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1. Section 68A(2)(e) includes:
a. Legal advisors
b. Associates of specified persons
c. Public servants
d. Witnesses
2. Section 68A(2)(f) applies to:
a. Original property holders
b. Present holders of property previously held by specified persons
c. Government property
d. Confiscated assets only
3. A present holder is excluded if:
a. Property is movable
b. Property is immovable
c. He proves good faith and adequate consideration
d. He is related
4. Section 68B appears under which Chapter of the NDPS Act?
a. Chapter IV
b. Chapter VA
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter VII
5. For the purposes of Chapter VA, “Appellate Tribunal” means the Appellate Tribunal referred to in:
a. Section 68M
b. Section 68N
c. Section 68O
d. Section 68D
6. The definition of “associate” under Section 68B is relevant in relation to:
a. Any accused person under the Act
b. Any public servant
c. A person whose property is liable to be forfeited under Chapter VA
d. Any person arrested under NDPS Act
7. Under Section 68B(b)(i), which of the following qualifies as an “associate”?
a. Any neighbour of the person
b. Any individual residing in the residential premises (including outhouses) of such person
c. Any tenant of the person
d. Any guest visiting the premises
8. An individual who had been or is managing the affairs or keeping the accounts of such person is covered under:
a. Section 68B(b)(i)
b. Section 68B(b)(ii)
c. Section 68B(b)(iii)
d. Section 68B(b)(v)
9. Which of the following entities is covered under Section 68B(b)(iii)?
a. Public company
b. Government company
c. Association of persons, partnership firm or private company where such person is/was a member, partner or director
d. Cooperative society only
10. A person who had been or is a member, partner or director of an entity mentioned in sub-clause (iii), at the same time as the main person, falls under:
a. Section 68B(b)(iii)
b. Section 68B(b)(iv)
c. Section 68B(b)(v)
d. Section 68B(b)(vi)
11. Who is covered under Section 68B(b)(v)?
a. Auditor appointed by court
b. Any person managing affairs or keeping accounts of entities referred in sub-clause (iii)
c. Trustee of a charitable trust
d. Any employee of the firm
12. The trustee of a trust is treated as an “associate” when:
a. The trust is registered
b. The trust has charitable objects
c. The trust is created by such person
d. Either the trust is created by such person OR he has contributed ≥ 20% of trust assets
13. For the purpose of Section 68B(b)(vi)(2), the minimum contribution required by such person to the trust is:
a. 10% of trust assets
b. 15% of trust assets
c. 20% of trust assets
d. 25% of trust assets
14. The value of assets contributed to the trust is assessed with reference to:
a. Date of forfeiture
b. Date of conviction
c. Date on which contribution is made
d. Date of registration of trust
15. Under Section 68B(b)(vii), a person may be treated as an associate if:
a. He is related by blood
b. He holds property jointly
c. Competent authority records reasons that property is held on behalf of such person
d. He is accused in the same case
16. Recording of reasons in writing is mandatory under which sub-clause of Section 68B(b)?
a. Sub-clause (ii)
b. Sub-clause (iv)
c. Sub-clause (vi)
d. Sub-clause (vii)
17. “Competent authority” under Section 68B(c) means:
a. Any police officer above DSP rank
b. Any officer of State Government
c. An officer of Central Government authorised under Section 68D
d. Sessions Judge
18. Which statement is CORRECT regarding the definition of “associate” under Section 68B?
a. It applies only to relatives
b. It excludes business connections
c. It has an exhaustive and wide definition
d. It applies only after conviction
19. Under Section 68B(c), “competent authority” means:
a. Any Gazetted Officer of the Central Government
b. An officer of the State Government notified for NDPS offences
c. An officer of the Central Government authorised under Section 68D
d. Any officer empowered under Section 53
20. The term “concealment” under Section 68B(d) includes which of the following?
a. Mere physical hiding of property
b. Disguise of ownership only
c. Movement or conversion of property by electronic transmission
d. Non-disclosure of income to tax authorities
21. Which of the following is NOT expressly included in the definition of “concealment”?
a. Concealment of source of property
b. Concealment of disposition of property
c. Concealment of movement of property
d. Concealment of possession of property
22. “Freezing” under Section 68B(e) refers to:
a. Permanent confiscation of property
b. Sealing of property by police
c. Temporary prohibition on transfer or movement of property by order under Section 68F
