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1. Comparative negligence means:
a. Plaintiff shares responsibility
b. Defendant alone responsible
c. Court responsible
d. Government responsible
2. Under comparative negligence:
a. Damages are divided proportionately
b. Plaintiff receives nothing
c. Defendant pays nothing
d. Court pays damages
3. Comparative negligence is considered more:
a. Harsh
b. Fair
c. Strict
d. Criminal
4. Contributory negligence completely:
a. Bars recovery
b. Reduces recovery
c. Increases damages
d. Creates contract
5. Comparative negligence generally:
a. Bars recovery
b. Reduces damages proportionately
c. Eliminates damages
d. Creates liability
6. One theory of contributory negligence is:
a. Theory of causation
b. Theory of negligence
c. Theory of fault
d. All of the above
7. The theory of causation suggests:
a. Plaintiff's negligence contributes to injury
b. Defendant alone causes harm
c. ourt causes harm
d. Contract causes harm
8. Joint negligence occurs when:
a. One person negligent
b. Multiple persons negligent together
c. Court negligent
d. Government negligent
9. When two or more defendants jointly cause damage:
a. Only one liable
b. All are jointly liable
c. Court liable
d. Plaintiff liable
10. Joint tortfeasors are:
a. Multiple persons committing same tort
b. One person committing tort
c. Government officials
d. Judges
11. Liability of joint tortfeasors is generally:
a. Joint and several
b. Separate only
c. Criminal only
d. Contractual only
12. Joint and several liability means:
a. Plaintiff can recover full damages from any defendant
b. Plaintiff must sue all defendants
c. Court pays damages
d. Government pays damages
13. If plaintiff is partly responsible for accident:
a. Defendant automatically wins
b. Contributory negligence may apply
c. Criminal law applies
d. Contract law applies
14. Comparative negligence allows courts to:
a. Divide fault among parties
b. Eliminate damages
c. Punish plaintiff
d. End case immediately
15. The purpose of comparative negligence is:
a. Fair distribution of liability
b. Punishment of plaintiff
c. Protection of contracts
d. Criminal enforcement
16. The harsh rule of contributory negligence was softened by:
a. Last Clear Chance Rule
b. Strict liability
c. Absolute liability
d. Sovereign immunity
17. If plaintiff was careless but defendant had final chance to avoid accident:
a. Defendant liable
b. Plaintiff liable
c. Court liable
d. Government liable
18. Comparative negligence is widely adopted in:
a. Modern legal systems
b. Ancient law
c. Criminal law only
d. Contract law only
19. The doctrine of contributory negligence mainly affects:
a. Damages recoverable
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property rights
d. Contract rights
20. The main difference between contributory and comparative negligence is:
a. Degree of liability distribution
b. Criminal liability
c. Property ownership
d. Contract formation
21. Trespass to person includes:
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False imprisonment
d. All of the above
22. Trespass to person is:
a. Direct interference with personal liberty
b. Breach of contract
c. Criminal offence only
d. Property damage
23. Assault means:
a. Physical injury
b. Threat of immediate force
c. Damage to property
d. Contract breach
24. Assault is:
a. Actual physical contact
b. Apprehension of immediate harm
c. Criminal punishment
d. Damage to land
25. If a person raises a fist threateningly:
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False imprisonment
d. Nuisance
26. Battery means:
a. Threat of force
b. Intentional and direct physical contact
c. Damage to land
d. Contractual breach
27. Battery requires:
a. Physical contact
b. Written statement
c. Property damage
d. Court order
28. Throwing an object at someone intentionally is:
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False imprisonment
d. Negligence
29. False imprisonment means:
a. Illegal detention of a person
b. Assault
c. Defamation
d. Trespass to land
30. False imprisonment requires:
a. Total restraint of liberty
b. Partial restraint
c. Physical injury
d. Property damage
31. If a person is locked in a room without legal authority:
a. Battery
b. Assault
c. False imprisonment
d. Nuisance
32. Knowledge of imprisonment by the plaintiff is:
a. Essential always
b. Not always necessary
c. Never relevant
d. Criminal rule
33. Remedy for trespass to person includes:
a. Damages
b. Injunction
c. Self defence
d. All of the above
34. Trespass to land means:
a. Interference with personal liberty
b. Direct physical interference with land
c. Defamation
d. Contract breach
35. Entry onto another’s land without permission is:
a. Nuisance
b. Trespass to land
c. Defamation
d. Battery
36. Trespass to land is actionable:
a. Only with damage
b. Without proof of damage
c. Only with contract
d. Only criminally
37. Throwing objects onto someone’s land may amount to:
a. Trespass to land
b. Battery
c. Assault
d. Negligence
38. Continuing presence on land after permission ends is:
a. Nuisance
b. Trespass
c. Battery
d. Assault
39. Defence to trespass to land includes:
a. Consent
b. Necessity
c. Statutory authority
d. All of the above
40. Remedy for trespass to land includes:
a. Damages
b. Injunction
c. Recovery of possession
d. All of the above
41. Trespass to goods refers to:
a. Direct interference with movable property
b. Damage to land
c. Assault
d. Defamation
42. Detinue means:
a. Wrongful detention of goods
b. Wrongful entry to land
c. Threat of harm
d. Physical assault
43. Conversion means:
a. Temporary detention of goods
b. Permanent deprivation of goods
c. Contract breach
d. Property transfer
44. Conversion occurs when a person:
a. Uses goods inconsistently with owner’s rights
b. Protects property
c. Transfers contract
d. Pays damages
45. Example of conversion is:
a. Selling another person's goods
b. Borrowing goods with permission
c. Returning goods safely
d. Protecting goods
46. Detinue differs from conversion because:
a. Detinue involves wrongful detention
b. Conversion involves wrongful use
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None
47. Trespass to goods requires:
a. Direct interference
b. Contract
c. Criminal act
d. Court order
48. Remedy for trespass to goods includes:
a. Damages
b. Return of goods
c. Compensation
d. All of the above
49. Trespass to person, land and goods are:
a. Direct torts
b. Indirect torts
c. Contractual wrongs
d. Criminal offences
50. The main purpose of trespass law is:
a. Protect personal and property rights
b. Protect contracts
c. Protect criminal law
d. Protect government authority
51. Malicious prosecution means:
a. Lawful prosecution
b. Prosecution instituted with malice and without reasonable cause
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract breach
52. The tort of malicious prosecution protects:
a. Reputation and personal liberty
b. Property rights
c. Contract rights
d. Government rights
53. One essential element of malicious prosecution is:
a. Prosecution by defendant
b. Contract
c. Ownership of land
d. Criminal conviction
54. Another essential element of malicious prosecution is:
a. Absence of reasonable and probable cause
b. Contract breach
c. Property damage
d. Ownership rights
55. The plaintiff must prove that the prosecution:
a. Ended in his favour
b. Ended in conviction
c. Is still pending
d. Was criminal
56. Malice in malicious prosecution means:
a. Personal ill-will or improper motive
b. Criminal punishment
c. Court order
d. Contract breach
57. Reasonable and probable cause refers to:
a. Honest belief in guilt based on reasonable grounds
b. Personal hatred
c. Court order
d. Government decision
58. If prosecution ends in conviction:
a. Action for malicious prosecution generally fails
b. Plaintiff automatically wins
c. Defendant is liable
d. Court pays damages
59. The plaintiff must also prove:
a. Damage suffered due to prosecution
b. Ownership of property
c. Contract formation
d. Government authority
60. Damage in malicious prosecution may include:
a. Loss of reputation
b. Loss of liberty
c. Financial loss
d. All of the above
61. The burden of proof in malicious prosecution lies on:
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Court
d. Government
62. False imprisonment means:
a. Lawful detention
b. Unlawful restraint of personal liberty
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract breach
63. The main difference between false imprisonment and malicious prosecution is:
a. False imprisonment involves detention without legal process
b. Malicious prosecution involves legal proceedings
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None
64. False imprisonment occurs when:
a. A person is detained without lawful justification
b. Court convicts person
c. Police prosecute lawfully
d. Contract is breached
65. Malicious prosecution requires:
a. Judicial proceedings
b. No legal process
c. Contract
d. Property damage
66. In false imprisonment:
a. Legal process is absent
b. Legal process exists
c. Contract exists
d. Criminal conviction required
67. In malicious prosecution:
a. Legal proceedings are instituted
b. No legal proceedings exist
c. Contract exists
d. Property damage occurs
68. If police detain a person without authority:
a. False imprisonment
b. Malicious prosecution
c. Defamation
d. Nuisance
69. If a person institutes criminal proceedings maliciously:
a. False imprisonment
b. Malicious prosecution
c. Battery
d. Trespass
70. Conspiracy in tort means:
a. Agreement between two or more persons to cause damage
