THE CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION ACT, 2003
ACT NO. 45 OF 2003
1. Section 1 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of the Commission
b. Powers of the Commission
c. Short title of the Act
d. Jurisdiction of the Commission
2. The official name of the Act as provided under Section 1 is:
a. Central Vigilance Act
b. Vigilance Commission Act
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. Central Anti-Corruption Act, 2003
3. Which year is expressly mentioned in the short title of the Central Vigilance Commission Act?
a. 2002
b. 2003
c. 2004
d. 2005
4. The words “This Act may be called” in Section 1 indicate:
a. Mandatory naming
b. Directory naming
c. Formal legislative naming
d. Temporary naming
5. Section 1 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 contains:
a. Only the long title
b. Only the short title
c. Both short title and extent
d. Short title and commencement
6. The short title of an Act primarily serves the purpose of:
a. Explaining the objective of the Act
b. Providing a convenient reference name
c. Declaring constitutional validity
d. Defining key terms
7. The Central Vigilance Commission Act derives its name directly from:
a. Its preamble
b. Section 1
c. Section 3
d. The Schedule
8. Which drafting expression is used in Section 1 of the Act?
a. “Shall be called”
b. “Is hereby called”
c. “May be called”
d. “Shall hereafter be known as”
9. The phrase “may be called” in legislative drafting generally implies:
a. Optional enforcement
b. Permissive interpretation
c. Standard naming convention
d. Judicial discretion
10. Section 1 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 is an example of:
a. Substantive provision
b. Procedural provision
c. Declaratory provision
d. Penal provision
11. Which of the following correctly states the short title?
a. Central Vigilance Commission Act
b. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
c. Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. Central Commission Vigilance Act, 2003
12. The short title under Section 1 is mainly used for:
a. Interpretation of offences
b. Judicial review
c. Citation and reference
d. Delegated legislation
13. In legal documents and judgments, the Act is cited using the authority of:
a. Its Preamble
b. Section 1
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
14. Which principle of statutory drafting is reflected in Section 1?
a. Clarity and certainty
b. Strict liability
c. Natural justice
d. Separation of powers
15. Section 1 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 is best described as:
a. A charging section
b. A definition clause
c. A naming provision
d. An enforcement clause
16. Under Section 2(a), the term “Central Vigilance Commissioner” refers to:
a. Any senior vigilance officer of the Government
b. The Commissioner appointed under section 3
c. The Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed under sub-section (1) of section 4
d. The Chairperson of the Lokpal
17. The expression “Commission” as defined in Section 2(b) means:
a. Any vigilance authority of the Central Government
b. Central Vigilance Commission constituted under sub-section (1) of section 3
c. Vigilance wing of the Ministry of Home Affairs
d. Lokpal and Lokayuktas
18. Which section of the CVC Act provides for the constitution of the “Commission”?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 6
19. “Delhi Special Police Establishment” under Section 2(c) refers to the body constituted under:
a. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
d. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
20. Under Section 2(c), the Delhi Special Police Establishment is constituted under which provision?
a. Section 1 of the DSPE Act
b. Section 2(1) of the DSPE Act
c. Section 3 of the DSPE Act
d. Section 4 of the DSPE Act
21. The definition of “Government company” under Section 2(d) is linked to which Act?
a. Companies Act, 2013
b. Companies Act, 1956
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. Public Sector Undertakings Act
