THE PROHIBITION OF CHILD MARRIAGE ACT, 2006
1. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act was enacted in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Fifty-fifth
b. Fifty-sixth
c. Fifty-seventh
d. Fifty-eighth
2. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 corresponds to which Act number?
a. Act No. 5 of 2006
b. Act No. 6 of 2006
c. Act No. 5 of 2007
d. Act No. 6 of 2007
3. On which date did the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 receive Presidential assent?
a. 9th January, 2007
b. 10th January, 2007
c. 11th January, 2007
d. 1st January, 2007
4. The primary object of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 is to:
a. Regulate child marriages under special circumstances
b. Penalise parents and guardians for child marriages
c. Prohibit the solemnisation of child marriages
d. Declare child marriages void ab initio
5. The phrase “and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto” in the long title indicates that the Act:
a. Applies only to solemnisation ceremonies
b. Is limited strictly to prohibition provisions
c. Covers ancillary and consequential matters related to child marriage
d. Applies only where punishment is prescribed
6. Which legislative body enacted the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006?
a. State Legislatures
b. Parliament
c. Constituent Assembly
d. Law Commission of India
7. The enacting clause of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 begins with which expression?
a. “It is hereby declared”
b. “Be it enacted by Parliament”
c. “Whereas it is expedient”
d. “In exercise of the powers conferred”
8. Which of the following best describes the nature of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 based on its long title?
a. Curative legislation
b. Regulatory legislation
c. Prohibitory legislation
d. Declaratory legislation
9. The words “connected therewith or incidental thereto” are significant because they:
a. Restrict the scope of the Act
b. Expand the operational scope of the Act
c. Make the Act prospective only
d. Limit judicial interpretation
10. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 was enacted to replace primarily which earlier legislation?
a. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
b. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2000
d. Special Marriage Act, 1954
11. Section 1 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily deals with which of the following?
a. Definitions under the Act
b. Punishments and offences
c. Short title, territorial extent and commencement
d. Jurisdiction of courts
12. According to Section 1(1), the correct short title of the Act is:
a. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 2006
b. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2005
c. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
d. The Child Marriage (Prevention) Act, 2006
13. The territorial extent of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 under Section 1(2) is:
a. Only to the States of India
b. To the whole of India excluding Union Territories
c. To the whole of India
d. To such States as notified by the Central Government
14. Apart from extending to the whole of India, the Act also applies to:
a. All residents of India
b. All persons domiciled in India
c. All citizens of India within India only
d. All citizens of India without and beyond India
15. The application of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 to Indian citizens outside India indicates that the Act has:
a. Retrospective operation
b. Strict liability
c. Extra-territorial operation
d. Temporary application
16. Which category of persons is expressly excluded from the application of this Act by virtue of the proviso to Section 1(2)?
a. Members of Scheduled Tribes
b. Foreign nationals residing in India
c. Renoncants of the Union Territory of Pondicherry
d. Persons governed by customary law
17. The term “Renoncants” referred to in Section 1(2) proviso is associated with which Union Territory?
a. Chandigarh
b. Daman and Diu
c. Puducherry (Pondicherry)
d. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
18. The exclusion of Renoncants under the Act is based on:
a. Religious identity
b. Citizenship status
c. Personal law renunciation
d. Age-based classification
19. Section 1(3) provides that the Act shall come into force:
a. On the date of Presidential assent
b. On the date of its publication in the Gazette automatically
c. On such date as appointed by the Central Government by notification
d. On 10th January, 2007 uniformly across India
20. The authority empowered to appoint the date of commencement of the Act is:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Central Government
21. The notification bringing the Act into force must be published in:
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Law Commission Report
d. Parliamentary Bulletin
22. Section 1(3) permits the Central Government to:
a. Appoint only one uniform date for the entire country
b. Appoint different dates for different States
c. Delegate commencement power to States
d. Apply the Act retrospectively in some States
23. Where different dates are appointed for different States, a reference to the commencement of the Act shall be construed as:
a. The date of Presidential assent
b. The date of Central notification
c. The date of enforcement in that particular State
d. The earliest notified date
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The Act automatically came into force on 10 January 2007
b. The Act applies to Renoncants of Pondicherry
c. The Act applies to Indian citizens residing abroad
d. The Act extends only to notified States
25. The phrase “without and beyond India” used in Section 1(2) is most closely related to which constitutional concept?
a. Federal supremacy
b. Personal law application
c. Extra-territorial legislative competence
d. Delegated legislation
26. The definition clause of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 begins with which qualifying phrase?
a. “Notwithstanding anything contained elsewhere”
b. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
c. “Unless the context otherwise requires”
d. “Save as otherwise expressly provided”
27. Under Section 2(a), a male is considered a “child” if he has not completed the age of:
a. Eighteen years
b. Twenty years
c. Twenty-one years
d. Twenty-five years
28. Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, a female is considered a “child” if she has not completed:
a. Sixteen years
b. Seventeen years
c. Eighteen years
d. Twenty-one years
29. The definition of “child” under Section 2(a) is based on:
a. Uniform age for both genders
b. Gender-neutral majority principles
c. Different age thresholds for males and females
d. Personal law applicable to the parties
30. A “child marriage” under Section 2(b) means a marriage where:
a. Both contracting parties are children
b. The bride is a child
c. The bridegroom is a child
d. Either of the contracting parties is a child
31. Which of the following situations would constitute a “child marriage” under the Act?
a. Marriage where both parties are above 18 years
b. Marriage where the male is 22 and female is 17
c. Marriage where both parties are 20 years old
d. Marriage solemnised after attaining majority
32. The term “contracting party”, in relation to a marriage, refers to:
a. The parents of the parties
b. The guardians of the parties
c. Either of the parties whose marriage is or is about to be solemnized
d. Only the bride and bridegroom after marriage
33. The expression “is or is about to be solemnised” in the definition of “contracting party” indicates that the Act applies:
a. Only after a marriage is completed
b. Only to void marriages
c. To both existing and imminent marriages
d. Only to registered marriages
34. Which of the following best describes the nature of the definition of “Child Marriage Prohibition Officer” under Section 2(d)?
