THE NATIONAL SECURITY ACT, 1980
1. The National Security Act, 1980 was enacted in the year—
a. 1978
b. 1980
c. 1982
d. 1984
2. The Act number of the National Security Act, 1980 is—
a. Act No. 65 of 1980
b. Act No. 31 of 1980
c. Act No. 65 of 1982
d. Act No. 4 of 1980
3. The National Security Act, 1980 came into force on—
a. 15th August, 1980
b. 27th December, 1980
c. 26th January, 1980
d. 1st January, 1981
4. The long title of the National Security Act, 1980 indicates that it provides for—
a. Regulation of explosive substances
b. Preventive detention in certain cases and connected matters
c. Licensing of arms and ammunition
d. Civil compensation for unlawful acts
5. The phrase “BE it enacted by Parliament in the Thirty-first Year of the Republic of India” signifies—
a. Parliamentary enactment
b. Presidential ordinance
c. State legislation
d. Delegated legislation
6. The National Security Act, 1980 is primarily aimed at—
a. Regulating industrial safety
b. Preventive detention for maintaining public order and national security
c. Import and export control
d. Defining criminal liability for explosives
7. The expression “for matters connected therewith” in the long title implies—
a. The Act deals only with preventive detention
b. The Act also covers ancillary provisions related to detention
c. The Act repeals all previous laws
d. The Act prescribes only procedural safeguards
8. The National Security Act, 1980 was enacted by—
a. The State Legislature
b. Parliament of India
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Central Government through notification
9. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the NSA, 1980 preamble?
a. It deals with licensing of explosives
b. It provides preventive detention and related matters
c. It applies to industrial security only
d. It limits detention to foreign nationals
10. The NSA, 1980 reflects the legislative intent to—
a. Punish completed offences
b. Prevent potential threats to public order and national security
c. Regulate explosives
d. Provide civil compensation
11. Section 1(1) of the National Security Act, 1980 provides the—
a. Commencement date
b. Short title
c. Territorial extent
d. Definition of preventive detention
12. The short title of the Act is—
a. National Security Act, 1978
b. National Security Act, 1980
c. Preventive Detention Act, 1980
d. National Security and Detention Act, 1980
13. Section 1(2) of the NSA, 1980 provides that the Act—
a. Applies only to specified states
b. Extends to the whole of India
c. Applies only to Indian citizens abroad
d. Applies only to Union Territories
14. The phrase “extends to the whole of India” signifies—
a. Limited territorial application
b. Application in all states and union territories
c. Extra-territorial application
d. Only central government employees are covered
15. Under Section 2(a), “appropriate Government” means—
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Central Government for orders it makes, State Government for orders it makes or its subordinate officers make
d. The local police only
16. As per Section 2(a), the “appropriate Government” for a detention order made by a State Government includes—
a. Only the State Government
b. Only the officer issuing the order
c. The State Government and its subordinate officer issuing the order
d. The Central Government
17. Section 2(b) defines “detention order” as—
a. Any arrest order under CrPC
b. An order made under Section 3 of the NSA, 1980
c. A judicial warrant issued for criminal trial
d. Any preventive detention order under any law
18. Under Section 2(c), “foreigner” has the same meaning as in—
a. The Passport Act, 1967
b. The Foreigners Act, 1946
c. The Citizenship Act, 1955
d. The CrPC
19. The term “person” in Section 2(d) includes—
a. Only Indian citizens
b. Only State Government officials
c. Foreigners as well
d. Only residents of India
20. According to Section 2(e), “State Government” in relation to a Union territory means—
a. The elected legislature of the territory
b. The administrator of the Union territory
c. The Central Government only
d. The local police
21. Why does Section 2(e) define “State Government” for Union territories?
a. To exclude Union territories from preventive detention
b. To clarify that the administrator acts as the State Government for NSA purposes
c. To give powers to Central Government only
d. To limit detention to citizens
22. Section 2 ensures clarity in preventive detention powers by—
a. Limiting detention only to offences under CrPC
b. Defining key terms such as “appropriate Government” and “detention order”
c. Excluding foreigners from detention
d. Defining punishment
23. Under Section 3(1), which authorities can make a preventive detention order?
a. Judiciary only
b. Police only
c. Central Government or State Government
d. District Magistrate only
24. Section 3(1)(a) allows detention of a person to prevent action prejudicial to—
a. Only public order
b. Defence of India, relations with foreign powers, or security of India
c. Only supplies and services
d. Only foreign relations
25. Section 3(1)(b) applies specifically to—
a. Indian citizens only
b. Foreigners
c. State Government employees
d. Union Territory administrators
26. The purpose of detention under Section 3(1)(b) for foreigners includes—
a. Punishment for crimes
b. Regulating continued presence or making arrangements for expulsion
c. Public order violations only
d. Administrative convenience
27. Section 3(2) allows detention to prevent actions prejudicial to—
a. Only national security
b. Security of the State, maintenance of public order, or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community
c. Only foreign relations
d. Only Central Government functioning
28. The phrase “it is necessary so to do” in Section 3 indicates—
a. Mandatory detention for all suspicious persons
b. Discretionary preventive detention based on satisfaction of government authority
c. Automatic arrest powers
d. Requirement of court order
29. Which of the following is TRUE regarding citizens vs foreigners under Section 3?
a. Citizens can be detained for defence, foreign relations, or security of India
b. Foreigners can be detained for regulating presence or expulsion
c. Citizens can also be detained for security of the State, public order, or essential services
d. All of the above
30. Section 3(2) focuses primarily on—
a. National security
b. State security, public order, and essential community services
c. Expulsion of foreigners
d. Defence of India
31. The Central Government can detain a person—
a. Only under Section 3(1)
b. Only under Section 3(2)
c. Under both Section 3(1) and 3(2)
d. Only with court approval
32. The State Government can detain a person under Section 3 for—
a. Security of the State, maintenance of public order, or essential services
b. Defence of India or foreign relations
c. Expulsion arrangements for foreigners
d. None of the above
33. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 3 allows preventive detention without any grounds
b. Detention under Section 3 requires satisfaction that it is necessary to prevent prejudicial acts
c. Only judiciary can issue detention orders
d. Section 3 applies only to foreigners
34. “Maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community” under Section 3(2) refers to—