d. Attachment of property after conviction
23. Which of the following actions is covered by the term “freezing”?
a. Sale of property through court auction
b. Temporary prohibition on conversion or disposition of property
c. Destruction of property
d. Vesting of property in the Central Government
24. “Identifying” under Section 68B(f) primarily involves:
a. Physical verification of property
b. Valuation of seized assets
c. Establishing proof that property was derived from or used in illicit traffic
d. Registration of property with authorities
25. The definition of “illegally acquired property” under Section 68B(g) applies in relation to:
a. Any accused person under the Act
b. Any person arrested under NDPS Act
c. Any person to whom Chapter VA applies
d. Any person convicted under the Act
26. Under Section 68B(g)(i), illegally acquired property includes property derived from:
a. Any criminal activity
b. Any offence punishable with imprisonment
c. Contravention of provisions of the NDPS Act
d. Any unlawful source
27. Property acquired before the commencement of Chapter VA can be treated as illegally acquired property if:
a. It was acquired after conviction
b. It was acquired through benami transactions
c. It was wholly or partly derived from contravention of the Act
d. It is immovable property
28. Section 68B(g)(ii) covers property which is:
a. Directly derived from illicit traffic
b. Acquired for consideration traceable to illegally acquired property
c. Acquired as inheritance
d. Acquired through lawful employment
29. Under Section 68B(g)(iii), property is deemed illegally acquired if:
a. Source of income is criminally proved
b. Source of income cannot be proved
c. Property is disproportionate to known sources of income
d. Property is held jointly
30. Clause (iii) of Section 68B(g) was introduced by:
a. NDPS Amendment Act, 2001
b. NDPS Amendment Act, 2004
c. NDPS Amendment Act, 2014
d. NDPS Amendment Act, 2021
31. The concept of “equivalent value of such property” appears in:
a. Clause (i) only
b. Clause (ii) only
c. Clause (iii) only
d. Clauses (i), (ii) and (iii)
32. Property held by a person which was illegally acquired by a previous holder is excluded if:
a. The current holder is a relative
b. The property is immovable
c. The transferee is in good faith for adequate consideration
d. The transfer occurred before commencement of Chapter VA
33. Clause (A) of the inclusive part of Section 68B(g) primarily deals with:
a. Property held benami
b. Property previously held by another person
c. Property acquired after arrest
d. Property seized during investigation
34. Clause (B) of Section 68B(g) includes property which is:
a. Acquired directly from illicit traffic
b. Traceable to property falling under clause (A) or its income
c. Acquired through gift
d. Acquired by succession
35. “Property” under Section 68B(h) includes which of the following?
a. Only movable tangible assets
b. Only immovable property
c. Both corporeal and incorporeal assets
d. Only property located in India
36. Which of the following is expressly included within the definition of “property”?
a. Share certificates only
b. Cash only
c. Deeds and instruments evidencing title or interest
d. Confiscated goods only
37. The definition of “property” under Section 68B(h) applies to assets:
a. Located in India only
b. Located outside India only
c. Wherever located
d. Only seized assets
38. Which statement is MOST accurate regarding “illegally acquired property” under Chapter VA?
a. It applies only post-conviction
b. It excludes property acquired before Chapter VA
c. It includes property with unproved source of income
d. It requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
39. Under Section 68B(i), which of the following persons is a “relative” of the person concerned?
a. Cousin (maternal)
b. Brother of the person
c. Brother-in-law (husband’s brother)
d. Nephew
40. The spouse of which of the following persons is expressly included as a “relative” under Section 68B(i)?
a. Cousin of the person
b. Lineal ascendant of the person
c. Friend of the person
d. Business associate
41. Which of the following relationships is NOT included in the definition of “relative”?
a. Sister of the spouse of the person
b. Lineal descendant of the spouse of the person
c. Lineal descendant of the brother of the person
d. Maternal uncle of the person
42. A nephew (son of the brother) of the person is covered as a “relative” under:
a. Section 68B(i)(4)
b. Section 68B(i)(6)
c. Section 68B(i)(7)
d. Section 68B(i)(2)