a. Exhaustive definition
b. Restrictive definition
c. Inclusive definition
d. Penal definition
35. The term “Child Marriage Prohibition Officer” includes an officer appointed under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16(1)
d. Section 17
36. The definition of “district court” under Section 2(e) is structured on the basis of:
a. Uniform civil court hierarchy
b. Availability of Family Courts and city civil courts
c. Criminal court jurisdiction
d. Population of the district
37. In an area where a Family Court has been established under the Family Courts Act, 1984, the “district court” for the purposes of this Act shall mean:
a. The Sessions Court
b. The High Court
c. Such Family Court
d. The Chief Judicial Magistrate’s Court
38. Where no Family Court exists but a city civil court exists, the “district court” under this Act shall be:
a. The principal civil court of original jurisdiction
b. The High Court exercising original jurisdiction
c. The city civil court
d. The Sessions Court
39. In areas where neither a Family Court nor a city civil court exists, the “district court” means:
a. The Sessions Court
b. The principal civil court of original jurisdiction
c. The Subordinate Civil Court
d. The Magistrate’s Court
40. Apart from courts expressly mentioned, which authority may specify any other civil court as having jurisdiction under this Act?
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court of India
41. The specification of an additional civil court as “district court” under Section 2(e) must be done through:
a. Circular
b. Executive order
c. Judicial pronouncement
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
42. The definition of “minor” under Section 2(f) is linked to which statute?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
c. Majority Act, 1875
d. Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
43. Under the Majority Act, 1875, a “minor” is a person who has:
a. Not completed eighteen years of age in all cases
b. Not attained majority as per personal law
c. Not attained majority as deemed under the Act
d. Been declared minor by a court
44. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. “Child” and “minor” are synonymous under the Act
b. Every minor is necessarily a child under the Act
c. Definitions under the Act override the Majority Act
d. “Minor” is defined by reference to another statute
45. The phrase “unless the context otherwise requires” in Section 2 implies that:
a. Definitions are rigid and inflexible
b. Definitions may yield to contextual interpretation
c. Definitions apply only to penal provisions
d. Definitions apply retrospectively
46. Section 3 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 declares a child marriage to be:
a. Void ab initio
b. Illegal but valid
c. Voidable at the option of the contracting party who was a child
d. Void only upon court declaration
47. A child marriage under Section 3 is voidable at the option of:
a. Either party to the marriage
b. Parents of the child
c. The contracting party who was a child at the time of marriage
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
48. A petition for annulling a child marriage by a decree of nullity may be filed by:
a. Either spouse
b. Parents or guardians
c. Any aggrieved person
d. Only the contracting party who was a child at the time of marriage
49. The petition for annulment of a child marriage under Section 3 shall be filed before:
a. Family Court
b. Juvenile Justice Board
c. District Court
d. High Court
50. If the petitioner is a minor at the time of filing the petition, it may be filed through:
a. Guardian alone
b. Guardian or next friend along with the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Parent alone
d. Advocate appointed by court
51. A petition under Section 3 must be filed:
a. Within one year of marriage
b. At any time after marriage
c. Before completion of two years after attaining majority
d. Before attaining majority
52. The limitation period under Section 3 is calculated from:
a. Date of marriage
b. Date of discovery of marriage
c. Date of commencement of the Act
d. Date of attaining majority
53. While granting a decree of nullity, the District Court shall direct:
a. Only the husband to return gifts
b. Only parents to return money
c. Both parties and their parents or guardians to return marriage gifts or equivalent value
d. The State to compensate the victim
54. The order for return of money, valuables, or gifts under Section 3(4) can be passed only after:
a. Summary inquiry
b. Recording of evidence
c. Issuing notice and giving opportunity to show cause
d. Recommendation of Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
55. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 3?
a. Penal provision
b. Declaratory provision
c. Beneficial and remedial provision
d. Procedural provision
56. Section 4 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily provides for:
a. Punishment for child marriage
b. Annulment of child marriage
c. Maintenance and residence for female contracting party
d. Custody of children born from child marriage
57. The power of the district court under Section 4 can be exercised:
a. Independently of Section 3
b. Only while granting a decree under Section 3
c. Only after completion of trial
d. Only upon application by parents
58. Under Section 4(1), the district court may pass which type of maintenance order?
a. Only interim order
b. Only final order
c. Either interim or final order
d. Only permanent order
59. The primary liability to pay maintenance under Section 4(1) is on:
a. Parents of the female contracting party
b. Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Male contracting party to the child marriage
