found adulterated with any foreign substance
c. Cultivated without a licence
d. Exported without permission
82. The bar of jurisdiction under Section 73 applies to:
a. Officers and authorities under the Act or any rule made thereunder
b. Private traders only
c. State Governments only
d. Police officers investigating narcotic offences
83. Under Section 74, an officer who was performing duties under the previous law before the commencement of this Act shall:
a. Be required to reapply for appointment under this Act
b. Be deemed to have been appointed under this Act to the same post and designation
c. Lose all powers until a fresh appointment is made
d. Be transferred automatically to another department
84. The transitional provision in Section 74 applies to:
a. Officers of the Government only
b. Other employees of the Government only
c. Both officers and other employees of the Government
d. Private contractors performing similar duties
85. True or False: Section 74 allows an officer who was exercising powers under the previous law to continue in a different post after the commencement of this Act.
a. True
b. False
c. False
86. Which of the following is correct regarding the effect of Section 74?
a. Officers are deemed appointed under this Act
b. Their designation and post remain unchanged
c. The provision applies immediately from the commencement of the Act
d. All of the above
87. Section 74 ensures that government officers:
a. Must go through a probation period again under the new Act
b. Retain continuity of their post and designation
c. Are exempt from all responsibilities under this Act
d. Can appeal to civil courts for confirmation
88. Under Section 74A, who has the power to give directions regarding the execution of this Act?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Competent authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
89. The directions issued by the Central Government under Section 74A are meant for:
a. Officers of the Central Government only
b. State Governments regarding the execution of this Act
c. Private organizations dealing with narcotic drugs
d. Local municipal authorities
90. True or False: A State Government may choose to ignore directions issued by the Central Government under Section 74A if it considers them impractical.
a. True
b. False
c. False
91. Which of the following is correct regarding Section 74A?
a. The Central Government may issue directions it deems necessary
b. State Governments are bound to comply with these directions
c. The directions relate to carrying into execution the provisions of the Act
d. All of the above
92. Section 74A empowers the Central Government to:
a. Amend the provisions of the Act unilaterally
b. Direct the State Governments on implementation of the Act
c. Appoint officers in State Governments
d. Issue notifications regarding penalties under the Act
93. Under Section 75, which powers cannot be delegated by the Central or State Government?
a. Powers to issue notifications
b. Powers to make rules under the Act
c. Powers to appoint officers
d. Powers to inspect premises
94. The Central Government may delegate its powers and functions under this Act to:
a. Narcotics Commissioner
b. The Board
c. Any other authority it deems necessary
d. All of the above
95. How is the delegation of powers by the Central or State Government formalized under Section 75?
a. By passing a resolution in Parliament
b. By notification in the Official Gazette
c. By order of the Appellate Tribunal
d. By circular to subordinate authorities
96. True or False: The State Government may delegate its rule-making powers to any officer of the State.
a. True
b. False
c. False
97. The delegation of powers by the Central or State Government may:
a. Have conditions and limitations
b. Be unconditional and unlimited
c. Be effective without notification
d. Be made only to officers of the Central Government
98. Which of the following is not a requirement for delegation under Section 75?
a. Notification in the Official Gazette
b. Specification of conditions or limitations
c. Approval by the Appellate Tribunal
d. Identification of the authority or officer to whom powers are delegated
99. Under Section 76, the Central Government can make rules for:
a. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
b. Punishment of offences under the Act
c. Grant of immunity under Section 64
d. Judicial interpretation of confiscation
100. How are the rules made by the Central Government formalized under Section 76?
a. By notification in the Official Gazette
b. By circular issued to subordinate authorities
c. By order of the Supreme Court
d. By recommendation of the State Government
101. Which of the following is included in the rule-making power of the Central Government under Section 76?
a. Method to calculate percentages for liquid preparations under section 2 clauses (v), (vi), (xiv), (xv)
b. Form of bond to keep the peace under Section 34
c. Manner of “controlled delivery” under Section 50A
d. All of the above
102. True or False: The Central Government can make rules relating to the authority or person who authenticates documents received from outside India.
a. True
b. False
c. False
103. Section 76(2)(da) allows the Central Government to make rules regarding:
a. Management and conditions of properties by the Administrator under Section 68G(2)
b. Judicial review of forfeiture orders
c. Delegation of powers by the State Government
d. Investigation procedures under Section 42
104. Which of the following is not a matter for which rules may be made under Section 76(2)?
a. Form of bond for release of addict convict under Section 39
b. Method of calculating percentages for liquid preparations
c. Appointment of judges for trial under this Act
d. Manner of “controlled delivery” under Section 50A
105. True or False: The power to make rules under Section 76 is subject to the other provisions of this Act.
a. True
b. False
c. False
106. Under Section 76(dc), the Central Government may make rules regarding:
a. Fees for inspection of records and registers of the Appellate Tribunal or obtaining certified copies
b. Powers of the civil court exercised by the Appellate Tribunal
c. Supply of narcotic drugs to addicts
d. Drawing of samples
107. The powers of a civil court that may be exercised by the competent authority and Appellate Tribunal are covered under which sub-clause of Section 76?