a. Only defence supplies
b. Any supplies and services critical to public life and community functioning
c. Only foreign trade
d. Only government services
35. Which of the following is a ground for detention under Section 3(1) for Indian citizens?
a. Acts prejudicial to defence of India
b. Acts prejudicial to relations with foreign powers
c. Acts prejudicial to security of India
d. All of the above
36. The words “Central Government or the State Government may, if satisfied” indicate that—
a. Detention is automatic
b. Government authorities have discretion based on satisfaction
c. Courts must approve detention
d. Only police can detain
37. Preventive detention under Section 3 can be made—
a. Only after a crime has been committed
b. Even before any act prejudicial has occurred
c. Only with a judicial warrant
d. Only against foreigners
38. The Explanation to Section 3(2) clarifies that “acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community” does NOT include—
a. Acts affecting defence of India
b. Acts prejudicial to supplies of commodities essential to the community under the Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Acts affecting public order
d. Acts affecting security of the State
39. The purpose of this Explanation is to—
a. Expand the grounds of preventive detention under NSA
b. Prevent orders of detention under NSA on grounds already covered by the Essential Commodities Act
c. Allow detention for black marketing offences
d. Give additional powers to State Government
40. Which Act is cross-referenced in this Explanation?
a. Explosive Substances Act, 1908
b. Prevention of Black-marketing and Maintenance of Supplies of Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Indian Penal Code, 1860
d. Foreigners Act, 1946
41. According to the Explanation, no detention order under NSA shall be made on—
a. Grounds related to national security
b. Grounds covered under the Essential Commodities Act, 1980
c. Grounds related to public order
d. Grounds related to foreign relations
42. The cross-reference to Section 3(1) of the Essential Commodities Act, 1980 is significant because—
a. It defines “preventive detention”
b. It defines “supplies of commodities essential to the community”
c. It defines “foreigners”
d. It defines “appropriate Government”
43. The effect of this Explanation ensures that—
a. NSA detention powers are automatically applied to all economic offences
b. NSA detention powers do not overlap with detention powers under the Essential Commodities Act
c. Detention can be made even if Essential Commodities Act applies
d. Only Central Government can detain
44. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Any black-marketing offence can now be punished under NSA
b. Preventive detention under NSA cannot be invoked for grounds already covered under the Essential Commodities Act
c. Essential Commodities Act only applies to foreigners
d. NSA and Essential Commodities Act are independent and overlapping by design
45. The Explanation restricts the application of Section 3(2) to—
a. Only foreign nationals
b. Only non-economic offences affecting community supplies and services
c. Only industrial offences
d. Only black-marketing offences
46. The legislative intent of this Explanation is to—
a. Expand NSA powers
b. Avoid double jeopardy for economic offences
c. Limit Central Government powers
d. Apply NSA to all public order offences
47. After this Explanation, preventive detention under Section 3(2) can be made for—
a. Any act affecting supplies under the Essential Commodities Act
b. Acts prejudicial to security of State, public order, or essential services not already covered under other law
c. Only economic offences
d. Only offences by foreigners
48. Under Section 3(3), the State Government may authorize which officers to exercise preventive detention powers locally?
a. Police constables
b. District Magistrates or Commissioners of Police
c. Judiciary
d. Central Government officials
49. The delegation of powers under Section 3(3) is subject to—
a. Satisfaction that it is necessary having regard to prevailing or likely circumstances in the area
b. Approval by the Central Government only
c. Judicial review before exercise
d. Citizens’ consent
50. According to Section 3(3), the initial period specified in an order by the State Government shall not exceed—
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Twelve months
51. Under Section 3(3), the State Government may extend the order from time to time, but the extension period at any one time cannot exceed—
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Twelve months
52. Section 3(4) requires that any order made by a District Magistrate or Commissioner of Police shall—
a. Remain valid indefinitely
b. Be reported forthwith to the State Government with grounds and relevant particulars
c. Require approval from Central Government first
d. Not require reporting
53. An order made under Section 3(4) shall not remain in force for more than—
a. 7 days unless approved by State Government
b. 12 days unless approved by State Government
c. 15 days unless approved by Central Government
d. 30 days unless approved by State Government
54. When the grounds of detention are communicated under Section 8 within five to fifteen days, the period in Section 3(4) is modified to—
a. 12 days → 15 days
b. 12 days → 20 days
c. 12 days → 10 days
d. 12 days → 30 days
55. Section 3(5) mandates that the State Government shall report the detention order to the Central Government within—
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 12 days
d. 15 days
56. The report by the State Government to the Central Government must include—
a. Only the name of the detainee
b. Grounds of the order and any particulars bearing on necessity for the order
c. Only duration of detention
d. Only administrative details
57. Section 3(3)–(5) collectively ensure that—
a. Local officers can detain without approval
b. Preventive detention orders have local application with State oversight, reporting requirements, and time limits
c. Central Government approval is mandatory before detention
d. Detention is unlimited in duration
58. The purpose of the modifications when grounds are communicated under Section 8 (5–15 days) is to—
a. Reduce maximum detention period
b. Adjust the period for which an unapproved order can remain in force
c. Allow detention without reporting
d. Allow only foreigners to be detained
59. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Section 3(3)–(5)?
a. State Government may delegate preventive detention powers locally with conditions
b. Orders must be reported promptly to the State and then Central Government
c. Orders cannot exceed specified periods without approval
d. All of the above
60. Section 4 of the NSA, 1980 deals with—
a. Grounds for preventive detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Maximum detention period
d. Reporting to Central Government
61. A detention order under NSA, 1980 may be executed at—
a. Only in the district of issue
b. Only in the state where the detainee resides
c. Any place in India
d. Only in Central Government premises
62. The manner of execution of a detention order under Section 4 follows—
a. Summary trial procedure
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provisions for execution of warrants of arrest
c. Executive instructions only
d. No prescribed procedure
63. Section 4 ensures that detention orders are—
a. Limited to local police jurisdictions
b. Enforceable nationwide in a standard manner
c. Only applicable in union territories
d. Executed only by the judiciary
64. Section 5 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Grounds for preventive detention
b. Regulation of place and conditions of detention
c. Maximum detention period
d. Advisory board review
65. Under Section 5(a), the appropriate Government can specify—
a. Grounds of detention only
b. Place and conditions of detention, including maintenance, discipline, and punishment for breaches of discipline
c. Duration of detention only
d. Release procedures
66. Under Section 5(b), the appropriate Government can—
a. Only release a detainee
b. Remove a detainee from one place of detention to another, within the same State or to another State
c. Extend detention indefinitely
d. Only transfer detainees within a single district
67. For removal of a detainee from one State to another State under Section 5(b), the State Government must—
a. Obtain approval from Central Government
b. Obtain consent of the Government of the other State
c. Notify the judiciary
d. Take no permission
68. The phrase “conditions as to maintenance, discipline and punishment for breaches of discipline” implies—
a. Arbitrary detention without any rules
b. The Government can prescribe rules for how detainees are maintained and disciplined