43. Which of the following correctly represents a “lineal ascendant” under Section 68B(i)?
a. Brother
b. Sister-in-law
c. Father
d. Cousin
44. The spouse of the sister of the spouse of the person is:
a. Not a relative
b. A relative under Section 68B(i)(6)
c. A relative under Section 68B(i)(7)
d. An associate
45. Which relationship is included ONLY by virtue of Section 68B(i)(7)?
a. Son of the person
b. Daughter of the spouse
c. Grandson of the brother of the person
d. Father-in-law
46. Under the definition of “relative”, which category ensures vertical family linkage?
a. Sub-clauses (2) and (3)
b. Sub-clauses (4) and (5)
c. Sub-clause (6)
d. Sub-clause (7)
47. “Tracing” under Section 68B(j) involves determining all EXCEPT:
a. Nature of property
b. Source of property
c. Title or ownership of property
d. Market value of property
48. The primary purpose of “tracing” is to:
a. Confiscate property
b. Freeze property
c. Establish link between property and illicit traffic
d. Attach property post-conviction
49. “Tracing” is most closely connected to which Chapter VA objective?
a. Punishment
b. Preventive detention
c. Forfeiture of illegally acquired property
d. Search and seizure
50. Under Section 68B(k), the term “trust” includes:
a. Only public charitable trusts
b. Only registered trusts
c. Any other legal obligation
d. Only private family trusts
51. Section 68C(1) becomes operative from:
a. The date of arrest of the person
b. The date of seizure of property
c. The commencement of Chapter VA
d. The date of conviction
52. Section 68C applies to:
a. Any accused under the NDPS Act
b. Any person holding illicit property
c. Any person to whom Chapter VA applies
d. Any person convicted under the Act
53. Under Section 68C(1), holding illegally acquired property is prohibited when it is held:
a. Only directly by the person
b. Only through relatives
c. Either by himself or through any other person on his behalf
d. Only jointly
54. The phrase “through any other person on his behalf” primarily targets:
a. Legal heirs
b. Good-faith transferees
c. Benami or proxy holders
d. Tenants
55. Contravention of Section 68C(1) results in:
a. Automatic criminal conviction
b. Attachment of property only after trial
c. Property being liable to forfeiture to the Central Government
d. Confiscation by State Government
56. Forfeiture under Section 68C(2) must be carried out:
a. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure
b. Under the Indian Evidence Act
c. In accordance with the provisions of Chapter VA
d. By the Magistrate directly
57. The proviso to Section 68C(2) creates an exception based on:
a. Quantity of narcotic drugs
b. Value of property
c. Time of acquisition of property
d. Nature of offence
58. As per the proviso, property shall NOT be forfeited if it was acquired before:
a. Ten years from the date of conviction
b. Six years from the date of arrest or issuance of warrant/authorisation
c. Five years from the date of detention
d. Three years from the date of seizure
59. The six-year period under the proviso is to be calculated from:
a. Date of seizure of property
b. Date of conviction
c. Date of arrest or issuance of warrant/authorisation of arrest
d. Date of filing of complaint
60. Under Section 68D(1), the power to authorise a competent authority vests in:
a. The State Government
b. The Central Government
c. The Appellate Tribunal
d. The Supreme Court
61. Authorisation under Section 68D must be made by:
a. Notification in Official Gazette
b. Administrative instruction
c. Order published in Official Gazette
d. Judicial order
62. Which officer can be authorised as competent authority?
a. District Magistrate
b. Commissioner of Customs/Central Excise
c. Superintendent of Police
d. Judicial Magistrate
63. Which additional officer is expressly eligible?
a. Commissioner of Police
b. Director of Enforcement
c. Commissioner of Income-tax
d. Chief Judicial Magistrate
