THE PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT, 1988
ACT NO. 49 OF 1988
1. Section 23 reduces the prosecution’s burden at the stage of:
a. Investigation
b. Cognizance
c. Framing of charge
d. Final arguments
2. Section 23 does NOT dispense with the requirement of proving:
a. Entrustment of property
b. Dishonest intention
c. Period of offence
d. Value of property
3. Section 23 is applicable notwithstanding anything contained in:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Evidence Act
d. Limitation Act
4. The charge under Section 23 can cover acts committed:
a. On one day only
b. On different dates within one year
c. Over several years
d. After retirement only
5. Section 23 helps courts in cases where:
a. Property items are numerous
b. Witnesses are unavailable
c. Accused pleads guilty
d. Sanction is refused
6. The proviso to Section 23 acts as a safeguard against:
a. Acquittal
b. Excessive punishment
c. Over-extended charges
d. Summary trial
7. Section 23 ensures harmony between PC Act and:
a. IPC
b. CrPC Section 219
c. Evidence Act
d. Constitution
8. Section 23 reflects the legislative intent to:
a. Liberalise bail
b. Simplify corruption trials
c. Reduce punishment
d. Increase limitation period
9. Section 23 ultimately strengthens prosecution in offences under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 11
c. Section 13(1)(a)
d. Section 15
10. Section 25 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 primarily deals with:
a. Sanction for prosecution
b. Special Judges
c. Saving of jurisdiction under special laws
d. Presumption of guilt
11. Section 25 begins with which expression?
a. Subject to the provisions of this Act
b. Notwithstanding anything contained
c. Nothing in this Act shall affect
d. Save as otherwise provided
12. Section 25 protects the jurisdiction exercisable under:
a. Only the Army Act
b. Only defence forces laws
c. Certain special service Acts
d. All criminal laws
13. Which of the following Acts is expressly mentioned in Section 25?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Army Act, 1950
c. CrPC, 1973
d. Evidence Act, 1872
14. Section 25 ensures that the Prevention of Corruption Act does NOT affect:
a. Punishment provisions
b. Cognizance powers
c. Jurisdiction and procedure under specified Acts
d. Appeal provisions
15. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in Section 25(1)?
a. Air Force Act, 1950
b. Navy Act, 1957
c. Coast Guard Act, 1978
d. Central Reserve Police Force Act
16. The Border Security Force Act referred in Section 25 is of the year:
a. 1950
b. 1957
c. 1968
d. 1978
17. Section 25 applies to jurisdiction exercisable by:
a. Courts only
b. Authorities only
c. Courts or other authorities
d. Investigating agencies
18. The Navy Act mentioned in Section 25 is of the year:
a. 1950
b. 1957
c. 1968
d. 1986
19. Section 25(1) saves both jurisdiction and:
a. Punishment
b. Evidence
c. Procedure
d. Limitation
20. Which Act of 1986 is specifically mentioned under Section 25?
a. National Investigation Agency Act
b. National Security Guard Act
c. Prevention of Terrorism Act
d. Armed Forces Tribunal Act
21. Section 25 ensures harmonious construction between PC Act and:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Service-specific special laws