c. Detainees can be punished without limit
d. Only food and accommodation are regulated
69. Which of the following is TRUE regarding transfers under Section 5(b)?
a. Detainees cannot be moved outside the district
b. Transfers within the same State can be done by the appropriate Government
c. Transfers to another State require judicial approval
d. Central Government approval is mandatory for all transfers
70. The consent requirement under Section 5 ensures that—
a. State Governments can freely transfer detainees to any other State
b. State Governments must obtain consent from the receiving State before inter-state transfer
c. Detainees cannot be moved under any circumstances
d. Central Government controls all transfers
71. Section 5 gives power to the appropriate Government to—
a. Detain persons indefinitely
b. Specify conditions of detention and regulate transfers
c. Try detainees for offences
d. Grant bail
72. “Appropriate Government” under Section 5 refers to—
a. Only Central Government
b. Only State Government
c. Central Government or State Government as defined in Section 2
d. Judiciary
73. Section 5 ensures—
a. Uniformity and legal regulation of place, conditions, and transfer of detainees
b. Arbitrary detention and punishment
c. Detention outside India
d. Judicial discretion for all transfers
74. Section 5A of NSA, 1980 deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Grounds of detention severable
c. Advisory board review
d. Execution of detention orders
75. If a detention order under Section 3 is made on multiple grounds, Section 5A provides that—
a. The entire order is invalid if one ground is defective
b. The order is deemed to have been made separately on each ground
c. Only the first ground is considered
d. The order must be reissued
76. Under Section 5A(a), a detention order is NOT invalid merely because some grounds are—
a. Vague
b. Non-existent
c. Not relevant, or not connected/proximately connected with the person
d. All of the above
77. The principle in Section 5A ensures that—
a. All grounds must be perfect for a valid detention
b. Defects in one or more grounds do not invalidate the entire detention order
c. Detention cannot be made on multiple grounds
d. Detention is limited to a single ground only
78. Section 5A(b) declares that the Government or officer making the order—
a. Is deemed to have made the order only on the first ground
b. Is deemed to have made the order after being satisfied with reference to the remaining valid ground(s)
c. Must re-issue the order
d. Cannot detain a person if any ground is invalid
79. Which of the following is TRUE about Section 5A?
a. Prevents orders from being struck down if some grounds are defective
b. Applies only to orders made after 1984
c. Invalidates the entire detention order if one ground is invalid
d. Applies only to foreign nationals
80. The severability principle under Section 5A applies to—
a. Vague grounds
b. Non-existent grounds
c. Grounds not connected or not relevant
d. All of the above
81. Section 5A was inserted by—
a. National Security (First Amendment) Act, 1980
b. National Security (Second Amendment) Act, 1984
c. National Security (Amendment) Act, 1990
d. Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1983
82. The practical effect of Section 5A is that—
a. Preventive detention orders are more likely to withstand judicial scrutiny
b. Detention orders are automatically invalid if any defect exists
c. Grounds of detention cannot be challenged in court
d. Advisory boards are unnecessary
83. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Section 5A allows defective grounds to invalidate a detention order
b. Section 5A applies to orders made before or after 1984 amendment
c. Section 5A upholds detention on remaining valid grounds
d. Section 5A reduces the risk of a detention order being struck down entirely
84. Section 6 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Advisory board review
c. Validity of detention orders despite territorial limits
d. Execution of detention orders
85. According to Section 6(a), a detention order is NOT invalid merely because—
a. The detainee is a foreigner
b. The person to be detained is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Government or officer issuing the order
c. The detention is for public order reasons
d. The grounds of detention are vague
86. Section 6(b) provides that a detention order remains valid even if—
a. The detainee is transferred within the same district
b. The place of detention is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the authority issuing the order
c. The Central Government is unaware
d. The detention is longer than allowed
87. The main purpose of Section 6 is to—
a. Limit detention orders to local jurisdiction
b. Prevent technical challenges based on territorial jurisdiction
c. Allow detention only within state boundaries
d. Give judiciary powers over detention locations
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Section 6?
a. Detention orders become invalid if the detainee is outside the issuing officer’s jurisdiction
b. Detention orders remain valid regardless of where the detainee is or where they are held
c. Only Central Government can issue valid detention orders outside jurisdiction
d. Section 6 applies only to foreigners
89. Section 6 ensures that—
a. Inter-state transfer of detainees is prohibited
b. Territorial limits do not affect validity of detention orders
c. Only local police can detain
d. Advisory board approval is mandatory for validity
90. The practical effect of Section 6 is that—
a. Preventive detention orders can be challenged on territorial grounds
b. Preventive detention orders cannot be invalidated merely because of jurisdictional technicalities
c. Detention orders are invalid if executed outside district limits
d. Section 6 repeals Section 5
91. Section 6 complements which other NSA provision regarding transfer of detainees?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 5A
92. Section 7 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Powers in relation to absconding or concealing persons
c. Advisory board review
d. Execution of detention orders
93. If a person in respect of whom a detention order has been made absconds, the Central or State Government or the officer may—
a. Revoke the detention order
b. Make a written report to a Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate of First Class in the person’s ordinary place of residence
c. Detain without reporting
d. Cancel the detention order
94. Section 7(1)(b) allows the Government or officer to—
a. Arrest any person without notice
b. Notify in the Official Gazette directing the person to appear before the officer, specifying place and period