d. State Government
60. If the male contracting party to the child marriage is a minor, the liability to pay maintenance shifts to:
a. The State
b. The district court
c. His employer
d. His parent or guardian
61. Maintenance under Section 4 is payable to the female contracting party:
a. For life
b. Till she attains majority
c. Till dissolution of marriage
d. Till her remarriage
62. Which of the following statements correctly reflects Section 4(1)?
a. Maintenance is mandatory in every case
b. Maintenance is discretionary and linked to Section 3 decree
c. Maintenance is payable only if marriage is void
d. Maintenance is payable to both contracting parties
63. The determination of the quantum of maintenance under Section 4(2) is based on:
a. Fixed statutory amount
b. Discretion of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Factors prescribed by the district court
d. Consideration of specific statutory factors
64. Which of the following is NOT a factor expressly mentioned under Section 4(2) for determining maintenance?
a. Needs of the child
b. Lifestyle enjoyed during marriage
c. Means of income of the paying party
d. Conduct of the female contracting party
65. The expression “needs of the child” in Section 4(2) refers to:
a. Only food expenses
b. Only medical expenses
c. Comprehensive needs of the female contracting party
d. Needs of children born from marriage
66. The reference to “lifestyle enjoyed by such child during her marriage” indicates that maintenance:
a. Must be minimal
b. Is punitive in nature
c. Must ensure continuity of standard of living
d. Is unrelated to prior circumstances
67. The means of income considered under Section 4(2) relate to:
a. Only the income of the female contracting party
b. Only the income of the male contracting party
c. Only government income slabs
d. The income of the paying party
68. Under Section 4(3), the district court may direct maintenance to be paid:
a. Only monthly
b. Only annually
c. Only in lump sum
d. Either monthly or in lump sum
69. The choice between monthly payment and lump sum payment under Section 4(3) lies with:
a. The paying party
b. The female contracting party
c. The district court
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
70. Section 4(4) empowers the district court to pass an order regarding residence only when:
a. The marriage is declared void
b. The female contracting party files the petition under Section 3
c. The male contracting party is a minor
d. Both parties seek residence order
71. The residence order under Section 4(4) may subsist:
a. Permanently
b. Till the female attains majority
c. Till the final decree
d. Till her remarriage
72. Which of the following correctly reflects the gender-specific nature of Section 4?
a. Maintenance is payable to either party
b. Residence can be claimed by either party
c. Relief is specifically for the female contracting party
d. Relief applies equally to both minors
73. The nature of power exercised by the district court under Section 4 is:
a. Mandatory and mechanical
b. Discretionary and welfare-oriented
c. Penal and deterrent
d. Appellate
74. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Maintenance under Section 4 is independent of Section 3
b. Maintenance can continue even after remarriage
c. Parents of the male minor may be made liable
d. Residence order is automatic
75. Section 4 reflects which underlying legislative objective?
a. Criminal punishment
b. Contractual enforcement
c. Social welfare and protection of minor females
d. Uniform civil code implementation
76. Section 5 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily deals with:
a. Legitimacy of children
b. Punishment for child marriage
c. Custody and maintenance of children of child marriages
d. Annulment of child marriages
77. The power to pass orders under Section 5 vests in which authority?
a. Family Court only
b. Juvenile Justice Board
c. District Court
d. Magistrate of First Class
78. Under Section 5(1), the district court is required to make an order for custody:
a. Only upon application by either party
b. Only if marriage is declared void
c. Where there are children born of the child marriage
d. Only if the children are minors
79. The nature of the custody order under Section 5(1) is best described as:
a. Optional and discretionary
b. Mandatory upon existence of children
c. Conditional upon consent of parents
d. Temporary in nature
80. While deciding custody under Section 5(2), the district court shall treat which factor as paramount?
a. Wishes of parents
b. Financial capacity of parents
c. Welfare and best interests of the child
d. Customary law
81. The expression “paramount consideration” under Section 5(2) implies that:
a. It is one of many equal considerations
b. It overrides all other considerations
c. It applies only to maintenance
d. It applies only when parties disagree
82. Which of the following is NOT expressly provided under Section 5(3)?
a. Directions for access to the child
b. Manner of access to serve child’s interest
c. Orders in the interest of the child
d. Termination of parental rights
83. Section 5(3) permits the district court to grant access to the child to:
a. Only the mother
b. Only the father
c. The other party to the marriage
d. Any relative of the child
84. The guiding principle for determining access rights under Section 5(3) is:
a. Equality between parents
b. Convenience of the parents
c. Best interests of the child
d. Statutory age limits
85. Apart from custody and access, Section 5(3) empowers the district court to:
a. Pass punitive orders
b. Pass such other orders as it deems proper in the interest of the child
c. Refer the matter to mediation compulsorily
d. Appoint a guardian ad litem
86. Section 5(4) authorises the district court to make orders for:
a. Maintenance to the female contracting party
b. Maintenance to the male contracting party
c. Maintenance to the child
d. Maintenance to grandparents
87. Under Section 5(4), maintenance to the child may be directed to be paid by:
a. Only the father
b. Only the mother
c. Only the contracting parties
d. A party to the marriage or their parents or guardians
88. The extension of maintenance liability to parents or guardians under Section 5(4) reflects:
a. Penal liability
b. Contractual obligation
c. Welfare-oriented statutory responsibility
d. Vicarious criminal liability
89. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Custody under Section 5 depends on who files the petition