a. (dc)
b. (dd)
c. (de)
d. (df)
108. True or False: Section 76(de) allows the Central Government to make rules regarding the disposal of articles or things confiscated under this Act.
a. True
b. False
c. False
109. Which of the following is included under Section 76(df)?
a. Rewards to informers
b. Drawing, testing, and analysis of samples
c. Conditions for supply of drugs to addicts
d. Fees for inspection of Appellate Tribunal records
110. Section 76(dg) empowers the Central Government to make rules regarding:
a. Powers of the competent authority
b. Rewards to officers, informers, and other persons
c. Term of office of Committee members
d. Disposal of confiscated property
111. True or False: Under Section 76(e), rules may be made about the conditions and manner of supply of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances to addicts for medical necessity.
a. True
b. False
c. False
112. Section 76(f) deals with rules regarding:
a. Establishment, management, appointment, and superintendence of centres under Section 71(1), including staff training, powers, and duties
b. Powers of civil courts exercisable by Appellate Tribunal
c. Rewards to informers and officers
d. Disposal of confiscated property
113. Section 76(g) allows the Central Government to make rules about:
a. Term of office, casual vacancies, and allowances of the Chairman and members of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative Committee
b. Drawing and analysis of samples
c. Fees for inspection of Tribunal records
d. Supply of drugs to addicts
114. True or False: Section 76(h) allows the Central Government to make rules on any other matter which is to be, or may be, prescribed.
a. True
b. False
c. False
115. Section 77 requires that every rule made under this Act by the Central Government must be:
a. Published only in the Official Gazette
b. Laid before each House of Parliament for 30 days
c. Approved by the President of India
d. Sent to the Supreme Court for approval
116. Under Section 77, which of the following notifications or orders must also be laid before Parliament?
a. Orders issued under clauses (viia), (xi), (xxiiia) of Section 2
b. Orders under Sections 3, 7A, 9A
c. Orders under clause (a) of Section 27
d. All of the above
117. The 30-day period mentioned in Section 77 for laying rules or notifications before Parliament:
a. Must always be within a single session
b. Can be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions
c. Can be extended indefinitely at the discretion of the Central Government
d. Is optional and discretionary
118. True or False: If both Houses of Parliament agree that a rule or notification should not be made or issued, it will have no effect from the beginning, but past actions under it are invalid.
a. True
b. False
c. False
119. Under Section 77, if both Houses agree to modify a rule/notification before the expiry of the next session, then:
a. The rule/notification is void in entirety
b. The rule/notification will take effect only in modified form
c. The original rule/notification remains unaffected
d. Parliament must re-enact the rule from scratch
120. True or False: Modifications or annulment of a rule/notification under Section 77 invalidate any prior actions taken under that rule/notification.
a. True
b. False
c. False
121. The phrase “as soon as may be” in Section 77 refers to:
a. Laying the rule/notification before Parliament at the earliest possible opportunity
b. Immediately after the rule is drafted, without publication
c. Only at the end of the session
d. Only after one year of issuance
122. Which of the following is not covered under Section 77?
a. Rules made under this Act by the Central Government
b. Notifications under Sections 3, 7A, 9A
c. Orders by the Appellate Tribunal under Section 68-O
d. Notifications under clause (a) of Section 27
123. Under Section 78, the State Government can make rules:
a. Only for enforcement of the Act by police
b. By notification in the Official Gazette, subject to other provisions of this Act
c. Only after approval from the Central Government
d. Only for supply of drugs to hospitals
124. Rules made under Section 78 may provide for:
a. The conditions and manner in which narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances shall be supplied for medical necessity to registered addicts and others
b. Establishment, appointment, maintenance, management, superintendence of centres under Section 71(1) and training of staff
c. Any other matter which is to be, or may be, prescribed
d. All of the above
125. True or False: Every rule made by the State Government under Section 78 must be laid before the State Legislature as soon as may be after it is made.
a. True
b. False
c. False
126. Which of the following is not explicitly mentioned as a matter for State Government rules under Section 78(2)?
a. Supply of narcotic drugs/psychotropic substances to addicts
b. Management of centres established under Section 71(1)
c. Powers of the Appellate Tribunal
d. Any other matter to be prescribed
127. The phrase “as soon as may be” in Section 78(3) refers to:
a. Laying rules before the Legislature at the earliest possible opportunity
b. Only after one month of making the rules
c. Only during the next legislative session
d. Only after publication in the Official Gazette
128. Under Section 78, the State Government’s power to make rules is:
a. Absolute and unrestricted
b. Subject to the other provisions of the Act
c. Limited only to medical supply of drugs
d. Only for administrative purposes
129. Section 79 states that prohibitions and restrictions under this Act on import, export, and transhipment of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances are:
a. Only recommendations for customs authorities
b. Deemed to be prohibitions and restrictions under the Customs Act, 1962
c. Applicable only if specifically notified by the Central Government
d. Not enforceable by Customs authorities
130. The provisions of which Act are applied to the import, export, and transhipment of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances under Section 79?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
c. Customs Act, 1962
d. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
131. True or False: Section 79 prevents prosecution under this Act if an offence is also punishable under the Customs Act, 1962.