c. Transfer the detainee to another State
d. Detain without any procedure
95. Upon making a report under Section 7(1)(a), which provisions of CrPC apply?
a. Sections 41–50
b. Sections 82, 83, 84, and 85
c. Sections 100–120
d. Sections 197–200
96. The CrPC provisions applied under Section 7(2) treat the detention order as—
a. An advisory order
b. A warrant issued by the Magistrate
c. A civil notice
d. A preventive measure without legal force
97. If a person fails to comply with an appearance order under Section 7(1)(b), he may be punished with—
a. Imprisonment up to 1 year, fine, or both
b. Only fine
c. Only imprisonment for life
d. No punishment
98. To avoid punishment under Section 7(3), the absconding person must—
a. Surrender immediately without explanation
b. Prove that it was impossible to comply and inform the officer of his reasons and whereabouts within the specified period
c. Leave the country
d. Obtain Central Government permission
99. Section 7(4) specifies that every offence under sub-section (3) shall be—
a. Cognizable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Compoundable only
d. Non-punishable
100. The official to whom the report under Section 7(1)(a) is made is—
a. Any police officer
b. Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate of First Class in the person’s ordinary place of residence
c. Central Government official
d. District Collector only
101. The practical effect of Section 7 is—
a. To ensure absconding detainees are traceable and compelled to appear legally
b. To allow arbitrary detention
c. To repeal Section 3
d. To limit the Government’s powers to only local jurisdictions
102. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Section 7?
a. Failure to comply with an appearance order is non-cognizable
b. The Government can only warn an absconding person without legal effect
c. The person can be punished, and CrPC Sections 82–85 apply as if it were a Magistrate’s warrant
d. Only Central Government can initiate proceedings
103. Section 7 ensures—
a. Preventive detention orders cannot be enforced if the detainee absconds
b. Legal and procedural steps exist to enforce detention even if a person is concealing himself
c. Central Government cannot act
d. Magistrates cannot be involved
104. Section 8 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Communication of grounds of detention to the detainee
c. Advisory board review
d. Powers of absconding persons
105. Normally, the authority making the detention order must communicate the grounds to the detainee within—
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
106. In exceptional circumstances, the authority may extend the time for communicating the grounds to—
a. 10 days
b. 12 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
107. The communication of grounds under Section 8 must include—
a. The full text of the NSA
b. The grounds on which the detention order has been made
c. Only the duration of detention
d. Only the authority issuing the order
108. Section 8 requires the authority to afford the detainee—
a. Opportunity to appeal to the judiciary only
b. Earliest opportunity to make a representation against the order to the appropriate Government
c. No opportunity
d. Only post-release representation
109. Section 8(2) provides that the authority is NOT required to disclose—
a. Grounds of detention at all
b. Facts which it considers against public interest to disclose
c. Duration of detention
d. Place of detention
110. “Exceptional circumstances” under Section 8 allow extension of the timeline for communication to—
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
111. Section 8 safeguards the detainee’s rights by—
a. Allowing unlimited detention
b. Ensuring the detainee knows the grounds and can represent against the order
c. Preventing judicial review
d. Restricting representation to the Central Government only
112. The phrase “as soon as may be, but ordinarily not later than five days” indicates—
a. Mandatory immediate disclosure without exceptions
b. A flexible timeline with a normal limit of five days
c. The detainee has no right to know grounds
d. Grounds must be disclosed after 15 days
113. Section 8 balances the rights of the detainee and public interest by—
a. Allowing indefinite delay in communication
b. Permitting withholding of facts considered against public interest while still allowing representation
c. Requiring full disclosure regardless of national security
d. Repealing all safeguards
114. Section 9 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Powers of absconding persons
b. Constitution of Advisory Boards for review of detention orders
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Communication of grounds of detention
115. Who is responsible for constituting Advisory Boards under Section 9?
a. Only Central Government
b. Only State Governments
c. Both Central and State Governments whenever necessary
d. Judiciary alone
116. Each Advisory Board must consist of—
a. Two persons qualified to be District Judges
b. Three persons who are, have been, or are qualified to be Judges of a High Court
c. Five persons from the executive
d. Only retired IAS officers
117. Who appoints the members of the Advisory Board?
a. Chief Justice of India
b. Appropriate Government (Central or State Government)
c. President of India
d. District Magistrate
118. How is the Chairman of the Advisory Board appointed?
a. Any member can elect
b. One member who is, or has been, a High Court Judge is appointed by the appropriate Government
c. Chief Justice appoints
d. Central Government only
119. For Advisory Boards in Union territories, the appointment of a High Court Judge requires—
a. No approval
b. Previous approval of the concerned State Government
c. Approval of the Chief Justice of India
d. Approval of the President only
120. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Advisory Boards under Section 9?
a. Boards can have any number of members
b. Members must be or have been High Court Judges or qualified to be High Court Judges
c. Only retired Supreme Court judges can be appointed
d. The Chairman must always be from the Central Government
121. The purpose of constituting Advisory Boards is to—
a. Approve inter-state transfers of detainees
b. Review detention orders under the NSA
c. Execute detention orders
d. Grant bail to detainees
122. How many members must an Advisory Board have?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
123. Section 9 ensures that the review of detention orders is—
a. Executive-controlled without judicial oversight
b. Done by senior or qualified judicial officers to ensure impartiality
c. Performed only by police officials
d. Optional for the detainee
124. Section 10 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Powers in relation to absconding persons
b. Reference of detention orders to Advisory Boards
c. Execution of detention orders
d. Communication of grounds of detention
125. According to Section 10, the appropriate Government must place a detention order before the Advisory Board—
a. Within one week of detention
b. Within three weeks from the date of detention
c. Within one month
d. Within six months
126. The Advisory Board receives—
a. Only the detention order
b. The grounds of detention, representation by the detainee (if any), and officer’s report (if applicable)