22. For the purposes of the CVC Act, 2003, the meaning of “Government company” shall be the same as:
a. Defined by rules under the Act
b. Defined by the Central Government notification
c. Defined under the Companies Act, 1956
d. Defined under the Lokpal Act
23. The term “Lokpal” was inserted in Section 2 of the CVC Act by reference to:
a. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
b. Companies Act, 2013
c. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
d. Central Vigilance Commission Amendment Act
24. According to Section 2(da), “Lokpal” means the Lokpal established under:
a. Section 2 of the Lokpal Act
b. Section 3(1) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
c. Section 4 of the CVC Act
d. Presidential notification
25. The phrase “unless the context otherwise requires” in Section 2 indicates that:
a. Definitions are mandatory in all cases
b. Definitions are rigid and inflexible
c. Definitions may be departed from if context demands
d. Definitions apply only to offences
26. The word “prescribed” under Section 2(e) means:
a. Prescribed by Parliament
b. Prescribed by the Commission
c. Prescribed by rules made under this Act
d. Prescribed by executive instructions
27. Rules referred to in the definition of “prescribed” are made under:
a. Companies Act
b. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
c. Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
d. Lokpal Act
28. Under Section 2(f), a “Vigilance Commissioner” is a person who is:
a. Appointed by the Central Government
b. Appointed under section 3
c. Appointed under sub-section (1) of section 4
d. Nominated by the Lokpal
29. Both the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4(1)
d. Section 6
30. Which of the following terms is not defined under Section 2 of the CVC Act, 2003?
a. Commission
b. Lokpal
c. Central Government
d. Vigilance Commissioner
31. The definitions contained in Section 2 apply:
a. Only to Chapter II
b. Only to penal provisions
c. To the entire Act unless context otherwise requires
d. Only to appointment provisions
32. Which legislative technique is used in Section 2 of the CVC Act, 2003?
a. Substantive enactment
b. Penal provision
c. Definition clause
d. Saving clause
33. The inclusion of “Lokpal” in Section 2 shows:
a. Expansion of jurisdiction of the Commission
b. Harmonisation with later anti-corruption legislation
c. Abolition of the Commission
d. Supremacy of Lokpal over CVC
34. Section 3 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of Commissioners
b. Constitution of the Central Vigilance Commission
c. Powers and functions of the Commission
d. Removal of Commissioners
35. Under Section 3(1), the Central Vigilance Commission is constituted to:
a. Exercise only advisory powers
b. Perform functions assigned under executive orders
c. Exercise powers and perform functions assigned under the Act
d. Supervise only Central Bureau of Investigation
36. The Central Vigilance Commission constituted under the Ordinance of 1999 is:
a. Abolished completely
b. Converted into Lokpal
c. Deemed to be the Commission constituted under this Act
d. Merged with UPSC
37. Which Ordinance is referred to in Section 3(1)?
a. Ordinance of 1998
b. Central Vigilance Commission Ordinance, 1999
c. Lokpal Ordinance, 2013
d. Prevention of Corruption Ordinance
38. The Central Vigilance Commission Ordinance, 1999 ceased to operate but the Commission continued under:
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Ministry of Law and Justice
c. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
d. Cabinet Secretariat
39. The Resolution continuing the Commission was issued by the Department of:
a. Legal Affairs
b. Administrative Reforms
c. Personnel and Training
d. Vigilance
40. The original Resolution continuing the Commission is dated:
a. 13 August 2002
b. 4 April 1999
c. 15 August 1999
d. 26 January 2000
41. The Resolution of 4 April 1999 was later amended on:
a. 1 January 2001
b. 13 August 2002
c. 26 January 2003
d. 4 April 2003
42. According to Section 3(2), the Central Vigilance Commission shall consist of:
a. One Chairperson and one Member
b. One Central Vigilance Commissioner and one Vigilance Commissioner
c. One Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners
d. One Chairperson and three Members
43. Under Section 3(2)(a), the Central Vigilance Commissioner acts as:
a. Member
b. Secretary
c. Chairperson
d. Advisor
44. Under Section 3(2)(b), Vigilance Commissioners are designated as:
a. Chairpersons
b. Members
c. Advisors
d. Secretaries
45. The maximum number of Vigilance Commissioners permitted under Section 3 is:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
46. Under Section 3(3)(a), eligible persons include those who have served in:
a. Judiciary only
b. Armed Forces only
c. All-India Services or civil services of the Union
d. State Legislature
47. Experience relating to which of the following is expressly mentioned in Section 3(3)(a)?
a. Election management
b. Vigilance, policy making and administration including police administration
c. Foreign diplomacy
d. Education administration
48. Section 3(3)(b) includes persons having expertise in:
a. Agriculture and industry
b. Defence and space research
c. Finance including insurance and banking, law, vigilance and investigations
d. Education and health
49. Persons eligible under Section 3(3)(b) must have held office in:
a. State Government only
b. Private companies
c. Corporations established by or under a Central Act or Government companies
d. International organisations
50. The proviso to Section 3(3) restricts that:
a. All members must belong to one category
b. Not more than two persons shall belong to either category (a) or (b)