d. Evidence Act
22. Sub-section (2) of Section 25 is introduced mainly for:
a. Punishment
b. Clarification
c. Enhancement of jurisdiction
d. Appeal
23. Section 25(2) begins with which phrase?
a. Notwithstanding anything contained
b. Provided that
c. For the removal of doubts
d. Subject to the provisions
24. For the purposes of laws mentioned in Section 25(1), a Special Judge shall be deemed to be:
a. A military court
b. A tribunal
c. A court of ordinary criminal justice
d. A sessions court
25. The deeming provision in Section 25(2) applies to:
a. PC Act only
b. CrPC only
c. Laws referred in sub-section (1)
d. All criminal laws
26. Section 25(2) creates a:
a. Rebuttable presumption
b. Legal fiction
c. Conclusive proof
d. Judicial discretion
27. The primary object of Section 25 is to:
a. Exclude armed forces from PC Act
b. Confer exclusive jurisdiction
c. Prevent conflict between PC Act and service laws
d. Provide immunity to armed forces
28. Section 25 does NOT state that:
a. PC Act overrides service laws
b. Jurisdiction under service laws remains unaffected
c. Procedure under service laws continues
d. Special Judge is ordinary criminal court
29. The Coast Guard Act mentioned in Section 25 is of the year:
a. 1968
b. 1978
c. 1986
d. 1957
30. Section 25 applies to members governed by:
a. Only military law
b. Only civilian law
c. Special force-specific laws
d. Contract law
31. Section 25 is an example of which type of clause?
a. Penal clause
b. Saving clause
c. Charging clause
d. Procedural clause
32. The Air Force Act referred to in Section 25 is of the year:
a. 1947
b. 1950
c. 1957
d. 1968
33. Section 25 clarifies that proceedings under service laws may continue:
a. Independently of PC Act
b. Only with sanction
c. Only before Special Judge
d. Only after conviction
34. Section 25 ensures that Special Judge’s court is treated as ordinary criminal court for:
a. Appeal
b. Review
c. Purposes of service laws
d. Administrative control
35. The phrase “shall be deemed” in Section 25(2) indicates:
a. Discretionary power
b. Mandatory assumption
c. Optional procedure
d. Conditional application
36. Section 25 does NOT curtail powers of:
a. Special Judge
b. Military courts
c. Authorities under service Acts
d. Investigating agencies
37. Section 25 reflects legislative intent of:
a. Supremacy of PC Act
b. Exclusion of armed forces
c. Co-existence of special laws
d. Replacement of service laws
38. Section 25 maintains continuity of which aspect under service Acts?
a. Jurisdiction and procedure
b. Evidence only
c. Punishment only
d. Appeal only
39. Section 25 ultimately safeguards:
a. Rights of accused only
b. Authority of Special Judge
c. Autonomy of service justice systems
d. Speedy trial
40. Section 26 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with:
a. Appointment of new Special Judges
b. Transfer of cases
c. Continuation of Special Judges appointed under earlier law
d. Removal of Special Judges
41. Section 26 refers to Special Judges appointed under which Act?
a. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947
b. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
c. Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952
d. Indian Penal Code, 1860
42. The Criminal Law Amendment Act referred to in Section 26 is:
a. Act 16 of 2018
b. Act 46 of 1952
c. Act 2 of 1974
d. Act 1 of 2014
43. Section 26 applies to Special Judges who are:
a. Appointed after commencement of PC Act, 1988
b. Retired before commencement
c. Holding office on the commencement of the Act
d. Temporarily appointed
44. A Special Judge appointed under the 1952 Act shall be deemed to be appointed under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
45. The deeming provision under Section 26 creates:
a. Presumption of fact
b. Presumption of law
c. Legal fiction
d. Judicial discretion
46. Section 26 ensures that Special Judges appointed earlier shall:
a. Cease to function
b. Be re-appointed afresh
c. Continue as Special Judges under PC Act, 1988
d. Be transferred to Sessions Courts
47. Section 26 applies to Special Judges appointed for:
a. The whole of India only
b. Union Territories only
c. Any area or areas
d. Metropolitan areas only
48. From which point of time does Section 26 operate?
a. Date of offence
b. Date of appointment
c. Date of commencement of the Act
d. Date of notification
49. The words “shall be deemed” in Section 26 indicate:
a. Optional continuation
b. Mandatory continuation
c. Conditional appointment
d. Temporary arrangement
50. After commencement of the PC Act, 1988, proceedings pending before such Special Judges shall be dealt with:
a. Under CrPC only
b. Under the 1952 Act
c. In accordance with the provisions of PC Act, 1988
d. As per State rules
51. Section 26 ensures continuity of:
a. Investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Judicial proceedings