c. Only the detainee’s representation
d. Only the officer’s report
127. Section 10 applies to detention orders made—
a. Only by Central Government
b. Only by State Government
c. By any officer under the NSA, except as expressly provided otherwise
d. Only to foreigners
128. The officer’s report required under Section 10 is applicable when—
a. The order is made by the Central Government
b. The order is made under Section 3(3) by an officer mentioned therein
c. The detainee is a foreigner
d. There is no representation
129. The purpose of placing the detention order before the Advisory Board is to—
a. Ensure judicial oversight and review of preventive detention
b. Execute detention orders
c. Transfer detainees
d. Grant bail
130. Which of the following must be included when a detention order is referred to the Advisory Board?
a. Grounds of detention
b. Representation by the detainee
c. Officer’s report (if order under Section 3(3))
d. All of the above
131. The “three weeks” timeline in Section 10 ensures that—
a. Advisory Board review is delayed indefinitely
b. Advisory Board review occurs promptly after detention
c. Detainees can escape review
d. Only Central Government can review
132. Section 10 safeguards detainees’ rights by—
a. Allowing the Advisory Board to review the detention order and representations
b. Removing all procedural safeguards
c. Allowing indefinite detention without review
d. Permitting arbitrary executive action
133. Section 10 ensures that—
a. Detention orders are placed before the Advisory Board even if there is no representation by the detainee
b. Only orders with representations are reviewed
c. Advisory Board review is optional
d. Officers can skip reporting
134. Section 11 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Maximum detention period
b. Procedure of Advisory Boards
c. Communication of grounds of detention
d. Powers in relation to absconding persons
135. The Advisory Board must submit its report to the appropriate Government within—
a. Three weeks
b. Five weeks
c. Seven weeks from the date of detention
d. Ten weeks
136. In preparing its report, the Advisory Board may—
a. Call further information from the appropriate Government
b. Call any person through the appropriate Government
c. Call the detainee if deemed essential or if the detainee desires to be heard
d. All of the above
137. The Advisory Board’s report must specify—
a. The duration of detention
b. The opinion on whether sufficient cause exists for detention
c. The personal history of the detainee
d. The financial status of the detainee
138. If members of the Advisory Board differ in opinion, the final opinion of the Board is—
a. The opinion of the chairman
b. The opinion of the Central Government
c. The opinion of the majority of members
d. Not considered
139. Under Section 11, is a detainee allowed to be represented by a legal practitioner before the Advisory Board?
a. Yes, always
b. No, never
c. Only with permission of the appropriate Government
d. Only in cases involving foreigners
140. Which part of the Advisory Board’s report is NOT confidential?
a. All parts are confidential
b. The part specifying the opinion of the Board on sufficiency of cause
c. The entire report
d. Officer’s report
141. Section 11 ensures detainee participation in Advisory Board proceedings by—
a. Mandatory in-person hearing in all cases
b. Hearing only if the Board considers it essential or if the detainee requests
c. Always allowing legal representation
d. Hearing not allowed under any circumstances
142. The purpose of Section 11 is to—
a. Execute detention orders
b. Provide a confidential, judicial review mechanism for preventive detention orders
c. Communicate grounds of detention
d. Allow police to detain without review
143. The proceedings and report of the Advisory Board under Section 11 are—
a. Completely public
b. Confidential except for the opinion part
c. Confidential only for foreigners
d. Shared with the police
144. Section 12 of the NSA, 1980 primarily deals with—
a. Procedure of Advisory Boards
b. Action by the appropriate Government on the Advisory Board’s report
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Powers in relation to absconding persons
145. If the Advisory Board reports that there is sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government—
a. Must release the person immediately
b. May confirm the detention order and continue detention for such period as it thinks fit
c. Cannot continue detention under any circumstances
d. Must seek judicial approval
146. If the Advisory Board reports that there is no sufficient cause for detention, the appropriate Government—
a. May continue detention at its discretion
b. Shall revoke the detention order and release the person forthwith
c. Can extend detention for 30 days
d. May consult another Advisory Board
147. Section 12 makes the Government’s action—
a. Mandatory if the Board reports insufficient cause
b. Optional even if the Board reports insufficient cause
c. Discretionary in all cases
d. Subject to police approval
148. When the Advisory Board reports sufficient cause, the period for which the detention can continue—
a. Is fixed by law at three months
b. Can be any period the Government thinks fit
c. Cannot exceed one week
d. Must be approved by the judiciary
149. The purpose of Section 12 is to—
a. Allow arbitrary detention
b. Ensure the Government acts on Advisory Board recommendations either by continuing or revoking detention
c. Limit detention only to foreigners
d. Permit indefinite detention without review
150. Which of the following statements is TRUE under Section 12?
a. The Government may ignore the Advisory Board’s opinion
b. The Government must revoke the detention order if the Board finds no sufficient cause
c. The Board itself can release the detainee
d. Police can decide irrespective of the Board
151. Section 12 ensures that the Advisory Board’s report—
a. Is purely advisory with no legal effect
b. Has binding effect on the Government’s decision to revoke detention if no sufficient cause exists
c. Can be ignored by the State Government at its discretion
d. Only provides recommendations for documentation
152. In practical terms, Section 12 guarantees—
a. Detainees are never released
b. Detainees are released promptly if no sufficient cause exists, ensuring a safeguard against arbitrary detention
c. Advisory Board opinions are confidential but irrelevant
d. Detention is extended automatically without review
153. Section 12 balances—
a. Executive discretion and judicial oversight
b. Advisory Board authority and detainee representation
c. Preventive detention powers and detainee rights
d. Police powers and public interest
154. Section 13 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Grounds of detention
b. Constitution of Advisory Boards
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Execution of detention orders
155. Under Section 13 of the NSA, 1980, the maximum period for which a person may be detained is—
a. Three months from the date of detention
b. Six months from the date of detention
c. Twelve months from the date of detention
d. Twelve months from the date of confirmation
156. The maximum period of detention under Section 13 is calculated from—
a. The date of confirmation under Section 12
b. The date of arrest
c. The date of detention
d. The date of reference to the Advisory Board
157. Section 13 applies only when the detention order—
a. Is made by a District Magistrate
b. Is made by the Central Government
c. Has been confirmed under Section 12
d. Is challenged before the High Court
158. The proviso to Section 13 clarifies that—
a. Detention must continue for twelve months in all cases
b. The detention order cannot be revoked before twelve months
c. The appropriate Government may revoke or modify the detention order at any earlier time
d. Only courts can revoke detention orders
159. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Section 13?