b. Welfare of parents is the primary consideration
c. Access rights are automatic
d. Maintenance to the child can be ordered even against parents/guardians
90. Section 5 applies:
a. Only when marriage is declared void
b. Only when marriage is annulled
c. Wherever children are born of a child marriage
d. Only when both parents are minors
91. Which principle underlies Sections 4 and 5 together?
a. Penal deterrence
b. Contractual enforcement
c. Social welfare and child protection
d. Personal law supremacy
92. The discretion exercised by the district court under Section 5 is:
a. Absolute and unguided
b. Limited to statutory rules
c. Guided by welfare and best interests of the child
d. Subject to parental consent
93. Which of the following distinctions is correct?
a. Section 4 deals with children; Section 5 deals with spouses
b. Section 5 deals with custody and maintenance of children; Section 4 deals with female contracting party
c. Section 4 and 5 both deal with custody
d. Section 5 applies only after remarriage
94. Section 6 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 deals with:
a. Custody of children
b. Maintenance of children
c. Legitimacy of children
d. Guardianship of children
95. The operation of Section 6 begins with which overriding expression?
a. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
b. “Unless the context otherwise requires”
c. “Save as otherwise provided”
d. “Notwithstanding that a child marriage has been annulled”
96. The effect of the phrase “Notwithstanding that a child marriage has been annulled” is that:
a. Annulment affects legitimacy
b. Legitimacy depends on validity of marriage
c. Annulment does not affect legitimacy of children
d. Annulment applies only prospectively
97. Section 6 applies only when a child marriage has been annulled under:
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 3
d. Section 7
98. For the purposes of Section 6, which children are covered?
a. Only children born after annulment
b. Only children born before commencement of the Act
c. Children begotten or conceived before the decree of nullity
d. Only children born during minority
99. The words “begotten or conceived” indicate that Section 6 covers:
a. Only children already born
b. Only children conceived after annulment
c. Both unborn and born children
d. Only legitimate children under personal law
100. The legitimacy conferred under Section 6 applies to children:
a. Born only before the commencement of the Act
b. Born only after the commencement of the Act
c. Born either before or after the commencement of the Act
d. Born only after annulment
101. The retrospective operation of Section 6 is evident from which phrase?
a. “For all purposes”
b. “Begotten or conceived”
c. “Whether born before or after the commencement of this Act”
d. “Shall be deemed”
102. Under Section 6, a child covered by the provision shall be deemed to be:
a. Illegitimate but protected
b. Legitimate for limited purposes
c. Legitimate only for maintenance
d. Legitimate for all purposes
103. The expression “for all purposes” under Section 6 implies that legitimacy extends to:
a. Only social status
b. Only maintenance and custody
c. Only succession
d. All legal rights and consequences
104. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Annulment renders children illegitimate
b. Legitimacy depends on subsistence of marriage
c. Children born of annulled child marriages are deemed legitimate
d. Section 6 applies only prospectively
105. The legal technique used in Section 6 to confer legitimacy is:
a. Legal fiction
b. Penal sanction
c. Rebuttable presumption
d. Discretionary declaration
106. The phrase “shall be deemed to be a legitimate child” signifies that:
a. Court must inquire into facts
b. Legitimacy is conditional
c. Law creates a conclusive status
d. Legitimacy is optional
107. Which principle underlies Section 6?
a. Deterrence
b. Contractual sanctity
c. Welfare of children and protection from stigma
d. Uniform civil code
108. Section 6 ensures that children of child marriages are not prejudiced due to:
a. Criminal liability of parents
b. Annulment of marriage
c. Minority of contracting parties
d. Delay in filing petition
109. Which of the following distinctions is accurate?
a. Section 5 deals with legitimacy; Section 6 with custody
b. Section 6 deals with legitimacy; Section 5 deals with custody and maintenance
c. Both Sections deal only with maintenance
d. Section 6 applies only if custody is decided
110. Section 7 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 empowers the district court to exercise which of the following powers?