d. Appeal
52. The primary object of Section 26 is to avoid:
a. Delay in sanction
b. Multiplicity of courts
c. Jurisdictional vacuum
d. Excess punishment
53. Section 26 is an example of which type of provision?
a. Penal provision
b. Transitional provision
c. Charging provision
d. Procedural bar
54. Section 26 protects pending proceedings from being:
a. Quashed
b. Stayed
c. Abated
d. Re-investigated
55. The continuation of proceedings under Section 26 is:
a. Discretionary
b. Subject to sanction
c. Automatic by operation of law
d. Dependent on notification
56. Section 26 applies only to Special Judges who were:
a. Newly appointed
b. Temporarily posted
c. Already holding office
d. Acting Judges
57. Proceedings pending before Special Judges at commencement shall continue:
a. De novo
b. From cognizance stage
c. From the stage already reached
d. Only after fresh charge
58. Section 26 eliminates the need for:
a. Fresh sanction
b. Fresh investigation
c. Fresh appointment of judges
d. Fresh evidence
59. The Special Judge deemed under Section 26 is deemed for:
a. All purposes
b. Appeal only
c. That area or areas
d. Whole State
60. Section 26 maintains continuity between:
a. IPC and PC Act
b. CrPC and PC Act
c. 1952 Act and 1988 Act
d. State law and Central law
61. Section 26 does NOT deal with:
a. Pending cases
b. Area jurisdiction
c. Appointment of fresh judges
d. Deeming provision
62. The words “accordingly” in Section 26 signify:
a. Consequence of deeming fiction
b. Judicial discretion
c. Optional application
d. Appeal mechanism
63. Section 26 ensures that justice delivery is:
a. Restarted
b. Suspended
c. Continuous and uninterrupted
d. Limited
64. Section 26 avoids violation of which principle?
a. Natural justice
b. Double jeopardy
c. Delay defeats justice
d. Separation of powers
65. A Special Judge covered under Section 26 shall function under:
a. CrPC only
b. 1952 Act only
c. Provisions of PC Act, 1988
d. State amendments
66. Section 26 is closely connected with which section of the PC Act?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 5
d. Section 7
67. Section 26 ensures administrative and judicial:
a. Control
b. Continuity
c. Sanction
d. Review
68. The deeming fiction under Section 26 applies only if the Judge was appointed under:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952
d. PC Act, 1947
69. Section 26 ultimately reflects the legislative intent of:
a. Re-trial
b. Re-appointment
c. Smooth transition between laws
d. Enhanced punishment
70. Section 27 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 relates to:
a. Cognizance of offences
b. Sanction for prosecution
c. Appeal and revision
d. Appointment of Special Judges
71. Under Section 27, which court is empowered to exercise appellate and revisional powers?
a. Sessions Court
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. Special Judge
72. The powers exercised by the High Court under Section 27 are derived from:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Evidence Act, 1872