64. Section 68D also allows authorisation of:
a. State Government officers only
b. Officers of equivalent rank of Central Government
c. Judicial officers
d. Local authority officers
65. Competent authority exercises functions:
a. Across India uniformly
b. Within State limits only
c. Only in commercial quantity cases
d. As per persons/classes specified by Central Government
66. Under Section 68E(1), which officers are empowered to identify illegally acquired property?
a. Only competent authority
b. Any Gazetted Officer
c. Officer empowered under Section 53 and officer-in-charge of a police station
d. Only officers of Customs and Excise
67. Action under Section 68E can be initiated when the officer:
a. Receives a written complaint
b. Is directed by a Magistrate
c. Is satisfied on receipt of information
d. Registers an FIR
68. Before proceeding to trace and identify property under Section 68E(1), the officer must:
a. Obtain prior court approval
b. Inform the State Government
c. Record reasons in writing
d. Register a criminal case
69. Section 68E empowers officers to trace and identify property held by:
a. Any accused under NDPS Act
b. Any person against whom FIR is lodged
c. Any person to whom Chapter VA applies
d. Any relative of an accused
70. Which of the following is NOT included within the scope of “steps” under Section 68E(2)?
a. Inquiry
b. Investigation
c. Survey
d. Arrest of the person
71. Inquiry or investigation under Section 68E(2) may extend to:
a. Only immovable property
b. Only bank accounts
c. Property, assets, documents and books of account
d. Only seized narcotic substances
72. Section 68E expressly permits inquiry into books of account held in:
a. Private companies only
b. Cooperative banks only
c. Any bank or public financial institution
d. Reserve Bank of India only
73. Inquiry, investigation or survey under Section 68E(3) must be conducted:
a. As per CrPC only
b. As per officer’s discretion
c. In accordance with directions of competent authority
d. Only with judicial supervision
74. Which authority issues directions or guidelines governing inquiries under Section 68E?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Competent Authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
75. Power under Section 68F can be exercised by:
a. Competent Authority only
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Officer conducting inquiry or investigation under Section 68E
d. Any Gazetted Officer
76. Before passing an order under Section 68F(1), the officer must have reason to believe that:
a. Property belongs to a convicted person
b. Property is proceeds of crime only
c. Property is illegally acquired and likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with
d. Property exceeds a specified value
77. The primary object of seizure or freezing under Section 68F is to:
a. Punish the offender
b. Facilitate arrest
c. Prevent frustration of forfeiture proceedings
d. Secure evidence for trial
78. Where seizure of property is NOT practicable, the officer may:
a. Refer the matter to the Magistrate
b. Seal the premises
c. Order that the property shall not be transferred or dealt with
d. Initiate prosecution
79. Any order restricting transfer of property under Section 68F must allow transfer only with prior permission of:
a. Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Officer making the order or the competent authority
d. Appellate Tribunal
80. A copy of the seizure/freezing order under Section 68F(1) must be served on:
a. Central Government
b. Magistrate
c. Competent Authority only
d. Person concerned
81. Within what time must the competent authority be informed of an order passed under Section 68F(1)?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 7 days
d. 30 days
82. An order passed under Section 68F(1) shall have no effect unless confirmed by the competent authority within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