a. Only to modify orders
b. Only to revoke orders
c. To add to, modify or revoke orders
d. Only to review orders
111. The power under Section 7 can be exercised in respect of orders passed under:
a. Section 3 only
b. Section 4 only
c. Section 5 only
d. Sections 4 and 5
112. The district court may exercise its power under Section 7 when:
a. The petition is pending only
b. The petition is finally disposed of only
c. There is a change in circumstances at any time
d. Only upon application by both parties
113. Which of the following best describes the temporal scope of Section 7?
a. Only before final disposal of the petition
b. Only after final disposal of the petition
c. During pendency and after final disposal of the petition
d. Only within limitation period of appeal
114. The condition precedent for exercise of power under Section 7 is:
a. Discovery of fraud
b. Consent of parties
c. Change in circumstances
d. Appeal against the order
115. The phrase “shall have the power” in Section 7 indicates that the power of the district court is:
a. Discretionary and optional
b. Mandatory upon request
c. Inherent and enabling
d. Appellate in nature
116. Which of the following orders CANNOT be modified under Section 7?
a. Maintenance order under Section 4
b. Residence order under Section 4
c. Custody order under Section 5
d. Decree of nullity under Section 3
117. Section 7 primarily reflects which principle of family law adjudication?
a. Finality of judgments
b. Res judicata
c. Continuing jurisdiction based on changed circumstances
d. Doctrine of estoppel
118. The power to “add to” an order under Section 7 implies:
a. Passing a fresh decree
b. Enhancing or supplementing existing directions
c. Reviewing legality of original order
d. Setting aside the original proceedings
119. Which court is competent to exercise powers under Section 7?
a. Judicial Magistrate First Class
b. Family Court only
c. District Court as defined under the Act
d. High Court
120. Section 7 allows modification of orders even after final disposal because:
a. The Act overrides CPC
b. Maintenance and custody are continuing obligations
c. Appeal provision is absent
d. Limitation does not apply
121. If circumstances change after an order under Section 4, which provision enables alteration?
a. Section 3
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 16
122. Section 7 is an exception to which general procedural principle?
a. Audi alteram partem
b. Finality of judicial orders
c. Burden of proof
d. Territorial jurisdiction
123. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 7 applies only if the original order was interim
b. Section 7 applies only if the petition is pending
c. Section 7 applies irrespective of pendency or final disposal
d. Section 7 requires filing of a fresh petition
124. The nature of jurisdiction exercised under Section 7 can best be described as:
a. Appellate
b. Revisional
c. Continuing supervisory
d. Original criminal
125. Section 8 applies for grant of reliefs under which provisions of the Act?
a. Sections 3 only
b. Sections 3 and 4 only
c. Sections 4 and 5 only
d. Sections 3, 4 and 5
126. For the purpose of Section 8, which court is competent to entertain the petition?
a. Any civil court
b. Family Court only
c. District court having jurisdiction
d. Magistrate of the first class
127. Jurisdiction under Section 8 may be exercised by the district court having jurisdiction over the place where:
a. Only the defendant resides
b. Only the child resides
c. Either the defendant or the child resides
d. Both defendant and child reside
128. Which of the following places independently confers jurisdiction under Section 8?
a. Place where engagement was performed
b. Place where marriage was solemnized
c. Place where dowry was demanded
d. Place where FIR was lodged
129. Section 8 permits filing of petition at the place where:
a. Parties first met
b. Parties last resided together
c. Parties intend to reside
d. Marriage was registered
130. Under Section 8, the petitioner can institute proceedings in the district court where:
a. The respondent resides at present
b. The petitioner resided at the time of marriage
c. The petitioner is residing on the date of presentation of the petition
d. The petitioner ordinarily resides
131. Which of the following correctly reflects the legislative intent behind Section 8?
a. Restricting jurisdiction to prevent forum shopping
b. Providing multiple jurisdictional options to facilitate access to justice
c. Ensuring jurisdiction lies only where marriage occurred
d. Centralising jurisdiction in Family Courts
132. The use of the word “shall include” in Section 8 indicates that the listed courts are:
a. Exhaustive and mandatory
b. Explanatory and restrictive
c. Inclusive and enlarging jurisdiction
d. Discretionary and optional
133. A petition under Section 3 is filed by a female contracting party who currently resides at Place X, while the marriage was solemnised at Place Y and the respondent resides at Place Z. Jurisdiction under Section 8 lies at:
a. Place Y only
b. Place Z only
c. Place X only
d. Place X, Y or Z
134. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. Jurisdiction can be based on the place of marriage
b. Jurisdiction can be based on petitioner’s residence at filing
c. Jurisdiction requires both parties to reside within the same district
d. Jurisdiction can be based on last shared residence
135. Section 8 primarily departs from which traditional civil procedure concept?
a. Doctrine of res judicata
b. Strict territorial jurisdiction based on defendant’s residence
c. Principle of natural justice
d. Burden of proof
136. For relief under Section 5, the district court having jurisdiction may be determined with reference to:
a. Place of birth of the child only
b. Place where guardians reside
c. Any place specified in Section 8
d. Place where maintenance order was passed
137. The expression “petition should be made” in Section 8 signifies:
a. Exclusive jurisdiction
b. Appellate jurisdiction
c. Original jurisdiction
d. Revisional jurisdiction
138. Which of the following combinations correctly lists all jurisdictional grounds under Section 8?
a. Defendant’s residence, place of marriage, place of FIR
b. Child’s residence, marriage place, last residence together, petitioner’s residence at filing
c. Petitioner’s domicile, respondent’s domicile, place of registration
d. Place of engagement, marriage, divorce
139. Section 8 is best characterised as a provision relating to:
a. Substantive rights
b. Penal consequences
c. Procedural jurisdiction
d. Evidentiary burden
140. Section 9 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 applies to which category of persons?
a. Any male contracting party
b. Any adult marrying a child
c. Male adult above eighteen years of age
d. Any guardian facilitating child marriage
141. For the purpose of Section 9, the expression “male adult” refers to a male who is:
a. Eighteen years or above
b. Above eighteen years of age
c. Twenty-one years or above
d. Major under the Majority Act
142. The offence under Section 9 is attracted when a male adult:
a. Performs a child marriage
b. Facilitates a child marriage
c. Contracts a child marriage
d. Promotes a child marriage
143. Which of the following punishments is prescribed under the Central Act for an offence under Section 9?
a. Simple imprisonment up to two years only
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to one year only
c. Rigorous imprisonment up to two years or fine up to one lakh rupees or both
d. Fine up to fifty thousand rupees only
144. The term “may extend” used in Section 9 indicates that:
a. The punishment is mandatory
b. The punishment is discretionary within the prescribed limit
c. Minimum punishment must be imposed
d. Only fine can be imposed
145. Under the Central Act, which of the following sentencing combinations is legally permissible?
a. Rigorous imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. All of the above
146. What is the maximum fine prescribed under Section 9 of the Central Act?
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹75,000
c. ₹1,00,000
d. No upper limit
147. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to constitute an offence under Section 9?