a. True
b. False
c. False
132. Which of the following is explicitly mentioned in Section 79 as being covered under prohibitions and restrictions deemed to be under the Customs Act, 1962?
a. Import into India
b. Export from India
c. Transhipment
d. All of the above
133. Section 79 ensures that:
a. Offenders can only be punished under the Customs Act, 1962
b. Offenders can be punished under both the Customs Act and this Act, if applicable
c. No punishment is allowed if the Customs Act applies
d. Punishment is limited to fines only
134. Section 80 provides that the provisions of this Act shall be:
a. Exclusive and override the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
b. In addition to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
c. Applicable only if the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 is not applicable
d. Inconsistent with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
135. True or False: Section 80 bars the application of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 in cases under the NDPS Act.
a. True
b. False
c. False
136. Which of the following is true according to Section 80?
a. The NDPS Act repeals the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
b. The NDPS Act and its rules operate alongside the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
c. The NDPS Act only applies when the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 is silent
d. The NDPS Act takes precedence over the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
137. Section 80 emphasizes that:
a. NDPS Act rules override all other drug laws
b. NDPS Act provisions are supplementary to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
c. NDPS Act provisions are irrelevant if the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 applies
d. NDPS Act and Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 cannot operate together
138. The phrase “not in derogation of” in Section 80 means:
a. This Act nullifies the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
b. This Act adds to, but does not reduce, the scope of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
c. This Act conflicts with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
d. This Act only applies outside the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
139. Section 81 ensures that:
a. State laws conflicting with the NDPS Act are automatically repealed
b. Nothing in the NDPS Act or rules affects the validity of Provincial or State laws in force
c. Only Central laws can override State laws
d. The NDPS Act imposes exclusive restrictions on narcotic drugs
140. According to Section 81, a State Act imposing greater punishment than the NDPS Act for cannabis cultivation or drug trafficking is:
a. Invalid
b. Partially invalid
c. Valid and unaffected by the NDPS Act
d. Only valid if approved by the Central Government
141. Section 81 applies to:
a. Traffic in narcotic drugs only
b. Consumption of narcotic drugs only
c. Cultivation of cannabis plant, consumption of, and traffic in narcotic drugs or psychotropic substances
d. Only trafficking of cannabis
142. True or False: Section 81 allows States to impose punishments not provided for under the NDPS Act.
a. True
b. False
c. False
143. The phrase “not affect the validity of any Provincial Act or an Act of any State Legislature for the time being in force” in Section 81 means:
a. NDPS Act has full supremacy over State laws
b. NDPS Act provisions are subject to existing State laws regarding restrictions or punishments
c. State laws must align with NDPS Act provisions
d. State laws are automatically amended to match NDPS Act
144. Which of the following Acts is repealed by Section 82?
a. Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
b. Opium Act, 1857
c. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
d. Customs Act, 1962
145. Section 82 repeals the following Acts:
a. Opium Act, 1857; Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930 only
b. Opium Act, 1857; Opium Act, 1878; Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930
c. Opium Act, 1857; Narcotic Drugs Act, 1967; Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930
d. Opium Act, 1878 only
146. True or False: Any action taken under the repealed Acts is completely void after repeal.
a. True
b. False
c. False
147. Under Section 82, actions done under the repealed Acts are deemed valid provided that:
a. They are approved by the Central Government
b. They are inconsistent with NDPS Act
c. They are not inconsistent with the provisions of the NDPS Act
d. They are related to cannabis cultivation only
148. The effect of Section 82(2) is to:
a. Nullify all past actions under the repealed Acts
b. Continue the validity of past actions under repealed Acts as if they were done under corresponding provisions of the NDPS Act
c. Automatically punish all offenders under the NDPS Act
d. Require all pending cases under repealed Acts to be retried
149. Under Section 83, who has the power to remove difficulties in giving effect to the NDPS Act?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Competent Authority
150. By what method can the Central Government exercise the power under Section 83?
a. Executive resolution
b. Notification in newspapers
c. Order published in the Official Gazette
d. Approval of the President
151. Orders issued under Section 83:
a. Can be inconsistent with any provisions of the NDPS Act
b. Must be consistent with the NDPS Act
c. Can override the NDPS Act
d. Need approval from the Supreme Court
152. What is the time limit for issuing orders under Section 83 after the NDPS Act receives Presidential assent?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. No time limit
153. After an order under Section 83 is made, it must be:
a. Approved by the President
b. Sent to the High Courts
c. Laid before the Houses of Parliament
d. Published in the Gazette only, no further requirement