83. If the competent authority fails to confirm the order within the prescribed time, the order:
a. Continues until forfeiture
b. Is deemed confirmed
c. Becomes void
d. Requires court approval
84. Grant of lease, mortgage, charge or licence amounts to “transfer of property” under:
a. Section 68C
b. Section 68D
c. Section 68E
d. Section 68F
85. Any transaction intended to diminish one’s own property value and increase another’s property value is:
a. Benami transaction
b. Civil fraud
c. Transfer of property under Section 68F
d. Criminal conspiracy
86. Creation of partnership interest in property is treated as:
a. Management of property
b. Possession
c. Transfer of property
d. Encumbrance only
87. Under Section 68G, the power to appoint an Administrator vests in the:
a. Competent Authority
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Central Government
d. State Government
88. Appointment of an Administrator must be made by:
a. Executive order
b. Order published in the Official Gazette
c. Circular of Ministry
d. Judicial direction
89. The Administrator must be an officer not below the rank of:
a. Deputy Secretary
b. Under Secretary
c. Joint Secretary to Government
d. Additional Secretary
90. The Administrator manages property in respect of orders under:
a. Section 68C
b. Section 68D
c. Section 68F(1) or Section 68-I
d. Section 68H
91. Property management begins after:
a. FIR registration
b. Conviction
c. Order under Section 68F(1) or forfeiture under Section 68-I
d. Appeal filing
92. Conditions of management are:
a. Decided by Magistrate
b. Prescribed under Act/Rules
c. Determined by Tribunal
d. At Administrator’s discretion
93. Disposal of forfeited property is:
a. At Administrator’s discretion
b. As per Central Government directions
c. Ordered by Competent Authority
d. Through auction only
94. Which is NOT a function of Administrator?
a. Receiving property
b. Managing property
c. Confirming seizure/freezing orders
d. Disposing property as directed
95. Administrator primarily acts as:
a. Quasi-judicial authority
b. Investigating officer
c. Custodian/manager of property
d. Prosecutor
96. Section 68G ensures property is:
a. Immediately auctioned
b. Returned during appeal
c. Properly managed and preserved
d. Transferred to police
97. Under Section 68H, who is empowered to issue notice of forfeiture?
a. Competent Authority
b. Investigating Officer
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Central Government
98. Notice under Section 68H can be issued when:
a. Complaint is filed
b. Trial is complete
c. Competent authority has reason to believe property is illegally acquired
d. Sanction is granted
99. “Reason to believe” must be:
a. Presumed
b. Recorded in writing
c. Oral
d. Approved by Magistrate
100. While forming belief, authority considers:
a. Section 68E report and other material
b. Value only
c. Confession only
d. Known sources only
101. Time to respond to notice:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
102. Notice requires person to:
a. Admit guilt
b. File appeal
c. Prove innocence
d. Disclose sources and evidence of acquisition
103. If property held through another person:
a. No notice required
b. Copy of notice must be served
c. Oral intimation sufficient
d. Separate case needed
104. As per proviso, notice shall not be served upon:
a. Any accused
b. Any transferee
c. Any convicted person
d. Persons under clause (cc) and their relatives/associates
105. Failure to mention evidence in notice:
a. Does not invalidate if Section 68J applies
b. Always invalidates notice
c. Requires fresh notice
d. Ends proceedings
106. Notice is not invalid merely because:
a. It is served on associate
b. It mentions estimated value
c. It lacks exact nexus detail
d. It is issued post-arrest
107. Under Section 68-I, the power to order forfeiture of property vests in:
a. Special Court
b. Competent Authority
c. Appellate Tribunal
d. Investigating Officer
108. Before ordering forfeiture, the competent authority must consider:
a. Police diary only
b. Confession under Section 67 only
c. Charge-sheet findings only
d. Explanation to show-cause notice and available material
109. Section 68-I mandates which principle?
a. Audi alteram partem
b. Presumption of guilt
c. Double jeopardy
d. Speedy disposal
110. Opportunity of being heard must be given to:
a. Only the person affected
b. Only transferee
c. Person affected and holder on his behalf
d. Only relatives
111. If the person fails to appear, authority may:
a. Drop proceedings
b. Proceed ex parte
c. Refer to Tribunal
d. Seek police help
112. Ex parte proceedings can begin after expiry of:
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
113. Ex parte decision is based on:
a. Evidence on record
b. Presumptions only
c. Intelligence inputs
d. Confession alone
114. Section 68-I(2) applies when:
a. Property belongs to relatives
b. Illegally acquired property cannot be identified
c. All properties identified
d. No illegal property exists
115. In such cases, authority may:
a. Drop proceedings
b. Seek reinvestigation
c. Refer to court
d. Forfeit on best judgment basis
116. “Best judgment” means:
a. Absolute discretion
b. Presumption of guilt
c. Arbitrariness
d. Reasoned estimation based on material
117. Once property is found illegally acquired:
a. Auction immediately
b. Vest in State Government
c. Stand forfeited to Central Government
d. Remain attached
118. Forfeited property vests:
a. Subject to lien
b. Subject to mortgage
c. Free from encumbrances
d. After appeal
119. Nature of order:
a. Administrative
b. Quasi-judicial
c. Criminal conviction
d. Recommendatory
120. Correct statement:
a. Conviction required
b. Only seized property forfeitable
c. Tribunal orders forfeiture
d. Independent of criminal trial
121. Proceedings are:
a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Executive
d. Quasi-judicial
122. Proviso relates to:
a. Clause (a)
b. Clause (b)
c. Clause (cc)
d. Clause (c)
123. Forfeiture NOT applicable to:
a. Convicted traffickers
b. Persons under clause (cc)