73. Section 27 makes the powers of appeal and revision:
a. Independent of CrPC
b. Limited to PC Act only
c. Subject to the provisions of the PC Act
d. Subject to State amendments
74. The phrase “subject to the provisions of this Act” in Section 27 indicates:
a. Absolute power of High Court
b. Conditional exercise of powers
c. Exclusion of CrPC
d. Mandatory appeal
75. For the purpose of appeal and revision, the court of the Special Judge is deemed to be:
a. A Magistrate Court
b. A Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. A Court of Session
d. A Tribunal
76. The deeming fiction under Section 27 is created for the purpose of:
a. Investigation
b. Trial
c. Appeal and revision
d. Sanction
77. The High Court exercises appellate jurisdiction as if the Special Judge were:
a. A Magistrate trying summary cases
b. A Sessions Court trying cases
c. A Tribunal deciding disputes
d. A Civil Court
78. Section 27 equates the Special Judge’s court to a Sessions Court only for:
a. Trial
b. Sentencing
c. Appeal and revision
d. Evidence recording
79. The Code of Criminal Procedure referred to in Section 27 is:
a. Act 2 of 1973
b. Act 2 of 1974
c. Act 46 of 1952
d. Act 25 of 1955
80. Under Section 27, the High Court may exercise:
a. Only appellate powers
b. Only revisional powers
c. Both appellate and revisional powers
d. Supervisory powers only
81. The expression “so far as they may be applicable” suggests that:
a. All CrPC powers apply automatically
b. CrPC powers apply with necessary adaptation
c. CrPC powers are excluded
d. Only appeal powers apply
82. Appeals from judgments of Special Judges under the PC Act lie to:
a. District Court
b. Sessions Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court directly
83. Section 27 creates a legal fiction treating the Special Judge’s court as:
a. Court of Magistrate
b. Court of ordinary criminal justice
c. Court of Session
d. Administrative authority
84. The appellate power under Section 27 is exercised within:
a. State limits
b. Revenue district
c. Local limits of the High Court
d. Whole of India
85. Section 27 ensures uniformity by applying which procedural law?
a. IPC
b. Evidence Act
c. CrPC
d. Civil Procedure Code
86. The High Court’s revisional powers under Section 27 are the same as those under:
a. PC Act only
b. CrPC
c. IPC
d. Constitution of India
87. Section 27 does NOT deal with:
a. Appeals
b. Revisions
c. Sanction for prosecution
d. Powers of High Court
88. The appellate jurisdiction under Section 27 is exercised “as if”:
a. The Special Judge were a Magistrate
b. The Special Judge were a Sessions Judge
c. The Special Judge were a Tribunal
d. The Special Judge were a Civil Judge
89. Section 27 is primarily a:
a. Penal provision
b. Substantive provision
c. Procedural provision
d. Punishment clause
90. The purpose of Section 27 is to clarify:
a. Jurisdiction of Magistrates
b. Mode of investigation
c. Appellate and revisional forum
d. Punishment structure
91. The High Court’s powers under Section 27 include powers under Sections 374 to 401 of:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Evidence Act
d. PC Act
92. Section 27 ensures that judgments of Special Judges are not appealed before:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. Sessions Court
d. Appellate Tribunal
93. The expression “court of Session trying cases” indicates:
a. Original jurisdiction
b. Appellate jurisdiction
c. Trial jurisdiction equivalent
d. Revisional jurisdiction only
94. Section 27 prevents confusion regarding:
a. Trial procedure
b. Investigating agency
c. Appellate authority
d. Charge framing
95. The appellate powers under Section 27 are exercised by the High Court:
a. Independently of CrPC
b. In substitution of CrPC
c. In consonance with CrPC
d. In violation of CrPC
96. Section 27 maintains hierarchy by placing Special Judge’s court below:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
97. The legal effect of Section 27 is that appeals from Special Judge’s orders lie to:
a. Sessions Court as first appeal
b. High Court directly
c. Supreme Court directly
d. Tribunal
98. Section 27 applies only within:
a. Territorial jurisdiction of the Magistrate
b. Revenue limits
c. Local limits of the High Court
d. National jurisdiction
99. Section 27 harmonises the Prevention of Corruption Act with:
a. Constitution of India
b. Criminal Procedure Code
c. Evidence Act
d. Indian Penal Code
100. The phrase “may exercise” in Section 27 indicates:
a. Mandatory exercise
b. Discretionary power
c. Prohibited power
d. Delegated power
101. Section 27 ensures that the Special Judge’s decisions are subject to:
a. Administrative review
b. Executive control
c. Judicial scrutiny
d. Legislative oversight
102. Section 27 ultimately strengthens the principle of:
a. Speedy investigation
b. Fair trial
c. Appellate supervision
d. Separation of powers
103. Section 27 treats Special Judge’s court as Sessions Court only for:
a. Sentencing
b. Appeal and revision
c. Taking cognizance
d. Grant of sanction
104. Section 27 reflects legislative intent to provide:
a. Multiple appeals
b. Uniform appellate procedure
c. Separate appellate courts
d. Special tribunals
105. Section 28 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 provides that the Act shall operate:
a. In substitution of all other laws
b. In derogation of existing laws
c. In addition to other laws
d. Only when no other law exists
106. The phrase “not in derogation of” means:
a. Reducing the effect of other laws
b. Repealing existing laws
c. Taking away the operation of other laws
d. Not diminishing the operation of other laws
107. Section 28 ensures that the Prevention of Corruption Act:
a. Overrides all penal statutes
b. Excludes applicability of IPC
c. Supplements other applicable laws
d. Applies only to special courts
108. According to Section 28, a public servant prosecuted under the Act:
a. Is immune from departmental inquiry
b. Is exempted from civil liability
c. Is not exempt from other proceedings
d. Can be tried only under this Act
109. The words “for the time being in force” indicate:
a. Laws enacted before independence
b. Laws currently operative
c. Temporary ordinances only
d. Repealed enactments
110. Section 28 clarifies that initiation of proceedings under the PC Act:
a. Bars proceedings under IPC
b. Bars disciplinary proceedings
c. Does not bar proceedings under other laws
d. Requires prior High Court approval
111. Which type of clause is Section 28?
a. Penal clause
b. Saving clause
c. Charging clause
d. Procedural clause
112. Section 28 mainly prevents the accused public servant from claiming:
a. Double jeopardy
b. Statutory exemption
c. Lack of jurisdiction
d. Limitation
113. Section 28 reflects which legislative intent?
a. To protect public servants
b. To limit prosecution
c. To ensure coexistence of laws
d. To repeal conflicting statutes
114. Under Section 28, proceedings that may be instituted apart from this Act include:
a. Only criminal proceedings
b. Only civil proceedings
c. Only departmental proceedings
d. All lawful proceedings under other laws
115. Section 28 makes it clear that the PC Act:
a. Is a self-contained code
b. Is exclusive in nature
c. Does not exclude other remedies
d. Replaces IPC provisions
116. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 28?