a. Accused must be male
b. Accused must be above eighteen years
c. Marriage must be void under Section 3
d. Marriage must be a child marriage
148. Section 9 criminalises child marriage by:
a. Both contracting parties
b. Only the male adult contracting party
c. Parents of the child
d. Marriage officers
149. Section 10 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 applies to which of the following acts?
a. Contracting a child marriage
b. Performing, conducting, directing or abetting a child marriage
c. Consenting to a child marriage
d. Failing to prevent a child marriage
150. Which of the following persons can be held liable under Section 10?
a. Only priests or religious functionaries
b. Only marriage registrars
c. Any person who performs, conducts, directs or abets a child marriage
d. Only parents or guardians
151. The mental element required to escape liability under Section 10 is proof that the accused:
a. Had no intention to solemnise the marriage
b. Acted under compulsion
c. Had reasons to believe that the marriage was not a child marriage
d. Was unaware of the law
152. The burden of proving the defence under Section 10 lies on:
a. The prosecution
b. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. The accused
d. The district court
153. Which of the following correctly states the punishment under the Central Act for an offence under Section 10?
a. Rigorous imprisonment up to two years or fine up to one lakh rupees or both
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees
c. Simple imprisonment up to one year and fine only
d. Fine only
154. The use of the words “shall be liable to fine” in Section 10 indicates that:
a. Fine is optional
b. Fine is mandatory in addition to imprisonment
c. Fine replaces imprisonment
d. Fine is subject to minimum limit
155. Which of the following distinguishes Section 10 from Section 9?
a. Section 10 applies only to males
b. Section 10 penalises facilitation, not contracting
c. Section 10 does not prescribe imprisonment
d. Section 10 applies only to guardians
156. Which of the following acts would NOT attract liability under Section 10?
a. A priest conducting a child marriage
b. A person directing arrangements for a child marriage
c. A person abetting the solemnization
d. A male adult contracting a child marriage
157. The phrase “unless he proves” in Section 10 signifies:
a. Strict liability offence
b. Reverse burden of proof
c. Presumption of innocence
d. Mandatory acquittal
158. Section 11 applies when:
a. A child marriage is merely proposed
b. A child contracts a child marriage
c. A child marriage is declared void
d. A child marriage is annulled
159. Liability under Section 11 may arise against:
a. Only parents of the child
b. Only lawful guardians
c. Any person having charge of the child in any capacity
d. Only members of organisations
160. The phrase “having charge of the child” under Section 11 includes:
a. Only lawful custody
b. Only blood relations
c. Lawful or unlawful charge
d. Only court-appointed guardians
161. Which of the following acts can independently attract liability under Section 11?
a. Promoting a child marriage
b. Permitting a child marriage to be solemnized
c. Negligently failing to prevent the marriage
d. All of the above
162. Mere attendance or participation in a child marriage attracts liability under Section 11 when the person:
a. Is a guest only
b. Is a priest only
c. Has charge of the child
d. Is unrelated to the child
163. Which of the following best distinguishes Section 11 from Section 10?
a. Section 11 applies only to males
b. Section 11 targets persons in charge of the child
c. Section 11 does not prescribe fine
d. Section 11 applies only to abetment
164. Under the Central Act, the punishment prescribed under Section 11 includes:
a. Rigorous imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Rigorous imprisonment and fine
d. Simple imprisonment or fine
165. The maximum fine prescribed under Section 11 is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹75,000
c. ₹1,00,000
d. No upper limit
166. The proviso to Section 11(1) under the Central Act provides that:
a. Women are completely exempt
b. Women cannot be prosecuted
c. Women shall not be punishable with imprisonment
d. Women shall not be liable to fine
167. A woman who promotes a child marriage under the Central Act can be punished with:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Neither imprisonment nor fine
168. Section 11(2) creates a presumption against:
a. The contracting male
b. The solemnising authority
c. The person having charge of the minor child
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
169. The presumption under Section 11(2) is that the person having charge of the minor child has:
a. Intentionally promoted the marriage
b. Knowingly permitted the marriage
c. Negligently failed to prevent the marriage
d. Abetted the marriage
170. The presumption under Section 11(2) is:
a. Conclusive
b. Irrebuttable
c. Rebuttable
d. Discretionary
171. The burden of disproving the presumption under Section 11(2) lies on:
a. The prosecution
b. The accused
c. The district court
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
172. Section 11(2) applies only when:
a. A child marriage is void
b. A minor child has contracted a marriage
c. The marriage is solemnised after commencement of the Act
d. A complaint is filed by the child
173. Section 12 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act declares a child marriage to be:
a. Voidable at the option of the child
b. Void only after court declaration
c. Null and void ab initio
d. Illegal but valid
174. Section 12 applies when a child, being a minor, is subjected to which of the following acts?
a. Mere consent of parents
b. Circumstances specified under clauses (a), (b) or (c)