c. Detained persons
d. Minor offenders
124. Protection extends to:
a. Only person
b. Only relatives
c. Person, relatives, associates, holders
d. Only associates
125. Proviso applies to:
a. Convicted persons
b. Arrested / warrant-issued persons
c. Acquitted persons
d. Civil offenders
126. Section 68J of the NDPS Act deals with:
a. Confession to officers
b. Presumption of innocence
c. Burden of proof
d. Confiscation of property
127. Under Section 68J, the burden of proving that property is NOT illegally acquired lies on:
a. Prosecution
b. Investigating officer
c. Competent Authority
d. Person affected
128. Section 68J reverses which general principle?
a. Presumption of innocence
b. Rule of mens rea
c. Double jeopardy
d. Doctrine of severability
129. The burden arises after notice under:
a. Section 68E
b. Section 68F
c. Section 68H
d. Section 68-I
130. Section 68K of the NDPS Act provides for:
a. Appeal against forfeiture
b. Fine in lieu of forfeiture
c. Penalty for concealment
d. Confiscation of sale proceeds
131. Section 68K applies when:
a. Entire property is illegally acquired
b. Entire property is proved legal
c. Accused is acquitted
d. Source of only part of property is not proved
132. Under Section 68K, the fine imposed shall be equal to:
a. Market value of illegally acquired part
b. Twice the value of property
c. Market value of entire property
d. Any amount fixed by authority
133. Who grants the option to pay fine?
a. Special Court
b. Appellate Tribunal
c. Competent Authority
d. Central Government
134. The option under Section 68K is:
a. Automatic
b. At discretion of accused
c. Available on appeal only
d. At discretion of competent authority
135. Before imposing fine, the person must be given:
a. Legal aid
b. Opportunity of being heard
c. Copy of FIR
d. Right of appeal
136. Payment of fine results in:
a. Immunity from prosecution
b. Closure of trial
c. Revocation of forfeiture order
d. Acquittal
137. Section 68K is an exception to:
a. Confiscation is discretionary
b. Criminal liability is strict
c. Property once forfeited cannot be released
d. All illegally acquired property must be forfeited
138. Section 68L applies specifically to:
a. Relatives under Section 68B
b. Associates under Section 68B
c. Trustees under Section 68B(b)(vi)
d. Holders of property under Section 68B(f)
139. Under Section 68L, action arises when property is held:
a. Jointly
b. Through benami transaction
c. By a company
d. In trust
140. Before issuing notice, the competent authority must:
a. Seize property
b. Record reasons in writing
c. Conduct trial
d. Obtain court approval
141. Notice may be served upon:
a. Only trustees
b. Only beneficiaries
c. Author/contributor and trustees
d. Only managing trustee
142. Time period for explanation:
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
143. Notice under Section 68L is deemed notice under:
a. Section 68F
b. Section 68G
c. Section 68H
d. Section 68-I
144. Once deemed under Section 68H:
a. Only forfeiture applies
b. Only appeal provisions apply
c. Entire Chapter V-A applies
d. Only burden of proof applies
145. Explanation is sought regarding:
a. Beneficiary identity
b. Purpose of trust
c. Legality of trust deed
d. Source of money or assets
146. “Illegally acquired property” includes:
a. Property legally gifted
b. Property inherited
c. Property which would be illegal if held by contributor
d. Property held for charity
147. Section 68M renders transfers of property null and void when such transfer is made:
a. Before registration of FIR
b. After arrest of the accused
c. After order under Section 68F(1) or notice under Section 68H or 68L
d. After conviction
148. Transfer under Section 68M includes transfer made by:
a. Sale only
b. Gift only
c. Inheritance only
d. Any mode whatsoever
149. The legal effect of a transfer made after Section 68F order or Section 68H/68L notice is that it shall be:
a. Stayed
b. Set aside by court
c. Ignored for proceedings
d. Treated as contempt
150. A transfer ignored under Section 68M becomes legally void only when:
a. Notice is issued
b. Property is seized
c. Property is forfeited under Section 68-I
d. Appeal is dismissed
151. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 68N is constituted under which Act?
a. NDPS Act, 1985
b. Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976
c. Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
d. Companies Act, 1956
152. Section 68N empowers the Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against orders made under:
a. Sections 27 and 31
b. Sections 68F, 68-I, 68K(1), 68L
c. Sections 41, 42, 43, 44
d. Sections 60, 61, 62
153. The Appellate Tribunal under Section 68N hears appeals against orders relating to:
a. Arrests and searches
b. Seizure or freezing of property and forfeiture
c. Punishment for offences
d. Controlled deliveries
154. Who can file an appeal under Section 68-O?
a. Any police officer conducting inquiry
b. Only the Central Government
c. Only the person affected
d. Any officer under Section 68E or any person aggrieved
155. Appeal must be filed within:
a. 30 days from service of order
b. 45 days from service of order
c. 60 days from service of order
d. 90 days from service of order