1. What is the subject matter of Section 16 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of licences
b. Duty on liquor or intoxicating drugs
c. Appeal procedure
d. Establishment of warehouses
2. Under Section 16, duty on liquor or intoxicating drugs shall be levied—
a. Automatically
b. Only by court order
c. If the Government so directs
d. Only after licence cancellation
3. Duty under Section 16 may be imposed on liquor or intoxicating drugs that are—
a. Only manufactured locally
b. Only imported
c. Only exported
d. Manufactured, imported, or exported
4. The rate of duty under Section 16 is determined by—
a. Legislature only
b. Commissioner
c. Government from time to time
d. Excise Officer
5. The Government under Section 16 has the power to—
a. Abolish the Act
b. Exempt liquor or intoxicating drugs from duty
c. Cancel all licences
d. Suspend courts
6. The duty referred to in Section 16 applies to liquor or intoxicating drugs manufactured or moved within which territory?
a. Any State in India
b. Only foreign countries
c. Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir
d. Only districts notified
7. What is the subject matter of Section 16-A of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Duty on liquor
b. Approval to the label
c. Grant of licence
d. Transport permit
8. Under Section 16-A, no liquor shall be purchased, stored or sold unless—
a. Duty is waived
b. Label is approved by Commissioner
c. Permit is cancelled
d. Court order is obtained
9. Section 16-A applies to liquor—
a. Only manufactured locally
b. Only imported
c. Manufactured or imported
d. Only exported
10. The authority empowered to approve liquor labels under Section 16-A is—
a. Deputy Commissioner
b. Excise Officer
c. Commissioner
d. Magistrate
11. Approval of label under Section 16-A is subject to—
a. Court decree only
b. Conditions laid down by Commissioner
c. Legislative resolution
d. Police verification only
12. The fee for label approval under Section 16-A is specified by—
a. Commissioner
b. Legislature
c. Government by notification in Official Gazette
d. Excise Inspector
13. ) What is the subject matter of Section 17 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Approval of labels
