THE PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT, 1988
ACT NO. 49 OF 1988
1. Section 7A is primarily aimed at curbing:
a. Judicial corruption
b. Administrative delay
c. Influence-peddling
d. Misuse of office
2. Section 7A focuses more on:
a. Outcome of corruption
b. Public loss
c. Corrupt agreement and inducement
d. Recovery of money
3. Even if the public servant refuses to act improperly:
a. No offence is made out
b. Only attempt is punishable
c. Offence under Section 7A is still complete
d. Only departmental action lies
4. Section 7A is a:
a. Procedural provision
b. Substantive penal provision
c. Civil liability provision
d. Administrative guideline
5. Section 7A strengthens anti-corruption law by addressing:
a. Demand by public servant
b. Acceptance by public servant
c. Corrupt intermediaries and influence brokers
d. Departmental misconduct
6. Section 8 deals with the offence of:
a. Public servant accepting bribe
b. Giving bribe to public servant
c. Criminal misconduct
d. Influence peddling
7. The offender under Section 8 is:
a. Only a public servant
b. Any person
c. Only a middleman
d. Only a commercial organisation
8. Section 8 criminalises:
a. Demand of undue advantage
b. Acceptance of undue advantage
c. Giving or promising to give undue advantage
d. Possession of illegal assets
9. Undue advantage under Section 8 must be given with intention:
a. To help a friend
b. To induce or reward improper performance of public duty
c. To expedite lawful work
d. To avoid delay
10. Section 8 covers giving undue advantage to:
a. A public servant only
b. Any person
c. Another person or persons
d. Investigating officer
11. Reward under Section 8 relates to:
a. Lawful performance
b. Efficient performance
c. Improper performance of public duty
d. Delayed performance
12. Undue advantage under Section 8 may be:
a. Only given
b. Only promised
c. Given or promised to be given
d. Demanded
13. It is immaterial under Section 8 whether undue advantage is given:
a. In cash or kind
b. Directly or through third party
c. Before or after work
d. All of the above
14. A person gives money to a public servant to secure licence over other bidders. The offence falls under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 7A
c. Section 8
d. Section 13
15. Giving undue advantage to secure preferential treatment amounts to:
a. Lawful consideration
b. Administrative facilitation
c. Bribing of a public servant
d. Ethical lapse only
16. Maximum imprisonment under Section 8 may extend to:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
17. Punishment under Section 8 includes:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment or fine or both
d. Departmental action
18. Section 8 does not apply where a person:
a. Voluntarily gives bribe
b. Is compelled to give undue advantage
c. Gives undue advantage for reward
d. Influences public servant
19. Compulsion under Section 8 refers to:
a. Moral pressure
b. Social obligation
c. Coercive circumstances
d. Friendly request
20. A person compelled to give undue advantage must report the matter within:
a. Three days
b. Five days
c. Seven days
d. Ten days
21. Reporting under the second proviso must be made to:
a. Magistrate only
b. Employer
c. Law enforcement authority or investigating agency
d. Vigilance department only
22. Failure to report within seven days results in:
a. Automatic acquittal
b. Departmental action
c. Loss of protection under Section 8
d. Reduced punishment
23. When offence under Section 8 is committed by a commercial organisation:
a. Directors are imprisoned
b. Organisation is punished with fine
c. Organisation is dissolved
d. Only employees are liable
24. A commercial organisation under Section 8 cannot be punished with:
a. Fine
b. Penalty
c. Imprisonment
d. Monetary sanction
25. It is immaterial whether undue advantage is given to:
a. Same person who performs duty
b. Different person
c. Intermediary
d. All of the above
26. Section 8 applies even if the person receiving undue advantage:
a. Is not a public servant
b. Does not perform the duty
c. Is an intermediary
d. All of the above
27. Sub-section (2) protects a person who gives undue advantage:
a. Secretly
b. Under coercion
c. After informing law enforcement authority
d. Voluntarily
28. Giving undue advantage to assist investigation is:
a. Punishable
b. Protected under Section 8(2)
c. Departmental misconduct
d. Civil wrong
29. Prior intimation to authority is mandatory under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 7A
c. Section 8(2)
d. Section 9
30. Mens rea under Section 8 is:
a. Negligence
b. Knowledge
c. Intention to induce or reward improper duty
d. Recklessness
31. Actual improper performance of public duty is:
a. Mandatory
b. Irrelevant if undue advantage is given
c. Presumed
d. A defence
32. Section 8 is complementary to:
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 13
d. Section 19
33. Section 8 focuses primarily on:
a. Demand side corruption
b. Supply side corruption
c. Asset accumulation
d. Abuse of office
34. Section 8 strengthens anti-corruption law by punishing:
a. Only public servants
b. Only intermediaries
c. Bribe-givers
d. Investigators
35. The object of Section 8 is to:
a. Protect bribe-givers
b. Legalise facilitation payments
c. Deter offering of bribes
d. Reduce punishment
36. Section 9 primarily deals with:
a. Bribe demanded by public servant
b. Bribe given by individual
c. Bribe given by commercial organization
d. Criminal misconduct
37. Liability under Section 9 arises when offence is committed by:
a. Public servant
b. Individual agent only
c. Commercial organization
d. Government department
38. Punishment prescribed for a commercial organisation under Section 9 is:
a. Imprisonment
b. Imprisonment and fine
c. Fine only
d. Confiscation of property
39. Section 9 is attracted when a person associated with the organisation:
a. Demands undue advantage
b. Accepts undue advantage
c. Gives or promises to give undue advantage
d. Possesses disproportionate assets
40. Undue advantage must be given to:
a. Another organization
b. Any person
c. A public servant
d. Private contractor
41. Intention under Section 9 must be to:
a. Gain goodwill
b. Obtain or retain business or business advantage
c. Influence judiciary
d. Avoid taxation
42. “Advantage in the conduct of business” refers to:
a. Personal benefit
b. Lawful competition
c. Business-related benefit
d. Political favour
43. Section 9 covers undue advantage given to:
a. Obtain business only
b. Retain business only
c. Obtain or retain business or advantage in business
d. Secure promotion
44. Commercial organisation is liable even when:
a. Directors are unaware
b. Bribe is given by associated person
c. No contract is secured
d. All of the above
45. A statutory defence available to commercial organisation is:
a. Lack of mens rea
b. Ignorance of act
c. Adequate procedures to prevent bribery
d. Subsequent compliance
46. Burden to prove existence of adequate procedures lies on:
a. Prosecution
b. Court
c. Commercial organization
d. Investigating agency
47. Adequate procedures must comply with:
a. Internal policies only
b. Judicial precedents
c. Guidelines prescribed by Central Government
d. International conventions
48. A person is deemed to give undue advantage if:
a. He commits offence under Section 7
b. He commits offence under Section 8
c. He commits offence under Section 13
d. He is convicted
49. For Section 9, prosecution of associated person under Section 8 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Optional
c. Not necessary
d. Required with sanction
50. Even if the associated person is not prosecuted, the organisation:
a. Is discharged
b. Is not liable
c. Can still be punished
d. Gets immunity
51. A body incorporated in India carrying on business outside India is:
a. Not a commercial organization
b. A commercial organization
c. Foreign entity only
d. Government company
52. A body incorporated outside India carrying on part of business in India is:
a. Excluded
b. Included under Section 9
c. Exempted
d. Not punishable
53. Partnership firm formed in India carrying business outside India is:
a. Not covered
b. Covered as commercial organization
c. Government body
d. NGO
54. “Business” under Section 9 includes:
a. Trade only
b. Profession only
c. Providing service
d. All of the above
55. A person is associated with commercial organisation if he:
a. Is employee only
b. Is agent only
c. Performs services for or on behalf of organization
d. Holds shares
56. Giving undue advantage is:
a. Necessary to prove association
b. Irrelevant to association
c. Mandatory condition
d. A defence
57. Capacity in which services are performed:
a. Is decisive
b. Is irrelevant
c. Must be contractual
d. Must be salaried
58. Relationship of employee creates:
a. No presumption
b. Conclusive proof
c. Presumption of association
d. Presumption of innocence
59. Presumption regarding employee is:
a. Absolute
b. Irrebuttable
c. Rebuttable
d. Discretionary
60. Determination of association depends on:
a. Nature of contract alone
b. All relevant circumstances
c. Salary structure
d. Designation
61. Offences under Sections 7A, 8 and 9 are:
a. Non-cognizable
b. Compoundable
c. Cognizable
d. Bailable
62. Cognizable nature is declared:
a. Subject to CrPC
b. Notwithstanding CrPC
c. Only with warrant
d. By Magistrate
63. Authority to prescribe anti-bribery guidelines is vested in:
a. State Government
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. CVC
64. Guidelines are framed in consultation with:
a. Judiciary only
b. Police only
c. Concerned stakeholders
d. Parliament only
65. Objective of prescribing guidelines is to:
a. Punish organisations
b. Prevent bribing by associated persons
c. Increase prosecution
d. Reduce burden on courts
66. Section 9 targets corruption at the level of:
a. Demand side
b. Supply side
c. Organisational level
d. Individual misconduct
67. Section 9 is closely linked with:
a. Section 7
b. Section 7A
c. Section 8
d. Section 13
68. Mens rea of organisation is established through:
a. Board resolution
b. Acts of associated persons
c. Conviction of employee
d. Confession
69. Section 9 reflects incorporation of:
a. IPC principles
b. International anti-corruption standards
c. CrPC procedure
d. Civil liability
70. Section 10 deals with liability of:
a. Public servants
b. Private individuals
c. Persons in charge of commercial organization
d. Government companies only
71. Section 10 is attracted only when an offence is committed under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 11
72. Section 10 creates liability which is:
a. Civil
b. Administrative
c. Vicarious criminal liability
d. Strict civil liability
73. For invoking Section 10, offence under Section 9 must be:
a. Alleged
b. Suspected
c. Proved in court
d. Reported to police
74. Liability of officers arises only when offence is committed with:
a. Knowledge alone
b. Negligence
c. Consent or connivance
d. Ignorance
75. Mere position in organisation is:
a. Sufficient for liability
b. Irrelevant
c. Not sufficient without consent or connivance
d. Automatically punishable
76. Persons who may be held guilty under Section 10 include:
a. Director only
b. Manager only
c. Secretary only
d. Director, manager, secretary or other officer
77. The expression “other officer” implies:
a. Only board members
b. Any officer involved in management
c. Only government officers
d. Only senior-most employees
78. Liability under Section 10 is personal and:
a. Excludes organization
b. Is in addition to organisational liability
c. Replaces organisational liability
d. Applies only to individuals
79. Consent implies:
a. Passive negligence
b. Express or implied approval
c. Ignorance of act
d. Subsequent ratification only
80. Connivance refers to:
a. Active participation only
b. Passive acquiescence
c. Total ignorance
d. Absence during offence
81. Consent or connivance must be proved:
a. Presumptively
b. Beyond reasonable doubt
c. On balance of probabilities
d. Through confession only
82. Minimum punishment prescribed under Section 10 is:
a. One year imprisonment
b. Two years imprisonment
c. Three years imprisonment
d. Five years imprisonment
83. Maximum punishment prescribed under Section 10 is:
a. Five years imprisonment
b. Seven years imprisonment
c. Ten years imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
84. Punishment under Section 10 includes:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment or fine
d. Imprisonment and fine
85. While commercial organisation is punished with:
a. Imprisonment
b. Fine only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Confiscation
86. Officers under Section 10 are punished with:
a. Fine only
b. Warning
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Civil penalty
87. Section 10 supplements which provision:
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 7A
d. Section 11
88. Explanation to Section 10 defines “director” in relation to:
a. Company only
b. NGO
c. Firm
d. Trust
89. In case of a firm, “director” means:
a. Managing director
b. Authorized signatory
c. Partner
d. Shareholder
90. Purpose of explanation is to:
a. Limit liability
b. Expand meaning of director
c. Remove ambiguity
d. Exempt firms
91. Prosecution must prove:
a. Status of accused only
b. Offence under Section 9 only
c. Consent or connivance of officer
d. All of the above
92. Absence of consent or connivance leads to:
a. Automatic conviction
b. Discharge of officer
c. Fine only
d. Lesser punishment
93. Knowledge without approval may amount to:
a. Consent
b. Connivance
c. Innocence
d. Irrelevance
94. Section 10 embodies principle of:
a. Strict liability
b. Absolute liability
c. Attribution of criminal intent
d. Civil negligence
95. Liability under Section 10 is:
a. Automatic
b. Presumed
c. Conditional
d. Absolute
96. Section 10 applies irrespective of:
a. Size of organization
b. Nature of business
c. Incorporation status
d. All of the above
97. An officer cannot escape liability by claiming:
a. Delegation of work
b. Lack of personal gain
c. Lack of designation
d. Absence of consent
98. Section 10 strengthens:
a. Individual accountability
b. Corporate governance
c. Anti-corruption framework
d. All of the above
99. Correct statement regarding Section 10 is:
a. It punishes organisation only
b. It applies even without Section 9
c. It punishes officers for consent or connivance
d. It is a civil provision
100. Section 11 applies when a public servant obtains undue advantage:
a. By threat
b. As a reward for illegal act
c. Without consideration or for inadequate consideration
d. By coercion
101. The offence under Section 11 is committed when the public servant:
a. Demands bribe
b. Accepts undue advantage without consideration
c. Performs dishonest duty
d. Influences another public servant
102. Section 11 differs from Section 7 because it:
a. Requires demand
b. Requires quid pro quo
c. Does not require improper performance of duty
d. Applies only to private persons
103. Undue advantage under Section 11 may be obtained:
a. Only for himself
b. Only for relatives
c. For himself or for any other person
d. Only for public duty
104. Consideration under Section 11 must be:
a. Adequate and lawful
b. Market based
c. Known to be adequate by accused
d. Judicially determined
105. Acceptance of undue advantage for consideration known to be inadequate constitutes:
a. No offence
b. Civil liability
c. Offence under Section 11
d. Misconduct only
106. Undue advantage must be obtained from a person who is:
a. Stranger
b. Accused only
c. Concerned or likely to be concerned in proceedings or business
d. Government servant
107. Section 11 applies even if the person giving undue advantage is:
a. Directly involved only
b. Interested or related to the concerned person
c. Totally unconnected
d. Unknown to public servant
108. Relationship relevant under Section 11 includes:
a. Social relationship only
b. Business relationship only
c. Interest or relation with concerned person
d. Political relationship only
109. The proceeding or business must be:
a. Illegal
b. Judicial only
c. Connected with official functions or public duty
d. Pending in court
110. Section 11 applies if the person is concerned in business:
a. Already completed only
b. About to be transacted
c. Future possibility only
d. Personal transaction
111. Public servant’s knowledge regarding connection is:
a. Irrelevant
b. Presumed
c. Essential ingredient
d. Optional
112. Mens rea under Section 11 consists of:
a. Dishonest intention only
b. Knowledge of inadequate consideration
c. Criminal conspiracy
d. Negligence
113. Demand of undue advantage is:
a. Mandatory
b. Presumed
c. Not required
d. Essential
114. Section 11 criminalises acceptance even if:
a. Duty is properly performed
b. No favour is shown
c. No act is done
d. All of the above
115. Minimum punishment under Section 11 is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
116. Maximum punishment under Section 11 may extend to:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
117. Punishment under Section 11 includes:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Civil penalty
118. Section 11 focuses on:
a. Bribe for favour
b. Abuse of official position
c. Unexplained benefit connected with official dealings
d. Criminal intimidation
119. Section 11 covers cases of:
a. Gratuitous benefits
b. Social gifts unrelated to duty
c. Gifts connected with official work
d. Charitable donations
120. Section 11 is attracted even when undue advantage is:
a. Small in value
b. Customary
c. Non-monetary
d. All of the above
121. Prosecution must prove:
a. Public servant status
b. Acceptance of undue advantage
c. Connection with official duty
d. All of the above
122. Absence of quid pro quo means:
a. No offence
b. Civil liability
c. Section 11 still applies
d. Case must fail
123. Section 11 primarily addresses:
a. Active bribery
b. Passive bribery without explicit demand
c. Corporate bribery
d. Political corruption
124. Section 11 aims to prevent:
a. Moral corruption only
b. Administrative delay
c. Conflict of interest in public office
d. Procedural irregularity
125. Acceptance of a gift by a public servant from an interested party is:
a. Always legal
b. Always illegal
c. Punishable if without adequate consideration
d. Punishable only if demanded
126. Section 11 is a safeguard against:
a. Political influence
b. Gratuitous enrichment of public servants
c. Judicial bias
d. Corporate fraud
127. The offence under Section 11 is complete when:
a. Public duty is affected
b. Undue advantage is accepted
c. Proceedings are concluded
d. Complaint is filed
128. Knowledge of likelihood of concern in proceeding is:
a. Not relevant
b. Relevant and sufficient
c. Optional
d. Presumed conclusively
129. Correct statement regarding Section 11:
a. Demand is essential
b. Improper performance must be shown
c. Acceptance without consideration linked to duty is punishable
d. It applies only to senior officers
130. Section 12 applies to a person who:
a. Commits a corruption offence
b. Abets a corruption offence
c. Reports a corruption offence
d. Investigates a corruption offence
131. Abetment under Section 12 is punishable:
a. Only if the offence is actually committed
b. Even if the offence is not committed
c. Only if the abettor receives benefit