c. Any child marriage without exception
d. Marriage solemnised without registration
175. Clause (a) of Section 12 is attracted when a minor child is:
a. Married without consent
b. Taken or enticed out of the keeping of the lawful guardian
c. Forced to marry by parents
d. Married before attaining majority
176. The expression “lawful guardian” under Section 12 implies:
a. Any person exercising control
b. Only biological parents
c. A guardian recognised by law
d. Any elder family member
177. Clause (b) of Section 12 covers situations where a minor is:
a. Persuaded by relatives
b. Compelled by emotional pressure
c. Forced or deceitfully induced to go from any place
d. Married in violation of personal law
178. The phrase “by force compelled, or by any deceitful means induced” in clause (b) indicates:
a. Only physical coercion
b. Only fraud
c. Both coercion and deception
d. Only parental pressure
179. Clause (c) of Section 12 applies when a minor is:
a. Married without consent
b. Sold for the purpose of marriage
c. Married without registration
d. Married against social norms
180. Under clause (c), a marriage becomes void if:
a. The minor is sold before marriage only
b. The minor is sold after marriage only
c. The minor is sold either before or after marriage for specified purposes
d. The minor is trafficked without marriage
181. Which of the following post-marriage consequences independently attracts Section 12(c)?
a. Divorce
b. Desertion
c. Sale, trafficking or use for immoral purposes
d. Non-cohabitation
182. The words “and made to go through a form of marriage” indicate that:
a. Only registered marriages are covered
b. Even sham or ceremonial marriages are included
c. Only valid marriages are covered
d. Only religious marriages are covered
183. Section 12 differs from Section 3 primarily because:
a. Section 12 applies only to males
b. Section 12 requires court intervention
c. Section 12 renders marriage void ab initio
d. Section 12 applies only to females
184. A marriage covered under Section 12:
a. Requires a decree of nullity
b. Is voidable within two years
c. Is null and void by operation of law
d. Can be validated by consent
185. The use of the word “shall” in Section 12 signifies that the provision is:
a. Directory
b. Discretionary
c. Mandatory
d. Optional
186. Which of the following correctly states the scope of Section 12?
a. It applies to all child marriages
b. It applies only to consensual marriages
c. It applies to aggravated forms of child marriage
d. It applies only after conviction
187. Section 12 is best described as:
a. A procedural provision
b. A penal provision
c. A substantive nullity provision
d. An evidentiary provision
188. Section 13 begins with a non obstante clause. What is its effect?
a. It overrides the Code of Criminal Procedure
b. It overrides any personal law
c. It overrides anything contrary contained in this Act
d. It overrides all existing laws
189. An injunction under Section 13(1) may be issued upon an application by:
a. Any police officer
b. The District Magistrate only
c. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
d. Only the aggrieved child
190. Apart from an application by the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer, a Magistrate may act under Section 13(1) upon receipt of:
a. A written FIR only
b. Information through a complaint or otherwise from any person
c. Information from parents only
d. Information from government authorities only
191. Which authority is competent to issue an injunction under Section 13(1)?
a. District Judge
b. Family Court
c. Judicial Magistrate First Class or Metropolitan Magistrate
d. Sessions Judge
192. An injunction under Section 13 can be issued when the Magistrate is satisfied that a child marriage:
a. Has already been solemnized
b. Is voidable
c. Has been arranged or is about to be solemnized
d. Is registered
193. Against whom can an injunction under Section 13(1) be issued?
a. Only parents or guardians
b. Only priests
c. Any person, including members of organisations or associations
d. Only the contracting parties
194. A complaint under Section 13(2) may be made by:
a. Any person having personal knowledge or reason to believe
b. Only the victim
c. Only government officers
d. Only parents
195. Which non-individual entity is expressly authorised to make a complaint under Section 13(2)?
a. Political party
b. Religious trust
c. Non-governmental organization
d. Panchayat
196. Under Section 13(3), the Magistrate may take suo motu cognizance on the basis of:
a. A police report only
b. A complaint only
c. Any reliable report or information
d. Newspaper publication only
197. For preventing mass child marriages on certain days, who is deemed to be the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer?
a. Superintendent of Police
b. District Judge
c. District Magistrate
d. Child Welfare Committee
198. The District Magistrate derives this deemed status specifically to prevent:
a. All child marriages
b. Individual child marriages
c. Mass child marriages on certain days
d. Inter-religious marriages
199. Under Section 13(5), the District Magistrate may:
a. Use unlimited force
b. Use minimum force required
c. Delegate powers to police only
d. Act only after court order
200. As a general rule, before issuing an injunction under Section 13(1), the Court must:
a. Register an FIR
b. Obtain police verification
c. Give notice and opportunity to show cause
d. Record evidence
201. In cases of urgency, the Court may issue an injunction under Section 13 without:
a. Recording reasons
b. Jurisdiction
c. Giving notice
d. Hearing the applicant
202. After issuance, an injunction under Section 13(1) may be confirmed or vacated:
a. Without hearing the affected party
b. Only by the High Court
c. After giving notice and hearing the affected party
d. Only on police recommendation
203. The Court may rescind or alter an injunction under Section 13(8):
a. Only on application by the State
b. Only suo motu
c. Either suo motu or on application of an aggrieved person
d. Only after trial
204. When an application under Section 13(1) is received, the Court shall:
a. Dismiss it summarily
b. Refer it to police
c. Give early opportunity of hearing to the applicant
d. Issue injunction automatically
205. If the Court rejects the application wholly or in part, it must:
a. Issue notice to police
b. Record reasons in writing
c. Refer the matter to District Magistrate
d. Provide appeal immediately
206. Disobedience of an injunction under Section 13(1), with knowledge, is punishable with:
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment only
c. Imprisonment of either description or fine or both
d. Fine only
207. The maximum punishment prescribed under Section 13(10) is:
a. One year imprisonment or ₹50,000 fine
b. Two years imprisonment or ₹1,00,000 fine
c. Three years imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
208. The proviso to Section 13(10) provides that:
a. Women are exempt from prosecution
b. Women are exempt from fine
c. Women shall not be punishable with imprisonment
d. Women are exempt from this Act
209. A child marriage solemnised in contravention of an injunction issued under Section 13 is:
a. Voidable at the option of the child
b. Void only if declared so by the district court
c. Void ab initio
d. Valid but punishable
210. An injunction whose contravention renders a child marriage void ab initio under Section 14 may be:
a. Only a final injunction
b. Only an interim injunction
c. Either interim or final injunction
d. Only an injunction issued by the District Magistrate
211. Section 14 applies when a child marriage is solemnised in violation of an injunction issued under:
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 15
d. Section 16
212. The legal consequence under Section 14 attaches:
a. Only after conviction of parties
b. Only after annulment proceedings
c. Automatically on solemnisation in contravention of injunction
d. Only upon complaint by Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
213. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act are:
a. Non-cognizable and bailable
b. Cognizable and bailable
c. Cognizable and non-bailable
d. Non-cognizable and non-bailable
214. The overriding clause in Section 15 gives primacy to the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act over:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Evidence Act, 1872
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
215. The nature of offences under Section 15 is determined:
a. By the punishment prescribed in IPC
b. By the CrPC classification schedule
c. By an express statutory declaration in the Act
d. By judicial interpretation only
216. Child Marriage Prohibition Officers are appointed by the:
a. Central Government
b. District Magistrate
c. State Government
d. Judicial Magistrate
217. Appointment of a Child Marriage Prohibition Officer under Section 16 must be made through:
a. Executive order
b. Circular
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Government resolution
218. The jurisdiction of a Child Marriage Prohibition Officer extends to:
a. The whole of India
b. Only the district concerned
c. The whole State or such part thereof as specified in the notification
d. Only rural areas
219. Under Section 16(2), which of the following persons may be requested to assist the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer?