b. How duty may be imposed
c. Transport permits
d. Appeal provisions
14. Under Section 17, duty on spirits or beer may be charged based on—
a. Market demand
b. Quantity produced or passed out
c. Number of workers
d. Selling price only
15. Duty on intoxicating drugs may be levied on—
a. Only sale price
b. Only weight after sale
c. Quantity produced/manufactured or acreage cultivated
d. Transport distance only
16. Payment of a sum for grant of privilege under Section 17 relates to—
a. Court fines
b. Exclusive or other privilege of manufacture or sale
c. Transport permits
d. Tax refunds
17. Section 17 allows duty to be imposed through fees on—
a. Appeals
b. Licences for manufacture or sale
c. Warehousing
d. Import passes only
18. Transport duties under Section 17 are assessed as directed by—
a. Commissioner
b. Magistrate
c. Government
d. Police authority
19. Clause (f) of Section 17 provides for duty on—
a. Storage
b. Import permits
c. Bottling of liquor
d. Retail shops only
20. What is the subject matter of Section 18 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Appeal procedure
b. Duties may be farmed
c. Transport permits
d. Import restrictions
21. Under Section 18, duties leviable in any local area may be farmed with the sanction of—
a. Commissioner
b. Deputy Commissioner
c. Government
d. Excise Officer
22. Duties farmed under Section 18 are subject to payment and conditions prescribed by—
a. Courts
b. Government
c. Commissioner alone
d. Licensee
23. Persons farming duties under Section 18 must obtain licences from the—
a. Government
b. Finance Department
c. Commissioner
d. Deputy Commissioner
24. What is the subject matter of Section 19 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of licences
b. Farmer may let or assign privilege
c. Appeal provisions
d. Import of liquor
25. Under Section 19, a grantee of an exclusive or other privilege may let or assign such privilege—
a. Only with court permission
b. Only with Government order
c. In absence of contract or condition to the contrary
d. Never
26. A lessee or assignee of a privilege can exercise rights only after—
a. Paying duty
b. Registering agreement
c. Receiving licence from the Commissioner
d. Informing Deputy Commissioner
27. Who must apply for licence for a lessee or assignee under Section 19?
a. The Government
b. The grantee or farmer
c. The lessee alone
d. The District Magistrate
28. What is the subject matter of Section 20 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of exclusive privilege
b. Forms and conditions of licences and permits
c. Import restrictions
d. Duty assessment
29. Under Section 20(1), every licence or permit granted under the Act shall be granted—
a. Without conditions
b. Only for lifetime validity
c. Subject to fees, period, restrictions, conditions, and prescribed form
d. Only with court approval
30. Who determines the fees, period, restrictions, conditions, form, and particulars of licences or permits?
a. Commissioner alone
b. Deputy Commissioner
c. Government
d. Excise Inspector
31. The Government may exercise its power regarding licence conditions—
a. Only generally
b. Only in special cases
c. Either generally or in particular instances
d. Only through rules made by Parliament
32. Under Section 20(2), the Government may delegate its powers under sub-section (1) to whom?
a. Any private contractor
b. The Commissioner
c. The Court
d. Police Officer
33. Delegation of powers under Section 20(2) by the Government is—
a. Absolute and unconditional
b. Subject to conditions specified in the order
c. Not permitted
d. Valid only for one year
34. What is the subject matter of Section 21 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Appeals procedure
b. Counterpart agreements and security by licensees
c. Transport permits
d. Excise duty rates
35. Under Section 21, who may be required to execute a counterpart agreement?
a. Any government officer
b. Any person taking out a licence under the Act
c. Only wholesale dealers
d. Only manufacturers
36. The counterpart agreement must conform to—
a. Government policy
b. Court orders
c. The tenor of the licence
d. The Excise Commissioner’s opinion
37. Who may require a licensee to give security for performance of his agreement?
a. Deputy Commissioner
b. Police Commissioner
c. Commissioner
d. Magistrate
38. The security required under Section 21 is for ensuring—
a. Payment of income tax
b. Performance of licence agreement obligations
c. Renewal of licence
d. Appeal filing
39. What is the subject matter of Section 22 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of licences
b. Power to recall licences
c. Duty exemptions
d. Transport permits
40. Who has the power to cancel or suspend a licence or permit under Section 22?
a. Deputy Commissioner
b. Magistrate
c. Commissioner
d. Police Officer
41. A licence may be cancelled if the holder fails to—
a. Submit annual report
b. Pay any fee or duty payable
c. Renew passport
d. File appeal
42. A licence or permit may be cancelled for breach committed by—
a. Only the holder personally
b. Only government officials
c. Holder, his servants, or persons acting on his behalf
d. Only family members
43. Conviction of the licence holder for which offence can lead to cancellation?
a. Only excise offences
b. Only civil offences
c. Only traffic offences
d. Any offence under excise law or any cognizable or non-bailable offence
44. A licence granted on application of a privilege holder may be cancelled—
a. Automatically after one year
b. Only by court order
c. On written requisition of that person
d. Only by government notification
45. A licence may be cancelled or suspended at will if—
a. Government orders so verbally
b. The conditions of licence provide for it
c. The licensee requests it
d. The police recommend it
46. Illegal transportation of liquor from a distillery by the licence holder may result in—
a. Warning only
b. Fine only
c. Suspension or cancellation of licence
d. No action
47. What is the subject matter of Section 23 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of licences
b. Testing instruments requirement for licensees
c. Appeals procedure
d. Duty exemption
48. Section 23 applies to which persons?
a. Only importers of liquor
b. Only transporters of liquor
c. Persons who manufacture or sell country liquor under a licence
d. All citizens
49. Licensees must supply themselves with prescribed instruments for—
a. Bottling liquor
b. Testing strength of liquor