d. Only if a public servant is involved
132. Minimum imprisonment for abetment under Section 12 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six months
133. Maximum imprisonment for abetment under Section 12 is:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Life imprisonment
134. Punishment under Section 12 includes:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment only
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Community service
135. “Abetment” under Section 12 includes:
a. Instigating an offence
b. Conspiring to commit an offence
c. Aiding or facilitating an offence
d. All of the above
136. Section 12 applies to abetment of offences punishable under:
a. Only Section 7
b. Only Sections 7, 8, and 9
c. Any section of the Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Criminal Procedure Code only
137. It is not necessary under Section 12 that:
a. The abetment leads to actual commission of offence
b. The abetment be intentional
c. The abettor is a public servant
d. The abetment involve money
138. Abetment can be:
a. Direct only
b. Indirect only
c. Either direct or indirect
d. Only by public servant
139. Section 12 differs from Section 7 because:
a. Section 7 deals with bribery, Section 12 with abetment
b. Section 7 applies to commercial organisations
c. Section 12 has lower punishment
d. Section 7 requires prior consent
140. Abetment under Section 12 may include:
a. Instigating a public servant to take bribe
b. Helping someone hide evidence of bribe
c. Providing means to commit corruption
d. All of the above
141. Abetment requires the abettor to:
a. Know the offence is punishable
b. Intend or knowingly assist in offence
c. Be present at the crime scene
d. Give undue advantage
142. Abetment under Section 12 is complete when:
a. The offence is committed
b. The abetment act is done
c. The victim complains
d. Prosecution is filed
143. Minimum fine under Section 12:
a. Not prescribed specifically
b. ₹2,000
c. ₹5,000
d. ₹10,000
144. Maximum imprisonment under Section 12:
a. Seven years
b. Five years
c. Ten years
d. Life
145. If a person advises a public servant to accept bribe but the bribe is never given, is he liable?
a. No, offence not completed
b. Yes, liable under Section 12
c. Only civilly liable
d. Only if he profits
146. Helping a colleague commit an offence punishable under the Act constitutes:
a. No liability
b. Liability under Section 12
c. Minor misconduct
d. Administrative penalty
147. Abetment can be committed by:
a. Public servant only
b. Private individual only
c. Any person
d. Commercial organisation only
148. Abetment under Section 12 is cognizable:
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if sanctioned
d. Only after complaint
149. Section 12 encourages:
a. Reporting corruption
b. Punishing instigators
c. Punishing only bribe-takers
d. Administrative caution
150. A person abets a public servant to accept a bribe. The offence is punishable even if:
a. Bribe is refused
b. Bribe is given
c. Bribe is pending
d. None
151. Section 12 reinforces:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. All offences under the Act
152. Punishment under Section 12 is same as:
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
d. Section 11
153. Abetment liability arises:
a. Only if abettor benefits
b. Whether or not offence is committed
c. Only if abettor is public servant
d. Only if offence succeeds
154. Abetment under Section 12 includes:
a. Instigation
b. Conspiracy
c. Aiding
d. All of the above
155. If a person plans a bribery act but is prevented from acting, liability is:
a. Not liable
b. Liable under Section 12
c. Liable under civil law only
d. None
156. Section 12 applies to abetment committed:
a. In India only
b. Anywhere if connected with Indian public servant
c. Only by public servant
d. Only by commercial organisations
157. Abetment for minor gifts connected to duty:
a. Liable under Section 12
b. Only under civil law
c. Not an offence
d. Only under Section 7
158. Section 12 punishment includes:
a. Imprisonment 3–7 years
b. Fine
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. None
159. Purpose of Section 12:
a. To punish instigators of corruption
b. To punish only bribe-takers
c. To encourage bribery reporting
d. To regulate commercial organisations
160. A public servant commits criminal misconduct under Section 13 if he:
a. Misappropriates property entrusted to him
b. Illicitly enriches himself during office
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
161. Misappropriation under Section 13 includes:
a. Using public property for personal gain
b. Allowing someone else to use it dishonestly
c. Both a and b
d. Only physical theft
162. Intentionally enriching oneself illicitly is presumed if:
a. Public servant receives a bonus