a. Twelve months is the minimum period of detention
b. Detention automatically ends after six months
c. Detention cannot exceed twelve months from the date of detention
d. Detention can be extended beyond twelve months with court approval
160. The phrase “shall be twelve months” under Section 13 indicates that—
a. Detention must last for twelve months
b. Detention may extend up to twelve months but not beyond
c. Detention must be reviewed every month
d. Detention can continue indefinitely
161. Even after confirmation under Section 12, the appropriate Government—
a. Loses all control over the detention order
b. Can revoke or modify the detention order at any earlier time
c. Must wait for twelve months to revoke detention
d. Requires Advisory Board approval to revoke detention
162. Section 13 reflects which constitutional principle?
a. Absolute executive discretion
b. Judicial supremacy
c. Safeguard against indefinite preventive detention
d. Police autonomy
163. The combined reading of Sections 12 and 13 shows that—
a. Detention can be confirmed but cannot exceed twelve months
b. Advisory Board can fix the period of detention
c. Detention begins only after confirmation
d. Twelve months is counted from the Advisory Board report
164. Section 14 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Maximum period of detention
b. Execution of detention orders
c. Revocation and modification of detention orders
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
165. Section 14(1) begins with the phrase “Without prejudice to the provisions of”—
a. Section 3 of the NSA
b. Section 12 of the NSA
c. Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
d. Article 22 of the Constitution
166. The expression “without prejudice to Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897” implies—
a. Section 21 does not apply
b. Section 14 overrides Section 21
c. Powers under Section 21 continue to apply independently
d. Section 21 applies only to Central Government orders
167. A detention order made by an officer under Section 3(3) may be revoked or modified by—
a. Only the officer who made the order
b. Only the State Government
c. The State Government to which the officer is subordinate or the Central Government
d. Only the Advisory Board
168. A detention order made by a State Government may be revoked or modified by—
a. Only the State Government
b. The District Magistrate
c. The Central Government
d. The High Court
169. The phrase “notwithstanding that the order has been made by” in Section 14(1) signifies—
a. Lack of jurisdiction
b. Supremacy of courts
c. Overriding power of the revoking authority
d. Automatic revocation
170. Under Section 14(2), the expiry or revocation of a detention order—
a. Permanently bars fresh detention
b. Bars fresh detention for twelve months
c. Does not bar the making of another detention order
d. Requires Advisory Board permission
171. The “earlier detention order” and “subsequent detention order” terminology is used in—
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14(2)
d. Section 8
172. Section 14(2) applies to detention orders made—
a. Only after the 1984 amendment
b. Only before the 1984 amendment
c. Both before and after the commencement of the National Security (Second Amendment) Act, 1984
d. Only to Central Government orders
173. The proviso to Section 14(2) applies when—
a. Fresh facts arise after revocation
b. The Advisory Board reports sufficient cause
c. No fresh facts have arisen after expiry or revocation of the earlier detention order
d. Detention order is made by the Central Government
174. Where no fresh facts have arisen, the maximum period of detention under the subsequent detention order—
a. Shall be twelve months from the subsequent detention
b. Shall be six months from revocation
c. Shall not extend beyond twelve months from the date of detention under the earlier detention order
d. Shall be decided by the Advisory Board
175. The proviso to Section 14(2) acts as a safeguard against—
a. Judicial review
b. Indefinite preventive detention by successive orders
c. Central Government intervention
d. Revocation of detention orders
176. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A revoked detention order permanently disables fresh detention
b. A subsequent detention order always allows a fresh 12-month period
c. Without fresh facts, detention cannot exceed 12 months from the first detention
d. Section 14 overrides Section 13
177. Section 14, read with Section 13, ensures—
a. Absolute executive discretion
b. Judicial control over detention
c. A balance between executive power and personal liberty
d. Automatic release after one year
178. Which section of the NSA expressly permits revocation or modification of detention orders at any time?
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14
d. Section 21
179. Section 14A of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Revocation of detention orders
b. Maximum period of detention
c. Detention beyond three months without Advisory Board opinion in specified circumstances
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
180. Section 14A begins with the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained in”—
a. This Act alone
b. Any judgment or decree only
c. This Act, or any judgment, decree or order of any court or other authority
d. The Constitution of India
181. Section 14A applies to detention orders made—
a. After 8th June, 1989
b. On or after 8th June, 1989
c. At any time before 8th June, 1989
d. Only during emergency
182. Under Section 14A(1), a person may be detained without obtaining the opinion of the Advisory Board for—
a. Any period
b. A period exceeding six months
c. A period longer than three months but not exceeding six months
d. Exactly six months
183. The period under Section 14A is calculated from—
a. The date of confirmation
b. The date of Advisory Board reference
c. The date of detention
d. The date of approval by Central Government
184. Section 14A applies only when the detention is made with a view to preventing a person in—
a. Any area in India
b. A notified emergency area
c. A disturbed area
d. A border area
185. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under Section 14A(1)?
a. Detention must relate to terrorist or disruptive activities
b. Detention must be in a disturbed area
c. Advisory Board opinion must be obtained
d. Detention must be for prevention purposes
186. Under Section 14A(1)(i), detention may be ordered to prevent a person from—
a. Acting against public morality
b. Interfering with the efforts of Government in coping with terrorist and disruptive activities
c. Committing ordinary criminal offences
d. Violating economic laws
187. Under Section 14A(1)(ii), acting in a manner prejudicial does NOT include—
a. Defence of India
b. Security of India
c. Maintenance of public order
d. Maintenance of supplies of commodities essential to the community
188. Which of the following IS included under Section 14A(1)(ii)?
a. Defence of India
b. Security of India
c. Security of the State
d. All of the above
189. Explanation 1 to Section 14A states that—
a. Advisory Board procedure shall apply
b. Explanation to Section 3(2) shall apply
c. Explanation to Section 8 shall apply
d. CrPC provisions shall apply
190. Explanation 2 defines “disturbed area” as an area notified under—
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act
c. Punjab Disturbed Areas Act, 1983 or Chandigarh Disturbed Areas Act, 1983
d. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
191. For the purposes of Section 14A, “terrorist and disruptive activities” mean—
a. Activities under IPC
b. Activities under UAPA
c. Activities within the meaning of the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Ordinance, 1987
d. Activities defined by the State Government
192. Which Ordinance is specifically referred to in Explanation 3 of Section 14A?
a. National Security Ordinance, 1980
b. Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Ordinance, 1987
c. Armed Forces Ordinance, 1983
d. Preventive Detention Ordinance, 1971
193. Section 14A is best described as—
a. A permanent provision applicable to all detention orders
b. A special, time-bound exceptional provision overriding normal safeguards
c. A procedural clarification
d. A judicial review provision
194. Section 14A(2) provides that in the case of persons covered under Section 14A(1), which sections shall operate with modifications?