c. Only category (a) persons can be appointed
d. Only serving officers are eligible
51. Under Section 3(4), who appoints the Secretary to the Commission?
a. The Commission
b. The President
c. The Central Government
d. The Prime Minister
52. The powers and duties of the Secretary to the Commission are specified by:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government rules
c. Regulations made by the Commission
d. Presidential warrant
53. Under Section 3(5), appointments made under the 1999 Ordinance or Resolution are:
a. Cancelled automatically
b. Required to be re-notified
c. Deemed to have been made under this Act
d. Valid only for one year
54. The “term of office” under the Explanation to Section 3(5) is counted from:
a. Date of notification of the Act
b. Date of Presidential assent
c. Date the Commissioner entered upon his office
d. Date of first meeting of the Commission
55. According to Section 3(6), the headquarters of the Central Vigilance Commission shall be at:
a. Mumbai
b. Kolkata
c. New Delhi
d. Chandigarh
56. Section 4 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 primarily deals with:
a. Constitution of the Commission
b. Appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners
c. Removal of Commissioners
d. Terms of service
57. Under Section 4(1), the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by:
a. The Prime Minister
b. The Central Government
c. The President
d. The Commission
58. The appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is made by the President through:
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary resolution
c. Warrant under his hand and seal
d. Notification in the Gazette
59. Which constitutional authority issues the warrant for appointment under Section 4(1)?
a. Vice-President
b. Prime Minister
c. President of India
d. Speaker of Lok Sabha
60. Before making an appointment under Section 4(1), whose recommendation is mandatory?
a. Union Cabinet
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. A statutory Committee
d. Supreme Court Collegium
61. The Committee recommending appointments under Section 4(1) consists of how many members?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
62. Who is the Chairperson of the Committee under Section 4(1)?
a. President of India
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Prime Minister
d. Speaker of Lok Sabha
63. Which of the following is a Member of the appointment Committee under Section 4(1)?
a. Minister of Finance
b. Minister of Law and Justice
c. Minister of Home Affairs
d. Minister of Personnel
64. The Leader of the Opposition in which House is included in the Committee?
a. Rajya Sabha
b. Lok Sabha (House of the People)
c. Both Houses
d. Either House
65. If no Leader of the Opposition is recognised in the House of the People, who is included in the Committee?
a. Senior-most opposition MP
b. Leader of the largest opposition party
c. Leader of the single largest group in opposition
d. Chief Whip of Opposition
66. The Explanation to Section 4(1) clarifies the meaning of:
a. Appointment procedure
b. Warrant under hand and seal
c. Leader of the Opposition
d. Vacancy in Committee
67. The recommendation of the Committee under Section 4(1) is:
a. Optional
b. Advisory
c. Mandatory
d. Post-appointment
68. Appointments under Section 4(1) are made after obtaining recommendations, but the final authority rests with:
a. The Committee
b. The Prime Minister
c. The President
d. Parliament
69. Section 4(2) provides that an appointment shall not be invalid merely because of:
a. Absence of President
b. Delay in recommendation
c. Vacancy in the Committee
d. Lack of quorum in Parliament
70. The purpose of Section 4(2) is to ensure:
a. Judicial control over appointments
b. Political neutrality
c. Continuity and validity of appointments
d. Faster removal of Commissioners
71. Which principle of law is reflected in Section 4(2)?
a. Natural justice
b. De facto doctrine
c. Doctrine of necessity
d. Rule against bias
72. Section 4 applies to the appointment of:
a. Only Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Only Vigilance Commissioners
c. Both Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners
d. Secretary to the Commission
73. The appointment Committee under Section 4(1) is an example of:
a. Executive discretion
b. Parliamentary committee
c. Statutory selection committee
d. Judicial committee
74. The requirement of recommendation by a Committee indicates:
a. Absolute executive power
b. Collective decision-making
c. Judicial dominance
d. Legislative supremacy
75. Section 4 strengthens the independence of the Central Vigilance Commission by:
a. Allowing direct executive appointments
b. Providing a multi-member appointment Committee
c. Giving removal power to Parliament
d. Allowing re-appointment
76. Section 5 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment procedure
b. Constitution of the Commission
c. Terms and other conditions of service
d. Powers and functions
77. The maximum tenure of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is:
a. Five years
b. Four years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier
c. Six years