c. Storing liquor
d. Transporting liquor
50. Who directs which testing instruments must be kept by the licensee?
a. Deputy Commissioner
b. Police Officer
c. Commissioner
d. Court
51. Licensees must keep testing instruments—
a. Locked away permanently
b. In good condition
c. Only during inspections
d. Only at night
52. On requisition of an authorised Excise officer, the licensee must—
a. Close his shop
b. Submit accounts only
c. Measure or test liquor strength as required
d. Destroy liquor
53. The power to require testing of liquor strength can be exercised—
a. Only once a year
b. Only during renewal
c. At any time
d. Only with court permission
54. What is the subject matter of Section 24 of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act, 1958?
a. Grant of licences
b. Recovery of duties, taxes, fines and fees
c. Transport permits
d. Manufacture rules
55. Amounts payable under the Act may be recovered as if they were—
a. Civil damages
b. Criminal penalties
c. Arrears of land revenue
d. Bank loans
56. From whom may dues be recovered under Section 24?
a. Only the Commissioner
b. Only the Government
c. The person liable or his surety
d. Only courts
57. In case of default by a grantee or farmer, who may take the grant or farm under management?
a. Deputy Commissioner alone
b. Commissioner with Government approval
c. Police officer
d. District Judge
58. If a grant or farm is taken under management, it is done—
a. At Government expense
b. At public expense
c. At the risk of the defaulter
d. Without liability
59. The Commissioner may declare the grant or farm forfeited and—
a. Destroy it
b. Transfer it free of cost
c. Resell it at the risk and loss of the defaulter
d. Keep it permanently
60. When a grant or farm is under management, the Commissioner may recover dues from lessees or assignees as if they were—
a. Income tax arrears
b. Civil court decrees
c. Arrears of land revenue
d. Customs duties
61. What does Section 24-A of the Jammu and Kashmir Excise Act deal with?
a. Grant of licences
b. Consequences of non-payment of tax or dues
c. Manufacture of liquor
d. Import permits
62. Section 24-A applies when tax or other amount due under the Act is not paid within—
a. Six months only
b. One year
c. Specified time or three months from demand, whichever is earlier
d. Anytime
63. Who becomes liable to pay additional charges for non-payment?
a. Only Government officers
b. The licensee or person from whom it is due
c. Any citizen
d. Only transporters
64. The additional sum payable for delayed payment is—
a. 5% per year
b. 10% lump sum
c. 2% per month or part thereof
d. 1% per week
65. The additional 2% is calculated on—
a. Total assets
b. Tax or amount due
c. Salary
d. Profit only
66. The liability to pay the additional sum arises—
a. Only after court order
b. Automatically after delay
c. Only after notice from police
d. After licence renewal
67. What is the subject matter of Section 24-B?
a. Cancellation of licence
b. Refund of duty, tax, fine or fee wrongly paid
c. Transport rules
d. Manufacture of liquor
68. Section 24-B provides refund when an amount is paid—
a. Late
b. Voluntarily
c. Under protest
d. Which was not payable under the Act
69. The refunded amount shall include interest at the rate of—
a. 1% per month
b. 2% per month
c. 5% per annum
d. No interest
70. Interest on refund is calculated for the period of—
a. Litigation
b. Default
c. Assessment
d. Audit
71. If a person has recovered the amount from another person, refund shall be given to—
a. Government treasury
b. Original payer
c. The person from whom it was recovered
d. Commissioner only
72. If refund is mistakenly given to a person not entitled to it, the amount shall be recovered—
a. By civil suit only
b. As arrears of land revenue
c. By police action only
d. Through arbitration
73. What is the subject matter of Section 25?
a. Grant of licences
b. Powers to frame rules
c. Appeal provisions
d. Offences and penalties
74. Under Section 25, who may frame rules?
a. Commissioner
b. Magistrate
c. Government
d. Court
75. Rules may determine the number of licences to be granted in—
a. Any State
b. Any country
c. Any district or place
d. Any village only
76. Rules may regulate the number, size and description of stills used in—
a. Warehouses only
b. Distilleries
c. Police stations
d. Courts
77. The Government may prescribe instruments for testing—
a. Water
b. Oil
c. Liquor
d. Milk
78. Clause (cc) relates to procedure for regulating vending of country liquor through—
a. Tender
b. Auction
c. Lottery
d. Nomination
79. Rules may prescribe measures to be used for the sale of—
a. Petrol
b. Country liquor
c. Medicines
d. Milk
80. Rules may fix maximum or minimum prices of liquor or opium in—
a. Any court
b. Any office
c. Any local area
d. Any country
81. Rules may provide for warehousing of liquor and intoxicating drugs and their—
a. Destruction only
b. Removal and deposit
c. Sale only
d. Manufacture only
82. Rules may be made for inspection and supervision of stills, distilleries and—
a. Schools
b. Private warehouses and breweries
c. Banks
d. Hospitals
83. Rules may regulate management of public distilleries established under—
a. Section 10
b. Section 13
c. Section 18
d. Section 22
84. Rules may place growth of poppy or hemp plant under—
a. Ban only
b. Supervision and control
c. Auction only
d. Court order only
85. The Government may prohibit use of articles deemed—
a. Expensive
b. Imported
c. Noxious or objectionable
d. Rare
86. Rules may provide for grant of batta to witnesses summoned before—
a. Police constable
b. Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner
c. Clerk
d. Panchayat
87. Rules may regulate powers of Excise Department officers to—
a. Arrest judges
b. Summon witnesses
c. Conduct elections
d. Issue passports
88. Clause (ll) deals with prescribing and limiting powers and duties of—
a. Judges
b. Police inspectors
c. Excise and Taxation Officers
d. Advocates
89. Rules may provide for disposal of—
a. Government lands
b. Confiscated articles and proceeds
c. Court files
d. Vehicles only
90. Rewards may be granted to officers or persons assisting in—
a. Elections
b. Detection or conviction of offences under the Act
c. Trade promotion
d. Census
91. Clause (o) empowers rules to be framed generally to—
a. Amend Constitution
b. Override courts
c. Carry out provisions of the Act or related laws
d. Cancel licences automatically
92. ) What power is granted under Section 26?