b. Criminal conviction
c. Property damage
d. Contract breach
71. Tort of conspiracy requires:
a. Combination of two or more persons
b. One individual only
c. Court order
d. Contract formation
72. The objective of conspiracy is:
a. Cause harm to another person
b. Protect property
c. Protect contracts
d. Create liability
73. Conspiracy becomes actionable when:
a. Damage results from agreement
b. Agreement alone exists
c. Contract exists
d. Government intervenes
74. Conspiracy may involve:
a. Lawful acts done with unlawful intention
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract formation
d. Property rights
75. A common example of conspiracy is:
a. Combination to harm someone's business
b. Sale of goods
c. Contract agreement
d. Court judgment
76. In malicious prosecution, proceedings must be:
a. Civil only
b. Criminal proceedings
c. Contractual proceedings
d. Property proceedings
77. One remedy for malicious prosecution is:
a. Damages
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property seizure
78. Damages in malicious prosecution compensate for:
a. Injury to reputation and liberty
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property ownership
d. Contract rights
79. The tort of conspiracy mainly protects:
a. Economic and personal interests
b. Criminal law
c. Contract law
d. Constitutional law
80. The main purpose of malicious prosecution law is to:
a. Prevent misuse of legal process
b. Protect contracts
c. Protect property rights
d. Enforce criminal law
81. Occupier’s liability refers to:
a. Liability of tenant only
b. Liability of a person who controls premises
c. Criminal liability
d. Contractual liability
82. An occupier is a person who:
a. Owns property only
b. Has control over premises
c. Works in government
d. Manages contracts
83. Occupier’s liability mainly concerns:
a. Safety of persons entering premises
b. Contract formation
c. Criminal punishment
d. Ownership disputes
84. Persons entering premises by invitation are called:
a. Trespassers
b. Invitees
c. Offenders
d. Contractors
85. Invitees generally enter premises for:
a. Owner’s benefit or mutual benefit
b. Personal curiosity
c. Criminal purposes
d. Government orders
86. An example of an invitee is:
a. Customer entering a shop
b. Burglar entering house
c. Stranger entering secretly
d. Police officer arresting someone
87. The occupier owes invitees a duty to:
a. Ensure reasonable safety
b. Punish them
c. Ignore them
d. Detain them
88. The occupier must warn invitees about:
a. Hidden dangers
b. Obvious conditions
c. Contract terms
d. Criminal laws
89. If occupier fails to warn invitee about hidden danger:
a. Occupier may be liable
b. Invitee is liable
c. Government is liable
d. Court is liable
90. Invitation structures adjoining highways refer to:
a. Buildings near roads attracting visitors
b. Private houses
c. Government offices
d. Railway stations
91. Occupiers must ensure safety when structures adjoining highways:
a. Attract people from public road
b. Are private
c. Are abandoned
d. Are closed
92. If dangerous premises attract children from highway:
a. Occupier may be liable
b. Children are liable
c. Government is liable
d. Court is liable
93. Trespasser is a person who:
a. Enters premises without permission
b. Enters with invitation
c. Enters with contract
d. Enters with license
94. Traditionally, duty owed to trespassers was:
a. No duty except not to cause intentional harm
b. Full safety duty
c. Contractual duty
d. Criminal duty
95. Occupier must not:
a. Intentionally harm trespasser
b. Allow invitees
c. Maintain premises
d. Own property
96. If occupier sets traps for trespassers:
a. He may be liable
b. He is protected
c. Court is liable
d. Government liable
97. Licensee means a person who:
a. Enters premises with permission but not for business
b. Enters illegally
c. Owns the premises
d. Is government official
98. Example of licensee:
a. Social guest
b. Shop customer
c. Burglar
d. Stranger
99. Duty owed to licensee includes:
a. Warning about hidden dangers
b. Ensuring absolute safety
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
100. Occupier’s liability arises when:
a. Injury occurs due to dangerous premises
b. Contract exists
c. Criminal offence occurs
d. Property is sold
101. Dangerous premises may include:
a. Unsafe stairs
b. Open pits
c. Broken floors
d. All of the above
102. Occupier’s duty is based on:
a. Control over premises
b. Ownership alone
c. Criminal law
d. Contract law
103. If a visitor is injured due to unsafe condition:
a. Occupier may be liable
b. Visitor liable
c. Government liable
d. Court liable
104. Occupier must take:
a. Reasonable care for safety
b. No precautions
c. Criminal action
d. Contract enforcement
105. If danger is obvious and known:
a. Occupier may not be liable
b. Occupier always liable
c. Government liable
d. Court liable
106. Children trespassing may receive:
a. Greater protection
b. No protection
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
107. Occupier must maintain premises:
a. Reasonably safe
b. Perfectly safe
c. Completely open
d. Contractually safe
108. Remedy for injury due to dangerous premises includes:
a. Damages
b. Compensation
c. Legal action
d. All of the above
109. The purpose of occupier’s liability law is:
a. Protect visitors from unsafe premises
b. Protect contracts
c. Protect criminal law
d. Protect trade
110. Occupier’s liability is part of:
a. Law of torts
b. Criminal law
c. Contract law
d. Constitutional law
111. Remedies in tort law aim to:
a. Punish the defendant
b. Compensate the injured party
c. Enforce contracts
d. Protect criminal law
112. The main judicial remedy in tort is:
a. Damages
b. Imprisonment
c. Fine
d. Contract enforcement
113. Judicial remedies are remedies granted by:
a. Courts of law
b. Government officials
c. Police authorities
d. Private persons
114. The most common remedy in tort cases is:
a. Damages
b. Injunction
c. Restitution
d. Apology
115. Damages in tort law refer to:
a. Monetary compensation
b. Criminal punishment
c. Property seizure
d. Contract enforcement
116. The measure of damages means:
a. Method of calculating compensation
b. Criminal penalty
c. Property ownership
d. Contract value
117. General damages are:
a. Damages presumed by law
b. Damages specifically proved
c. Contract damages
d. Criminal damages
118. Special damages are:
a. Damages presumed by law
b. Damages that must be specifically proved
c. Criminal penalties
d. Contract damages
119. Prospective damages refer to:
a. Past losses
b. Future losses likely to occur
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract breach
120. Continuing damages arise when:
a. Injury continues over time
b. Contract continues
c. Crime continues
d. Property is transferred
121. In personal injury cases, damages may include:
a. Medical expenses
b. Loss of income
c. Pain and suffering
d. All of the above
122. Exemplary damages are awarded to:
a. Compensate loss
b. Punish the defendant
c. End contract
d. Protect property
123. Nominal damages are awarded when:
a. Legal right is violated but no actual loss occurs
b. Serious injury occurs
c. Contract is broken
d. Crime is committed
124. Contemptuous damages are awarded when:
a. Property is damaged
b. Defendant commits crime
c. Plaintiff technically wins but court disapproves claim
d. Contract exists
125. Damages are irrecoverable when:
a. Damage is too remote
b. Damage is foreseeable
c. Defendant negligent
d. Plaintiff injured
126. Damages cannot be recovered when:
a. Loss is remote or indirect
b. Loss is direct
c. Injury is serious
d. Negligence exists
127. Injunction is:
a. Monetary compensation
b. Court order restraining wrongful act
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
128. Injunction is granted to:
a. Prevent continuation of wrongful act
b. Punish plaintiff
c. Transfer property
d. Create contracts
129. Temporary injunction is:
a. Permanent order
b. Order granted for limited time
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
130. Permanent injunction is granted:
a. After final judgment
b. Before trial
c. During investigation
d. After appeal
131. Specific restitution of property means:
a. Returning property to rightful owner
b. Selling property
c. Damaging property
d. Contract transfer
132. Specific restitution may apply in cases of:
a. Wrongful detention of property
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract breach
d. Government seizure
133. Recovery of movable property is an example of:
a. Specific restitution
b. Injunction
c. Damages
d. Criminal remedy
134. Extrajudicial remedies are:
a. Remedies granted by courts
b. Self-help remedies without court action
c. Criminal punishments
d. Contractual remedies
135. Abatement of nuisance is an example of:
a. Judicial remedy
b. Extrajudicial remedy
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract enforcement
136. Self-defence is considered:
a. Judicial remedy
b. Extrajudicial remedy
c. Criminal punishment
d. Contract law
137. Re-entry on land is an example of:
a. Extrajudicial remedy
b. Criminal law
c. Contract remedy
d. Constitutional remedy
138. The aim of tort remedies is:
a. Restore injured party to original position
b. Punish plaintiff
c. End contracts
d. Create criminal liability
139. Damages for personal injury may include:
a. Loss of earnings
b. Medical expenses
c. Pain and suffering
d. All of the above
140. Remedies in tort law primarily focus on:
a. Compensation for harm
b. Criminal punishment
c. Contract enforcement
d. Property ownership