d. Till the pleasure of the President
78. The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner commences from:
a. Date of appointment notification
b. Date of Presidential warrant
c. Date on which he enters upon his office
d. Date of first meeting of the Commission
79. After ceasing to hold office, the Central Vigilance Commissioner is:
a. Eligible for reappointment
b. Eligible for extension
c. Ineligible for reappointment in the Commission
d. Eligible for appointment as Vigilance Commissioner
80. The tenure of a Vigilance Commissioner is:
a. Five years or sixty-two years of age
b. Four years or sixty-five years of age, whichever is earlier
c. Six years fixed
d. Three years extendable
81. A Vigilance Commissioner, after ceasing to hold office, is eligible for appointment as:
a. Secretary to the Commission
b. Chairman, UPSC
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Lokpal
82. If a Vigilance Commissioner is appointed as Central Vigilance Commissioner, the total aggregate term shall not exceed:
a. Five years
b. Six years
c. Four years
d. Seven years
83. Before entering upon office, the Central Vigilance Commissioner shall:
a. Take oath before the Prime Minister
b. Take oath before Parliament
c. Make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President or his nominee
d. Sign a declaration before the Commission
84. The form of oath or affirmation is set out in:
a. The Rules
b. The Regulations
c. The Schedule to the Act
d. The Constitution
85. Resignation by the Central Vigilance Commissioner must be addressed to:
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Government
c. President
d. Commission
86. The resignation under Section 5(4) must be:
a. Oral
b. Through Parliament
c. In writing under his hand
d. Through the Prime Minister
87. Removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is governed by:
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
88. After ceasing to hold office, the Central Vigilance Commissioner is ineligible for:
a. Judicial office
b. Diplomatic assignments
c. Private employment
d. Academic posts
89. Appointment as Administrator of a Union Territory after ceasing office is:
a. Allowed
b. Allowed with permission
c. Prohibited
d. Allowed after two years
90. After ceasing office, Vigilance Commissioners are barred from holding:
a. Any constitutional office
b. Any office of profit under the Government of India or a State
c. Private sector jobs
d. Advisory posts
91. The salary and allowances of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are equivalent to those of:
a. Cabinet Secretary
b. Chief Election Commissioner
c. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
d. Judge of the Supreme Court
92. The salary and allowances of a Vigilance Commissioner are the same as those of:
a. Secretary to Government of India
b. Member of the Union Public Service Commission
c. Judge of a High Court
d. Comptroller and Auditor General
93. If a Commissioner is receiving a pension from previous government service, his salary shall be:
a. Paid in full
b. Increased
c. Reduced by the amount of pension
d. Stopped completely
94. Disability or wound pension is:
a. Included for reduction
b. Excluded from reduction
c. Partially deducted
d. Converted into allowance
95. Retirement benefits from a Government company result in:
a. No effect on salary
b. Complete forfeiture of salary
c. Reduction of salary by pension equivalent
d. Termination of appointment
96. Which retirement benefit is excluded from salary reduction?
a. Pension
b. Commuted pension
c. Pension equivalent of retirement gratuity
d. Insurance benefit
97. After appointment, the service conditions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner:
a. May be altered by Government
b. May be varied by Parliament
c. hall not be varied to his disadvantage
d. Are subject to executive discretion
98. The protection against adverse variation of service conditions applies to:
a. Only Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Only Vigilance Commissioners
c. Both Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners
d. Secretary to the Commission
99. Section 5 ensures independence of the Commission primarily through:
a. Executive control
b. Fixed tenure and service safeguards
c. Parliamentary supervision
d. Judicial appointments
100. The age limit prescribed under Section 5 for holding office is:
a. Sixty years
b. Sixty-two years
c. Sixty-five years
d. Seventy years
101. Section 6 of the CVC Act, 2003 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Commissioners
b. Terms and conditions of service
c. Removal of Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners
d. Constitution of the Commission
102. The Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner can be removed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Parliament
c. Order of the President
d. Central Government
103. Under Section 6(1), removal on the grounds of misbehavior or incapacity requires a report from:
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. Central Government
104. The Supreme Court inquiry is initiated on the reference made by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Government