a. Power to arrest without warrant
b. Power to issue search warrant
c. Power to impose tax
d. Power to grant bail
93. Who may issue a search warrant under Section 26?
a. Only Police Officer
b. Only Commissioner
c. Magistrate or Deputy Commissioner
d. Excise Inspector only
94. A search warrant may be issued upon information given by—
a. Any citizen only
b. Excise Officer, Police Officer, or other person
c. Judge only
d. Lawyer only
95. Before issuing a warrant, the authority must—
a. Take oath from accused
b. Conduct inquiry as he thinks necessary
c. Obtain court decree
d. Take Government approval
96. A warrant can be issued if there is reason to believe that—
a. Tax is unpaid
b. Licence expired
c. An offence under the Act has been committed
d. Civil dispute exists
97. The purpose of issuing such warrant is to—
a. Punish accused immediately
b. Assist in detection of offence
c. Grant compensation
d. Cancel licence
98. Search warrant may be issued for search of—
a. Only liquor
b. Only drugs
c. Liquor, intoxicating drugs, or related materials/apparatus
d. Money only
99. Which of the following items may be searched under this section?
a. Still
b. Utensil
c. Implement or apparatus
d. All of the above
100. The items searched must relate to—
a. Civil dispute
b. Revenue collection only
c. Alleged offence under the Act
d. Personal property tax
101. What special power is granted under Section 27?
a. Power to issue licences
b. Power to search without warrant
c. Power to grant bail
d. Power to impose tax
102. Which officers are authorized to search without warrant?
a. Any police constable
b. Only Commissioner
c. Revenue Officer ≥ Naib-Tehsildar / Police Officer ≥ Sub-Inspector / Excise Officer ≥ Inspector