b. Possesses pecuniary resources disproportionate to known income
c. Owns a house purchased legally
d. Gifts received from relatives
163. Known sources of income means:
a. Any source of money
b. Only lawful sources of income
c. Gifts from friends
d. Property inherited from relatives
164. Minimum imprisonment for criminal misconduct under Section 13 is:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six months
165. Maximum imprisonment for criminal misconduct under Section 13 is:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Five years
166. Punishment under Section 13 also includes:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment only
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Community service
167. Section 13 applies to:
a. Only elected public servants
b. Any public servant
c. Only commercial organisation employees
d. Private sector employees
168. “Disproportionate to known sources of income” refers to:
a. Any unexplained wealth
b. Wealth exceeding salary or known lawful income
c. Gifts exceeding 1 lakh
d. Any property in possession
169. Possession of illicit wealth can be presumed:
a. Only during investigation
b. At any time during the period of office
c. Only after retirement
d. Only after complaint is filed
170. A public servant diverts government funds into his own account. This constitutes:
a. Criminal misconduct under Section 13
b. Only civil liability
c. Minor misconduct
d. Ethical violation only
171. If a public servant is unable to explain wealth disproportionate to income:
a. No action
b. Presumed to have enriched illicitly
c. Punishable only if bribery is proven
d. Only departmental action
172. Allowing another person to misuse public property also amounts to:
a. Criminal misconduct under Section 13(a)
b. Only negligence
c. Only civil liability
d. Minor infraction
173. Criminal misconduct requires:
a. Dishonest or fraudulent intention
b. Mere negligence
c. Accidental loss
d. Only administrative fault
174. Illicit enrichment is:
a. Only if direct personal gain is obtained
b. Presumed if resources are disproportionate
c. Only when caught red-handed
d. Only if bribe received
175. Misappropriation includes:
a. Physical theft of property
b. Conversion of property for personal use
c. Allowing misuse by others
d. All of the above
176. Section 13 punishment is more severe than:
a. Section 7 (accepting bribe)
b. Section 12 (abetment)
c. Section 8 (giving bribe)
d. None
177. Fine under Section 13:
a. Is mandatory only
b. Is in addition to imprisonment
c. Can replace imprisonment
d. None
178. Criminal misconduct under Section 13(b) covers:
a. Bribery
b. Illicit enrichment
c. Abuse of office
d. Collusion
179. Section 13 is aimed at preventing:
a. Minor misconduct
b. Corruption and abuse of office
c. Only bribery
d. Only procedural lapses
180. Possession of disproportionate wealth is:
a. Conclusive proof of offence
b. Presumptive proof, rebuttable
c. Ignored unless bribe is proven
d. Only administrative evidence
181. Public servant allowing another to misappropriate property is:
a. Not punishable
b. Criminal misconduct
c. Only departmental fault
d. Ethical violation
182. Section 13 applies to:
a. Only tangible property
b. Tangible and intangible property
c. Only money
d. Only immovable property
183. Illicit enrichment under Section 13(b) includes:
a. Receiving bribe
b. Using office resources for personal gain
c. Accepting kickbacks
d. All of the above
184. If a public servant cannot explain disproportionate assets, the law presumes:
a. Honest accumulation
b. Criminal misconduct
c. Administrative fault
d. Only minor breach
185. Section 13 offence is:
a. Cognizable
b. Non-cognizable
c. Only civil
d. Only departmental
186. Criminal misconduct can include:
a. Misuse of government funds
b. Personal enrichment during tenure
c. Allowing others to commit similar acts
d. All of the above
187. Property under “control as public servant” includes:
a. Government property
b. Property held in trust
c. Resources linked to official duty
d. All of the above
188. Section 13 is distinct because it punishes:
a. Direct bribe only
b. Abuse of office and illicit enrichment
c. Abetment only
d. Commercial offences
189. Maximum imprisonment under Section 13 is:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Five years
190. Section 14 applies to a person who:
a. Commits a first-time offence under this Act
b. Commits a subsequent offence under this Act after previous conviction
c. Commits an offence outside India
d. Commits a civil offence
191. Minimum imprisonment under Section 14 is:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years
192. Maximum imprisonment under Section 14 is:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Eight years
193. Section 14 punishment also includes:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment only