c. President
d. Central Vigilance Commission
105. The President may suspend a Commissioner during inquiry under Section 6(2):
a. Only after Supreme Court report
b. Pending inquiry and before report
c. Only after Parliament approval
d. Not allowed under the Act
106. During suspension, the President may also prohibit the Commissioner from:
a. Meeting the Prime Minister
b. Attending the office
c. Receiving salary
d. Writing letters
107. Under Section 6(3)(a), a Commissioner can be removed if he is:
a. Mentally unfit
b. Adjudged an insolvent
c. Convicted of a minor offence
d. Politically opposed to government
108. A Commissioner may be removed under Section 6(3)(b) if convicted of an offence involving:
a. Financial irregularity
b. Moral turpitude, in the opinion of Central Government
c. Minor misconduct
d. Civil disputes
109. Engaging in which activity during term of office can lead to removal under Section 6(3)(c)?
a. Voluntary service
b. Paid employment outside duties
c. Academic lectures
d. Advisory roles
110. Under Section 6(3)(d), a Commissioner may be removed if:
a. He is politically active
b. President considers him unfit due to infirmity of mind or body
c. He joins a corporation
d. He retires voluntarily
111. A Commissioner may be removed under Section 6(3)(e) if:
a. He takes part in political campaign
b. He acquires financial or other interest likely to affect his functions prejudicially
c. He engages in social work
d. He writes a book
112. Under Section 6(4), a Commissioner is deemed guilty of misbehavior if he:
a. Participates in parliamentary debates
b. Is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India, other than in common with other members of an incorporated company
c. Attends political rallies
d. Writes letters to media
113. The term “misbehavior” under Section 6 includes:
a. Any disagreement with Central Government
b. Conflict of interest in Government contracts
c. Resignation from office
d. Refusal to attend meetings
114. The inquiry by Supreme Court under Section 6(1) is:
a. Optional
b. Mandatory for removal on misbehavior or incapacity
c. Advisory only
d. Conducted by Central Government
115. Suspension during inquiry ensures:
a. Security of evidence
b. Fair conduct of inquiry
c. Prevents Commissioner from influencing staff
d. All of the above
116. The removal procedure under Section 6(3) is independent of:
a. Inquiry by Supreme Court
b. Recommendation of the Commission
c. Tenure provisions under Section 5
d. President’s discretion
117. A Commissioner cannot engage in paid employment outside duties because:
a. It violates Code of Conduct
b. It reduces salary
c. It creates conflict of interest
d. Both a and c
118. Section 6(4) ensures Commissioners do not:
a. Acquire political positions
b. Benefit personally from Government contracts
c. Attend Parliament sessions
d. Resign voluntarily
119. The powers of removal under Section 6 are vested in:
a. Prime Minister
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Central Vigilance Commission
120. Section 6 strengthens the independence of CVC by:
a. Allowing removal only on strict grounds
b. Providing suspension mechanism during inquiry
c. Defining misbehavior and incapacity
d. All of the above
121. Section 7 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Removal of Commissioners
b. Power to make rules by the Central Government for the staff of the Commission
c. Appointment of Commissioners
d. Terms and conditions of service of Commissioners
122. Who has the authority to make rules regarding the staff of the Commission under Section 7?
a. Central Vigilance Commission alone
b. President
c. Central Government in consultation with the Commission
d. Prime Minister
123. The rules made under Section 7 pertain to:
a. Functions of the Commissioners
b. Number of members of the staff and their conditions of service
c. Removal of Commissioners
d. Salary of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
124. Section 7 requires the Central Government to consult with:
a. Prime Minister
b. Parliament
c. The Commission
d. Supreme Court
125. Conditions of service of the staff include:
a. Tenure, pay, allowances, and other service rules
b. Powers of the Commissioners
c. Term of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Removal procedure of Commissioners
126. The power under Section 7 is exercised by the Central Government:
a. Independently without consultation
b. Only after approval from Parliament
c. In consultation with the Commission
d. By the President
127. Section 7 ensures that the Central Vigilance Commission staff:
a. Can be appointed directly by the Commission
b. Have their number and conditions of service regulated through rules
c. Are appointed by Parliament
d. Have the same salary as the Prime Minister
128. The rules made under Section 7 can be about:
a. Functions of the Commissioners
b. Members of the staff of the Commission
c. Appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Supreme Court inquiry
129. The consultation with the Commission under Section 7 is meant to:
a. Limit executive power
b. Ensure staff rules are aligned with the needs of the Commission
c. Delegate all powers to the Commission
d. Approve appointments of Commissioners
130. Section 7 strengthens the functioning of the Commission by:
a. Allowing independent appointment of staff by the Commission
b. Giving Central Government control over staff numbers and service conditions with consultation
c. Removing Parliament oversight
d. Fixing salary of Commissioners
131. The rules made under Section 7 are subordinate to:
a. The Constitution of India
b. Orders of the Supreme Court
c. Tenure rules of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Parliamentary resolutions