a. Sections 3, 8 and 9 only
b. Sections 3, 8 and 10 to 14
c. Sections 3 to 14
d. Sections 8 to 14 only
195. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(i)(A), the period of “ten days” in the proviso to Section 3(4) is substituted by—
a. Twelve days
b. Fifteen days
c. Twenty days
d. Thirty days
196. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(i)(B), the period of “fifteen days” in the proviso to Section 3(4) is substituted by—
a. Twenty days
b. Twenty-five days
c. Thirty days
d. Ten days
197. Under Section 14A(2)(a)(ii), in Section 3(5), the words “seven days” are substituted by—
a. Ten days
b. Twelve days
c. Fifteen days
d. Twenty days
198. Section 14A(2)(b) modifies which provision of Section 8?
a. Section 8(2)
b. Section 8(1)
c. Explanation to Section 8
d. Entire Section 8
199. Under Section 14A(2)(b), the period of “ten days” in Section 8(1) is substituted by—
a. Twelve days
b. Fifteen days
c. Twenty days
d. Thirty days
200. Section 14A(2)(c) modifies the time limit in Section 10 from “within three weeks” to—
a. Within three months
b. Within four months
c. Within four months and two weeks
d. Within five months
201. Under Section 14A(2)(d)(i), the time limit for submission of the Advisory Board’s report under Section 11(1) is substituted from “seven weeks” to—
a. Three months
b. Four months
c. Five months
d. Five months and three weeks
202. Section 14A(2)(d)(ii) substitutes the words “detention of the person concerned” in Section 11(2) with—
a. Preventive detention of the person concerned
b. Continued detention of the person concerned
c. Lawful detention of the person concerned
d. Detention under this Act
203. Section 14A(2)(e) modifies Section 12 by substituting the words—
a. “Detention order” with “continued detention order”
b. “For the detention” with “for the continued detention”
c. “Period of detention” with “extended detention”
d. “Confirmation” with “continuation”
204. Under Section 14A(2)(f), the maximum period of detention under Section 13 is increased from “twelve months” to—
a. Eighteen months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
205. Section 14A(2)(g) modifies which provision of Section 14?
a. Section 14(1)
b. Section 14(2) main clause
c. Proviso to Section 14(2)
d. Entire Section 14
206. Under Section 14A(2)(g), the words “twelve months” in the proviso to Section 14(2) are substituted by—
a. Eighteen months
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
207. The cumulative effect of Section 14A(2) is to—
a. Reduce procedural safeguards
b. Shorten detention periods
c. Extend time limits and maximum detention periods
d. Abolish the Advisory Board system
208. Section 14A(2) represents—
a. A general amendment applicable to all detainees
b. A special modification applicable only to persons covered under Section 14A(1)
c. A judicial interpretation clause
d. A repealing provision
209. Section 15 of the National Security Act, 1980 deals with—
a. Revocation of detention orders
b. Temporary release of persons detained
c. Maximum period of detention
d. Constitution of Advisory Boards
210. Under Section 15(1), who is competent to direct the temporary release of a detained person?
a. Advisory Board
b. Detaining officer
c. Appropriate Government
d. High Court
211. The power of temporary release under Section 15(1) may be exercised—
a. Only once
b. Only after Advisory Board opinion
c. At any time
d. Only after confirmation under Section 12
212. Temporary release under Section 15(1) may be granted—
a. Only without conditions
b. Only with conditions
c. Either without conditions or upon conditions accepted by the person
d. Only on medical grounds
213. Which of the following is TRUE regarding conditions under Section 15(1)?
a. Conditions are mandatory in all cases
b. Conditions must be imposed by court
c. Conditions must be accepted by the detained person
d. Conditions cannot be cancelled
214. The appropriate Government may cancel the temporary release—
a. Only after breach of conditions
b. Only after court approval
c. At any time
d. Only on Advisory Board recommendation
215. Under Section 15(2), while directing temporary release, the appropriate Government may require the person—
a. To execute a personal bond only
b. To execute a bond with sureties only
c. To enter into a bond with or without sureties
d. To furnish cash security only
216. The bond under Section 15(2) is for—
a. Appearance before court
b. Observance of conditions of release
c. Good behaviour generally
d. Surrender of passport
217. Under Section 15(3), a person released temporarily is required to—
a. Report weekly to police
b. Remain within the State
c. Surrender himself at the time, place and authority specified
d. Apply for extension of release
218. The obligation to surrender under Section 15(3) applies—
a. Only when release is cancelled
b. Only when release period expires
c. Both when release is directed or cancelled
d. Only if bond is executed
219. Failure to surrender without sufficient cause under Section 15(4) is punishable with—
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to one year
c. Imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both
d. Life imprisonment
220. For punishment under Section 15(4), failure to surrender must be—
a. Intentional
b. Without sufficient cause
c. Repeated
d. Certified by police
221. Under Section 15(5), if a person fails to fulfil conditions of release—
a. Detention order automatically revives
b. Advisory Board opinion is required
c. The bond shall be declared forfeited
d. Only warning may be issued
222. Upon forfeiture of bond under Section 15(5), liability to pay the penalty falls upon—
a. Only the detained person
b. Only the sureties
c. Any person bound by the bond
d. The appropriate Government
223. Section 15 reflects which principle of preventive detention law?
a. Absolute detention without relaxation
b. Conditional liberty under executive control
c. Judicial supremacy
d. Mandatory court supervision
224. Under Section 16 of the National Security Act, 1980, protection is available against:
a. Suit only
b. Prosecution only
c. Suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding
d. Only criminal proceedings
225. Section 16 bars legal proceedings against which of the following authorities?
a. Only the Central Government
b. Only the State Government
c. Central Government, State Government, and any person
d. Only public servants acting under the Act
226. Which of the following proceedings is not barred against the Central or State Government under Section 16?
a. Suit
b. Prosecution
c. Other legal proceeding
d. None of the above
227. Under Section 16, protection to the Central Government and State Government extends to:
a. Suit and prosecution only
b. Suit or other legal proceeding
c. Prosecution or other legal proceeding
d. Suit, prosecution, and other legal proceeding
228. Which of the following proceedings is barred against any person under Section 16 of the NSA?
a. Suit only
b. Prosecution only
c. Suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding
d. Only departmental proceedings
229. For protection under Section 16 to apply, the act must be:
a. Lawful
b. Reasonable
c. Done in good faith
d. Approved by the Government
230. Protection under Section 16 applies to acts which are:
a. Actually, done in pursuance of the Act
b. Intended to be done in pursuance of the Act
c. Both a and b
d. Only acts done after confirmation of detention
231. The phrase “in pursuance of this Act” under Section 16 implies:
a. Acts done strictly under written orders
b. Acts connected with implementation of the Act
c. Acts done even outside statutory powers
d. Acts done only by government officers
232. Which of the following best describes the nature of protection under Section 16?
a. Absolute protection irrespective of intent
b. Conditional protection subject to good faith
c. Protection only for government officials
d. Protection only after judicial approval
233. If an act is done malafide under the National Security Act, Section 16:
a. Still provides immunity
b. Provides partial protection
c. Does not apply
d. Applies only to governments
234. Nothing in the National Security Act, 1980 shall apply or have any effect with respect to which of the following detention orders?