d. Any government servant
103. Such power can be exercised when the officer—
a. Receives written complaint only
b. Has reasons to believe an offence has been committed
c. Gets court order
d. Receives anonymous call
104. Warrantless search is allowed if obtaining a warrant would—
a. Delay investigation
b. Cost money
c. Be inconvenient
d. Likely allow offence to go undetected
105. Before conducting search without warrant, officer must—
a. Inform accused
b. Take permission from Government
c. Record reasons and grounds of belief
d. Take oath
106. Search without warrant may be conducted—
a. Only during daytime
b. Only during night
c. At any time day or night
d. Only office hours
107. Officer may seize items if he believes they are—
a. Valuable
b. Evidence in civil case
c. Liable to confiscation under the Act
d. Personally useful
108. Officer may detain and search persons found at the place if he believes they—
a. Are witnesses
b. Are government servants
c. Are guilty of offence under the Act
d. Refuse cooperation
109. After search, the officer may arrest a person found at the place if—
a. Person requests arrest
b. Officer thinks proper and has reason to believe guilt
c. Court orders instantly
d. Media demands
110. The prerequisite for exercising power under Section 27 is—
a. Written approval from Magistrate
b. Presence of two witnesses
c. Recorded reasons and belief of offence
d. Approval of Commissioner
111. What is the main subject of Section 28?
a. Grant of licences
b. Power to inspect places of manufacture and sale
c. Cancellation of permits
d. Appeal procedure
112. Who is authorized to exercise powers under Section 28?
a. Any government employee
b. Only Magistrate
c. Excise Officer ≥ Inspector rank or officer empowered by Government
d. Only Police Officer
113. Such officer may enter places of manufacture—
a. Only during daytime
b. Only with warrant
c. At any time day or night
d. Only after notice
114. Inspection of places where liquor is kept for sale may be done—
a. Only at night
b. Only when closed
c. Only during working hours of officer
d. During the time the place is open
115. Section 28 applies to places where manufacture is carried on by—
a. Any person
b. Licensed manufacturer
c. Unlicensed person
d. Transporter
116. Which of the following can the officer examine during inspection?
a. Only liquor bottles
b. Only accounts
c. Materials, stills, utensils, apparatus, liquor or intoxicating drugs
d. Only labels
117. The power to inspect storage places applies when—
a. Liquor is illegally stored
b. Liquor is kept for sale by licensed person
c. Liquor belongs to Government
d. Complaint is filed
118. Which of the following actions is NOT expressly mentioned in Section 28?
a. Measuring
b. Testing
c. Weighing
d. Destroying
119. Inspection powers under Section 28 extend to—
a. Only liquor
b. Only intoxicating drugs
c. Both liquor and intoxicating drugs
d. Neither
120. The purpose of inspection under Section 28 is primarily to—
a. Collect revenue
b. Ensure compliance with licence conditions and law
c. Punish offenders instantly
d. Issue new licences
121. What is the main subject of Section 29?
a. Grant of licences
b. Use of force for entry in case of resistance
c. Sale of liquor
d. Duty payment
122. Section 29 applies when an officer—
a. Wants to issue licence
b. Cannot otherwise make entry
c. Has completed inspection
d. Has seized goods
123. Which sections are referred to as the “last two preceding sections”?
a. Sections 26 & 27
b. Sections 27 & 28
c. Sections 25 & 26
d. Sections 28 & 29
124. If resisted, the officer may lawfully—
a. Leave immediately
b. File complaint only
c. Break open doors or windows
d. Seek public permission
125. The power to break open applies to—
a. Only outer doors
b. Only windows
c. Outer or inner doors or windows
d. Only gates
126. Besides breaking doors or windows, the officer may also—
a. Arrest owner immediately
b. Remove obstacles to entry
c. Cancel licence
d. Seal premises permanently
127. Section 29 grants power only if officer is—
a. Any government servant
b. Empowered under preceding sections
c. Private contractor
d. Complainant
128. The force allowed under Section 29 is—
a. Unlimited
b. Only verbal force
c. Reasonable force necessary for entry
d. Prohibited
129. The purpose of using force under Section 29 is to—
a. Punish occupants
b. Seize property
c. Gain lawful entry
d. Collect tax
130. Section 29 primarily supports enforcement of powers given in—
a. Licensing provisions
b. Duty provisions
c. Search and inspection provisions
d. Appeal provisions
131. What is the main subject of Section 30?
a. Grant of licences
b. Arrest and seizure without warrant
c. Tax collection
d. Appeal procedure
132. Under Section 30(1), who can arrest without warrant?
a. Only Magistrate
b. Only Police Inspector
c. Excise & Taxation Officer, Police Officer ≥ Head Constable, or empowered person
d. Any citizen
133. A police officer must be at least what rank to arrest under this section?
a. Constable
b. Head Constable
c. Sub-Inspector
d. Inspector
134. Arrest without warrant is allowed when a person is found committing an offence under—
a. Any law
b. Only Section 48
c. Sections 48, 50, or 50-A
d. Only Section 50-A
135. Officers may seize articles if they have—
a. Written complaint
b. Court order
c. Reason to believe they are liable to confiscation
d. Owner’s permission
136. The power of search extends to—
a. Only persons
b. Only vehicles
c. Persons and conveyances or containers
d. Buildings only
137. Which of the following can be searched under this section?
a. Boat
b. Vehicle
c. Animal carrying goods
d. All of these
138. The officer may detain a person if he—
a. Confesses guilt
b. Refuses to cooperate
c. Is reasonably suspected of carrying contraband
d. Requests detention
139. The term “article” liable to confiscation includes—
a. Only liquor
b. Only drugs
c. Liquor, drugs, or other relevant articles
d. Only packaging material
140. The basis required for arrest/search/seizure under Section 30 is—
a. Absolute proof
b. Suspicion without basis
c. Reasonable cause or belief
d. Court summons