132. The power to make rules under Section 7 includes:
a. Creation of posts for staff
b. Recruitment procedures
c. Pay scales and service conditions
d. All of the above
133. Section 7 empowers the Central Government to decide:
a. Term of the Commissioners
b. Total number of staff members required by the Commission
c. Removal of Commissioners
d. Functions of the Commission
134. Consultation with the Commission ensures:
a. Staff rules reflect operational requirements
b. Executive dominates the Commission
c. Judicial control over staff
d. Parliament directly approves all staff appointments
135. Which of the following is true about Section 7?
a. The Central Government can ignore the Commission’s advice
b. The Commission sets rules independently
c. The Central Government can make rules only in consultation with the Commission
d. Parliament must approve the rules before implementation
136. Section 8 of the CVC Act, 2003 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Commissioners
b. Removal of Commissioners
c. Functions and powers of the Commission
d. Constitution of the Commission
137. The Commission exercises superintendence over the functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment in relation to:
a. Civil disputes
b. Investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 or offences with which a public servant may be charged under the Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Administrative matters of ministries
d. Policy-making of Government companies
138. While giving directions to the Delhi Special Police Establishment under Section 8(1)(b), the Commission:
a. Can require it to investigate in a particular manner
b. Cannot exercise powers in a way that mandates investigation or disposal in a particular manner
c. Can directly order prosecution
d. Can take over investigations
139. The Commission can inquire or cause inquiry on reference from:
a. Parliament
b. Central Government
c. Supreme Court
d. State Government
140. The inquiry or investigation under Section 8(1)(c) applies to:
a. Private individuals
b. Public servants who are employees of the Central Government, Government companies, societies, local authorities, or corporations established by or under any Central Act
c. State Government employees only
d. Judicial officers
141. The Commission can review the progress of investigations conducted by:
a. State Police
b. Delhi Special Police Establishment
c. Central Vigilance Commission itself
d. Supreme Court
142. The Commission can review the progress of:
a. Applications pending with the competent authorities for sanction of prosecution under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
b. Appointment of Government employees
c. Parliamentary proceedings
d. Budget allocations
143. The Commission can tender advice to:
a. Parliament
b. Courts
c. Central Government, corporations, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government
d. State Governments only
144. Section 8(1)(h) allows the Commission to exercise superintendence over:
a. Private sector vigilance
b. Vigilance administration of Central Government Ministries or corporations, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government
c. Judicial appointments
d. Parliamentary committees
145. The Commission cannot exercise superintendence in a manner inconsistent with:
a. Supreme Court directions
b. Directions relating to vigilance matters issued by the Government
c. Local authority regulations
d. Parliamentary approvals
146. Persons referred to under Section 8(2)(a) include:
a. Group D employees of State Government
b. Members of All-India Services serving in connection with Union affairs and Group ‘A’ officers of the Central Government
c. Private sector employees
d. Judicial officers
147. Persons referred to under Section 8(2)(b) include:
a. Officers of corporations, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by Central Government, as specified by notification
b. Members of Parliament
c. Judicial officers only
d. State Government employees
148. Until a notification is issued under Section 8(2)(b), who are deemed to be the persons referred to in clause (d) of subsection (1)?
a. Only Group A officers
b. All officers of the corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government
c. Judicial officers
d. Private employees
149. Under Section 8(2)(c), on reference from the Lokpal, the persons also include:
a. Only Group A officers
b. Group B, Group C, and Group D services of the Central Government
c. Private sector employees
d. Judicial officers
150. Under Section 8(2)(c), the officials or staff of corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government:
a. Are automatically exempt
b. Shall be specified by notification in the Official Gazette
c. Are only Group A officers
d. Cannot be investigated
151. Until a notification is issued under Section 8(2)(c), who are deemed to be the persons referred to?
a. Only senior officers
b. All officials or staff of the corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government
c. Private sector employees
d. Lok Sabha members
152. Section 8 ensures that the CVC can:
a. Exercise policy-making powers over Government companies
b. Supervise vigilance administration without affecting policy powers of Government
c. Replace the Central Government in investigations
d. Approve promotions of public servants
153. The powers of the Commission under Section 8 help in:
a. Efficient investigation of corruption offences
b. Reviewing prosecution sanction applications
c. Advising Government authorities on vigilance matters
d. All of the above
154. Section 8A of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Powers of the Central Government
b. Action on preliminary inquiry in relation to Group C and Group D public servants
c. Appointment of Commissioners
d. Removal of Commissioners
155. Section 8A applies to public servants belonging to:
a. Group A only
b. Group B only
c. Group C and Group D of the Central Government
d. All employees of the Central Government
156. Before taking action under Section 8A(1), the Commission must:
a. Conduct a full criminal trial
b. Give the public servant an opportunity of being heard
c. Seek approval from the Prime Minister
d. Consult the Parliament
157. If a prima facie violation of conduct rules relating to corruption is found, the Commission may:
a. Cause an investigation by any agency or the Delhi Special Police Establishment
b. Initiate disciplinary proceedings or other appropriate action by the competent authority
c. Close the proceedings against the public servant and proceed against the complainant under section 46 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
d. Any one or more of the above actions
158. The Commission can cause an investigation under Section 8A(1)(a) by:
a. Only the Central Vigilance Commission itself
b. Any agency or the Delhi Special Police Establishment
c. Only the Supreme Court
d. The Prime Minister
159. The competent authority can initiate which action under Section 8A(1)(b)?
a. Legislative changes
b. Disciplinary proceedings or any other appropriate action against the public servant
c. Policy formulation
d. Judicial review
160. Under Section 8A(1)(c), if the complaint is found unsubstantiated, the Commission may:
a. Close the proceedings against the public servant and proceed against the complainant under section 46 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
b. Arrest the public servant
c. Forward the matter to Parliament
d. Initiate policy changes
161. Ordinarily, every preliminary inquiry under Section 8A should be completed within:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
162. If reasons are recorded in writing, the preliminary inquiry can be extended under Section 8A(2) by a further period of:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
163. The 90-day extension under Section 8A(2) is counted from:
a. Date of appointment of Commissioner
b. Date of receipt of the complaint
c. Date of completion of investigation
d. Date of Parliamentary notification
164. The purpose of Section 8A is to:
a. Ensure timely action against corruption complaints involving Group C and D public servants
b. Appoint new Commissioners
c. Set salary and allowances for staff
d. Supervise vigilance in Ministries
165. Which Act is referenced in Section 8A regarding corruption offences?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Companies Act, 1956
d. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
166. Section 8A allows proceeding against the complainant under which provision?
a. Section 20 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
b. Section 46 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
c. Section 8 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Section 6 of the CVC Act, 2003
167. The preliminary inquiry provides:
a. A full trial of corruption cases
b. An initial fact-finding before full investigation or disciplinary action
c. Authority to remove Commissioners
d. Powers to amend legislation
168. The Commission may take multiple actions under Section 8A(1). This ensures:
a. Efficiency and discretion in handling complaints
b. Mandatory prosecution only
c. Only closure of complaints
d. Only disciplinary action
169. Section 8B of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of Commissioners
b. Action on investigation in relation to public servants
c. Removal of Commissioners
d. Superintendence of vigilance administration
170. When the Commission decides to investigate a complaint under Section 8A, it shall direct:
a. The Parliament to act
b. Any agency, including the Delhi Special Police Establishment, to carry out the investigation
c. The Prime Minister to intervene
d. The public servant to conduct self-investigation
171. The investigation under Section 8B(1) must ordinarily be completed within:
a. Three months
b. Six months from the date of the Commission’s order
c. One year
d. Ninety days
172. The Commission may extend the investigation period by:
a. Three months
b. Six months, for reasons recorded in writing
c. One year
d. Not allowed to extend
173. Section 8B(2) clarifies that agencies, including the Delhi Special Police Establishment, shall submit the investigation report:
a. To the Parliament
b. To the President
c. To the Commission, notwithstanding anything in Section 173 of the CrPC
d. To the Prime Minister
174. After receiving the investigation report under Section 8B(3), the Commission may decide to:
a. File a charge-sheet or closure report before the Special Court against the public servant
b. Initiate departmental proceedings or any other appropriate action by the competent authority