a. Only police officers
b. Only members of NGOs
c. Respectable members of locality, Gram Panchayat/Municipality officers, Government or PSU officers, or NGO office bearers
d. Only judicial officers
220. A person requested to assist the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer under Section 16(2):
a. May assist at his discretion
b. Is bound to act accordingly
c. Can refuse with written reasons
d. Acts only in an advisory capacity
221. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer under Section 16(3)?
a. Preventing solemnisation of child marriages
b. Collecting evidence for prosecution
c. Granting maintenance to the child
d. Creating awareness against child marriages
222. Advising or counselling residents of a locality not to promote or allow child marriages falls under which duty?
a. Preventive
b. Adjudicatory
c. Advisory
d. Punitive
223. The duty to furnish periodical returns and statistics by the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer is to be done as directed by the:
a. District Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. District Magistrate
224. Powers of a police officer may be conferred upon a Child Marriage Prohibition Officer by the:
a. District Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. High Court
225. Conferment of police powers on the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer requires:
a. Prior judicial approval
b. Notification in the Official Gazette with conditions and limitations
c. Recommendation of District Magistrate
d. Registration under the CrPC
226. Police powers exercised by the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer are:
a. Absolute and unrestricted
b. Subject to CrPC only
c. Subject to conditions and limitations specified in the notification
d. Limited only to cognizable offences
227. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer has the power to move the Court for orders under Sections:
a. 3, 4 and 5 only
b. 4, 5 and 13 only
c. 3, 4, 5 and 13
d. 13 and 15 only
228. A petition under Section 3 may be filed by the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer:
a. Independently
b. Only with prior court permission
c. Along with the child
d. Only through the guardian
229. Which of the following functions may be additionally assigned to the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer?
a. Functions prescribed under IPC
b. Functions assigned by the State Government
c. Functions delegated by the High Court
d. Functions under CrPC
230. Child Marriage Prohibition Officers are deemed to be public servants within the meaning of:
a. Section 19 IPC
b. Section 20 IPC
c. Section 21 IPC
d. Section 22 IPC
231. The legal consequence of Section 17 is that Child Marriage Prohibition Officers are:
a. Judicial officers
b. Executive magistrates
c. Public servants for IPC purposes
d. Police officers
232. The deeming fiction under Section 17 operates for the purposes of:
a. Criminal Procedure Code only
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Service law
d. Evidence Act
233. Section 18 provides protection to the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer against:
a. Departmental proceedings only
b. Criminal proceedings only
c. Civil suits only
d. Suits, prosecutions, or other legal proceedings
234. Protection under Section 18 is available only when the act is done:
a. Under judicial supervision
b. In accordance with court orders
c. In good faith
d. With prior sanction
235. The protection under Section 18 applies to acts:
a. Done only
b. Intended to be done only
c. Done or intended to be done
d. Negligently done
236. Protection under Section 18 extends to acts done pursuant to:
a. The Act alone
b. The Act or any rule or order made thereunder
c. Only rules framed under the Act
d. Only court orders
237. The power to make rules under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act is vested in the:
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. District Magistrate
238. Rules under Section 19 must be made by:
a. Executive instruction
b. Legislative resolution
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Administrative circular
239. Every rule made under Section 19 shall be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. State Legislature
c. High Court
d. District Court
240. Laying of rules before the State Legislature is required:
a. Before making the rules
b. Simultaneously with framing
c. As soon as may be after the rules are made
d. Only upon demand
241. Section 20 amends which provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
a. Section 5
b. Section 11
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
242. The amendment under Section 20 relates to contravention of which condition under the Hindu Marriage Act?
a. Section 5(i)
b. Section 5(ii)
c. Section 5(iii)
d. Section 5(iv)
243. The punishment substituted under Section 18(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act may extend to:
a. Simple imprisonment up to one year
b. Rigorous imprisonment up to two years
c. Rigorous imprisonment up to five years
d. Imprisonment for life
244. The maximum fine prescribed under the substituted clause is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹75,000
c. ₹1,00,000
d. No fine
245. Which Act is repealed by Section 21 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006?
a. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
b. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
c. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
d. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
246. The repeal under Section 21 takes effect:
a. Retrospectively
b. Prospectively only
c. Subject to the savings clause
d. Only after notification
247. Proceedings pending under the repealed Act at the commencement of this Act shall be:
a. Abated
b. Transferred to district court
c. Continued and disposed of under the repealed Act
d. Decided under the new Act
248. Pending cases under the repealed Act shall be decided:
a. As per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
b. As per CrPC
c. As if the new Act had not been passed
d. As per judicial discretion