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Community service
194. A person convicted under Section 7 commits another offence under Section 8. Section 14 applies because:
a. It’s a first offence
b. It’s a subsequent offence after conviction
c. It’s outside jurisdiction
d. Only civil liability applies
195. A habitual offender is:
a. Any person committing any offence
b. A person committing repeated offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act
c. A public servant performing duties improperly
d. Any person convicted of minor offences
196. Section 14 aims to:
a. Reduce punishment for first-time offenders
b. Punish repeated offenders more severely
c. Only impose fines
d. Only suspend public servants
197. If a person is convicted under this Act twice, the second conviction triggers:
a. Section 7
b. Section 14
c. Section 12
d. Section 13
198. Section 14 punishment cannot be less than:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Six years
199. Maximum fine under Section 14:
a. Fixed at 10,000
b. As determined by the court
c. No fine is allowed
d. Fixed at 50,000
200. The term “habitual offender” under Section 14 refers to:
a. First-time offender
b. Repeat offender under the Act
c. Civil defaulter
d. Private citizen
201. Section 14 ensures:
a. Leniency for repeat offenders
b. Stricter punishment for repeat offenders
c. Only warning for repeat offenders
d. Suspension from work
202. Section 14 is applicable to:
a. Commercial organisations
b. Public servants only
c. Both public servants and any person convicted under the Act
d. Only government employees
203. If a person is acquitted previously, Section 14:
a. Applies
b. Does not apply
c. Only civil liability applies
d. Maximum punishment is ten years automatically
204. Section 14 enhances punishment because:
a. Offender is habitual
b. Offender is first-time
c. Offender is under investigation
d. Offender is a private citizen
205. Minimum punishment for a habitual offender under Section 14 is greater than:
a. Section 7
b. Section 12
c. Section 13
d. Section 8
206. Section 14 maximum sentence:
a. 7 years
b. 10 years
c. Life imprisonment
d. 5 years
207. The main objective of Section 14:
a. Encourage first-time offenders
b. Deter habitual corruption
c. Promote leniency
d. Impose minor fines
208. Section 14 imprisonment cannot be less than:
a. Four years
b. Five years
c. Three years
d. Six months
209. Section 14 imprisonment cannot exceed:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Five years
210. Section 15 of the Prevention of Corruption Act deals with:
a. Punishment for habitual offenders
b. Punishment for attempt to commit criminal misconduct
c. Punishment for commercial organisations
d. Punishment for bribery of public servants
211. Minimum imprisonment under Section 15 is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Four years
212. Maximum imprisonment under Section 15 is:
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
213. Section 15 applies to an attempt to commit offences under:
a. Section 7
b. Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 13
c. Section 8
d. Section 12
214. Section 15 also prescribes:
a. Only imprisonment
b. Only fine
c. Imprisonment and fine
d. Community service
215. A public servant tries to misappropriate government funds but fails. Which section applies?
a. Section 7
b. Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 14
216. Section 15 is a subset of:
a. Bribery offences
b. Criminal misconduct offences
c. Commercial organisation offences
d. Civil offences
217. Attempting to convert entrusted property for personal use is punishable under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 12
d. Section 10
218. Section 15 punishment is:
a. Not less than two years and not more than five years
b. Not less than three years and not more than seven years
c. Not less than four years and not more than ten years
d. Not less than one year and not more than three years
219. Fine under Section 15 is:
a. Optional
b. Mandatory
c. Cannot be imposed
d. Limited to 10,000
220. Section 15 applies even if the attempt:
a. Succeeds
b. Fails
c. Is committed by a commercial organization
d. Occurs outside India
221. Section 15 punishment is less than:
a. Section 13
b. Section 14
c. Section 7
d. Section 12
222. Section 15 applies only to:
a. Habitual offenders
b. Attempted criminal misconduct
c. Bribing by commercial organisations
d. Public complaints
223. A public servant tries to enrich himself illicitly during office but is caught before success. Applicable section:
a. Section 13
b. Section 15
c. Section 14
d. Section 7A
224. Imprisonment under Section 15 cannot be less than:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
225. Maximum imprisonment under Section 15 is:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years