c. Both actions, depending on findings
d. Forward the matter to the Supreme Court automatically
175. The maximum period for completing the investigation without extension under Section 8B(1) is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Nine months
d. One year
176. The Commission has authority to direct investigation agencies to act:
a. Expeditiously, to ensure timely completion
b. Slowly, over years
c. Only after approval from the Central Government
d. Only under Supreme Court supervision
177. The extension period granted by the Commission under Section 8B(1) requires:
a. Approval of Parliament
b. Reasons recorded in writing
c. Permission of the President
d. No specific reason required
178. Submission of investigation reports under Section 8B(2) is mandatory for:
a. Private companies
b. Agencies including Delhi Special Police Establishment
c. State Governments
d. Lokpal only
179. Filing of charge-sheet or closure report before the Special Court is decided by the Commission based on:
a. Recommendations of the Prime Minister
b. Findings of the investigation report received from the agency
c. Approval of Parliament
d. Suggestions from the President
180. Initiation of departmental proceedings or any other action under Section 8B(3)(b) is taken by:
a. The Commission directly
b. The competent authority
c. Parliament
d. Supreme Court
181. Section 8B ensures that investigation reports:
a. Can be ignored by the Commission
b. Must be considered by the Commission to decide further action
c. Are submitted only for information
d. Are sent to Parliament for approval
182. The provisions of Section 173 of the CrPC do not prevent:
a. Filing of disciplinary action
b. Submission of investigation report by agencies to the Commission
c. Appointment of Commissioners
d. Removal of Commissioners
183. Section 8B(1) emphasizes that investigations should be conducted:
a. Slowly and at leisure
b. Expeditiously and within the specified time frame
c. Only after Parliamentary approval
d. Only in the presence of the President
184. Section 9 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Powers and functions of the Commission
b. Proceedings of the Commission
c. Appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Removal of Vigilance Commissioners
185. The proceedings of the Commission shall be conducted at:
a. Any state capital
b. Parliament House
c. Its headquarters
d. Supreme Court
186. The Commission may regulate the procedure for transaction of its business by:
a. Majority decision
b. Unanimous decision
c. Presidential order
d. Parliamentary resolution
187. Allocation of business amongst the Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance Commissioners can be regulated by:
a. Central Government
b. Unanimous decision of the Commission
c. Prime Minister
d. Supreme Court
188. All business of the Commission shall, as far as possible, be transacted:
a. By the Central Vigilance Commissioner alone
b. Unanimously
c. By the senior-most Vigilance Commissioner alone
d. By majority vote only
189. If the Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance Commissioners differ in opinion, the matter shall be decided according to:
a. The opinion of the senior-most Commissioner
b. The opinion of the majority
c. The President’s instructions
d. The Prime Minister’s approval
190. Who presides over a meeting of the Commission?
a. The Prime Minister
b. The senior-most Vigilance Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner is unable to attend
c. Any appointed officer of the Government
d. The President
191. No act or proceeding of the Commission shall be invalid merely by reason of:
a. Defects in the constitution of the Commission
b. Defects in the appointment of a person acting as Central Vigilance Commissioner or Vigilance Commissioner
c. Any procedural irregularity not affecting the merits of the case
d. All of the above
192. Section 9 protects the validity of Commission proceedings even in case of:
a. Vacancy in the Commission
b. Defective appointments
c. Irregularities in procedure not affecting merits
d. All of the above
193. If the Central Vigilance Commissioner cannot attend a meeting, who has the authority to preside?
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Senior-most Vigilance Commissioner present
d. Any Commissioner chosen by lot
194. The Commission’s unanimous decisions under Section 9(2) are related to:
a. Removal of Commissioners
b. Procedure and allocation of business
c. Salary and allowances of staff
d. Investigations of public servants
195. The provision in Section 9 ensures that the Commission’s business is:
a. Transacted only after Supreme Court approval
b. Transacted as far as possible unanimously, with majority decision in case of differences
c. Always decided by the Central Vigilance Commissioner alone
d. Subject to President’s discretion
196. Section 9(6)(c) protects the Commission’s acts or proceedings from being invalid due to:
a. Merits of the case being affected
b. Irregularities in procedure not affecting the merits of the case
c. Non-appointment of President
d. Delay in investigations
197. The headquarters of the Commission, where proceedings are conducted, is generally located in:
a. Mumbai
b. New Delhi
c. Kolkata
d. Chennai
198. The majority opinion rule under Section 9(4) applies when:
a. The Central Vigilance Commissioner is absent
b. Commissioners differ in opinion on any matter
c. Only one Commissioner is present
d. No business is allocated
199. Section 10 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
b. Vigilance Commissioner acting as Central Vigilance Commissioner in certain circumstances
c. Removal of Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Proceedings of the Commission
200. A Vigilance Commissioner can act as the Central Vigilance Commissioner when:
a. The CVC is on leave or otherwise unable to discharge his functions
b. The CVC office is vacant due to death, resignation, or otherwise
c. Both of the above circumstances
d. None of the above