a. Detention orders made under Central laws
b. Detention orders made under any State law after commencement of the Act
c. Detention orders made under any State law in force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980
d. All preventive detention orders irrespective of time
235. The phrase “shall apply or have any effect” used in Section 17(1) indicates that the National Security Act:
a. Applies subject to State laws
b. Applies prospectively only
c. Has no applicability whatsoever to certain State detentions
d. Overrides State detention laws
236. Section 17(1) applies only when the detention order under a State law was:
a. Passed by the State Government
b. Confirmed by an Advisory Board
c. In force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980
d. Passed on grounds of public order
237. A person detained under a State law whose detention order was in force immediately before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. Article 22 of the Constitution
c. The provisions of such State law
d. The Code of Criminal Procedure
238. Where a detention order was made under a State Ordinance promulgated by the Governor and such Ordinance was replaced before commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 by a State enactment, the detention shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The original State Ordinance
c. The replacing State enactment
d. Central Government directions
239. If a State Ordinance was replaced after commencement of the National Security Ordinance, 1980 by a State enactment whose application is confined to detention orders made before such commencement, the detention shall be governed by:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The original State Ordinance
c. Such subsequent State enactment
d. Article 22(4) of the Constitution
240. The expression “as if this Act had not been enacted” in Section 17(1) implies that:
a. The Act partially applies
b. The Act overrides State law
c. The Act is to be treated as non-existent for such detentions
d. The Act applies subject to Central approval
241. Section 17(2) provides that nothing in Section 17 shall be deemed to bar:
a. Continuation of State detention indefinitely
b. Judicial review of detention orders
c. Making of a detention order under Section 3 of the NSA
d. Revocation of detention orders
242. A detention order under Section 3 of the NSA can be made against a person referred to in Section 17(1):
a. Even while the earlier State detention order is in force
b. Only after the earlier State detention order ceases to have effect
c. Only with prior Central Government approval
d. Only after repeal of the State law
243. The words “for any reason whatsoever” in Section 17(2) signify that cessation of the earlier detention may occur due to:
a. Expiry alone
b. Revocation alone
c. Judicial quashing alone
d. Any possible reason
244. According to the Explanation to Section 17, “State law” means:
a. Any law enacted by a State Legislature
b. Any law relating to public order
c. Any law providing for preventive detention on grounds mentioned in Section 3(2) and in force immediately before commencement of the Ordinance
d. Only ordinances promulgated by Governors
245. Reference to Section 3(2) in the Explanation to Section 17 is for the purpose of:
a. Limiting Central Government power
b. Defining the grounds of preventive detention relevant for State laws
c. Expanding judicial review
d. Repealing State detention laws
246. Which of the following correctly states the legal effect of Section 17?
a. NSA retrospectively invalidates State detention orders
b. NSA automatically replaces State detention laws
c. Existing State detentions continue unaffected, but fresh NSA detention is permissible after cessation
d. State detention orders revive after NSA detention
247. Section 18(1) of the National Security Act, 1980 provides for the repeal of:
a. The Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971
b. The National Security Ordinance, 1980 (11 of 1980)
c. All State preventive detention laws
d. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
248. The repeal under Section 18(1) takes effect with respect to:
a. The National Security Act, 1980
b. The National Security Ordinance, 1980
c. State detention enactments
d. Governor’s Ordinances
249. The words “Notwithstanding such repeal” used in Section 18(2) indicate that:
a. The repeal nullifies all prior actions
b. The repeal operates retrospectively
c. Certain effects of the repealed Ordinance are preserved
d. The Act applies only prospectively
250. According to Section 18(2), anything done or any action taken under the repealed Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done or taken under:
a. Article 22 of the Constitution
b. The repealed Ordinance itself
c. The corresponding provisions of this Act
d. Orders of the Central Government
251. The deeming fiction under Section 18(2) treats the National Security Act, 1980 as if it had come into force on:
a. The date of Presidential assent
b. 26th January, 1980
c. 23rd September, 1980
d. The date of repeal of the Ordinance
252. The legal effect of the phrase “as if this Act had come into force on the 23rd day of September, 1980” is to:
a. Give the Act retrospective penal effect
b. Validate actions taken under the Ordinance
c. Re-enact the Ordinance in entirety
d. Override constitutional safeguards
253. Section 18(2) specifically saves which of the following actions under the repealed Ordinance?
a. Detention orders confirmed by courts
b. References made under section 10 of the Ordinance
c. Orders passed by the Central Government
d. Advisory Board reports already submitted
254. For the saving under Section 18(2) to apply to a reference under section 10 of the Ordinance, such reference must be:
a. Decided before repeal
b. Pending before any Advisory Board immediately before Presidential assent
c. Made after repeal
d. Approved by the State Government
255. A reference made under section 10 of the repealed Ordinance and pending before an Advisory Board may continue to be dealt with after Presidential assent:
a. Only after reconstitution of the Board
b. By the Central Government
c. By that Board as if constituted under section 9 of this Act
d. Only after fresh reference
256. The Advisory Board referred to in Section 18(2) is deemed to be constituted under which provision of the National Security Act, 1980?
a. Section 3
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
257. The continuation of proceedings before the Advisory Board under Section 18(2) applies:
a. Only until repeal of the Act
b. Only before Presidential assent
c. Even after the Act receives Presidential assent
d. Only if revalidated by notification
258. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 18(2)?
a. Penal provision
b. Substantive detention power
c. Repeal and saving clause with deeming fiction
d. Procedural safeguard
259. Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to Section 18?
a. Repeal of the Ordinance invalidates all prior actions
b. Actions under the Ordinance lapse on Presidential assent
c. Prior actions and pending references are saved and continued under the Act
d. Advisory Boards under the Ordinance cease to function immediately