a. It grants immunity to public servants
b. It bars parallel prosecutions
c. It preserves the applicability of other laws
d. It restricts departmental action
117. Section 28 negates which possible defense?
a. Defense of limitation
b. Defense of sanction
c. Defense of exclusive prosecution
d. Defense of jurisdiction
118. The Prevention of Corruption Act, by virtue of Section 28:
a. Overrides service rules
b. Overrides criminal law
c. Operates cumulatively with other laws
d. Operates retrospectively
119. Section 28 applies to which category of persons?
a. Only private individuals
b. Only judges
c. Only ministers
d. Public servants
120. The phrase “nothing contained herein shall exempt” signifies:
a. Absolute liability
b. Mandatory punishment
c. Absence of immunity
d. Automatic conviction
121. Section 28 ensures that a public servant may face:
a. Only one legal proceeding
b. Only criminal prosecution
c. Multiple lawful proceedings
d. Only departmental inquiry
122. Which legal principle is embodied in Section 28?
a. Lex posterior derogat priori
b. Rule against bias
c. Harmonious construction
d. Strict interpretation
123. Section 28 prevents the PC Act from being used as:
a. A punitive statute
b. A shield against other laws
c. A special law
d. A regulatory statute
124. Which of the following proceedings is NOT barred by Section 28?
a. Criminal case under IPC
b. Departmental disciplinary action
c. Civil recovery proceedings
d. All of the above
125. Section 28 maintains the authority of:
a. Only Special Judges
b. Only Vigilance Authorities
c. All competent authorities under other laws
d. Only High Courts
126. The effect of Section 28 is that:
a. PC Act prevails absolutely
b. Other laws prevail absolutely
c. Both PC Act and other laws coexist
d. Only constitutional law applies
127. Section 28 supports which constitutional principle?
a. Equality before law
b. Freedom of speech
c. Protection against ex post facto law
d. Separation of powers
128. If a public servant commits misconduct punishable under service rules and PC Act:
a. Only service rules apply
b. Only PC Act applies
c. Both may apply simultaneously
d. Neither applies
129. Section 28 primarily acts as a:
a. Penal safeguard
b. Procedural bar
c. Legislative clarification
d. Jurisdiction-conferring provision
130. Section 28 ensures that corruption laws:
a. Replace all existing laws
b. Restrict legal remedies
c. Strengthen the legal framework
d. Reduce prosecutorial powers
131. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 under Section 28:
a. Creates exclusive jurisdiction
b. Limits prosecution to one forum
c. Preserves multiple legal remedies
d. Grants statutory immunity
132. Section 28 is significant because it:
a. Defines corruption
b. Prescribes punishment
c. Clarifies the scope of the Act
d. Establishes Special Courts
133. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 28?
a. Mandatory provision
b. Enabling provision
c. Declaratory provision
d. Punitive provision
134. Section 28 ensures that no public servant can claim:
a. Double punishment
b. Exclusive protection under PC Act
c. Natural justice
d. Fair trial
135. Section 29 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with:
a. Repeal of earlier ordinances
b. Amendment of Ordinance 38 of 1944
c. Saving of pending proceedings
d. Constitution of Special Courts
136. The Ordinance amended by Section 29 is:
a. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944
d. Prevention of Corruption Ordinance, 1947
137. In Section 3(1) of the 1944 Ordinance, the words “State Government” were substituted by:
a. Central Government only
b. Appropriate Government
c. State Government or Central Government
d. State Government and local authority
138. The substitution of “State Government or Central Government” applies to:
a. Only Section 3
b. Only Section 10
c. Sections 3, 9, 10, 11 and 13
d. Entire Ordinance
139. Section 29 enhances the time period in Section 10(а) of the 1944 Ordinance from:
a. One month to six months
b. Three months to six months
c. Three months to one year
d. Six months to one year
140. The amendment increasing the period to “one year” relates to:
a. Clause (b) of Section 10
b. Clause (a) of Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 13
141. Paragraph 1 of the Schedule to the 1944 Ordinance was:
a. Modified
b. Substituted
c. Omitted
d. Renumbered
142. Section 29 expanded the meaning of “local authority” by including:
a. Private companies
b. Foreign corporations
c. Corporations established under Central, Provincial or State Act
d. Cooperative societies only
143. Which entities were added after the words “a local authority” in paragraphs 2 and 4 of the Scheule?
a. Only Government companies
b. Only statutory authorities
c. Corporations, authorities, bodies, Government companies and societies
d. Only societies
144. A “Government company” for the purpose of Section 29 is defined under:
a. Companies Act, 2013
b. Companies Act, 1956, Section 617
c. SEBI Act, 1992
d. Companies Ordinance, 1950
145. Section 29 inserted after the words “or authority” the words:
a. Or statutory body
b. Or corporation or body or Government company or society
c. Or private entity
d. Or public institution
146. Paragraph 4A of the Schedule was:
a. Deleted without replacement
b. Retained as it is
c. Substituted by a new paragraph
d. Merged with paragraph 5
147. The substituted Paragraph 4A relates to:
a. Offences under IPC
b. Offences under CrPC
c. Offences under Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Offences under Companies Act
148. Paragraph 5 of the Schedule was amended to include:
a. Items 1 and 2
b. Items 2 and 3
c. Items 2, 3, 4 and 4A
d. Items 3, 4 and 5
149. The primary effect of Section 29 is to:
a. Reduce the scope of attachment proceedings
b. Broaden governmental authority
c. Expand applicability of the 1944 Ordinance
d. Abolish confiscation powers
150. Section 29 ensures inclusion of bodies which are:
a. Privately owned only
b. Owned, controlled or aided by Government
c. Managed by individuals
d. Foreign funded
151. The amendment in Section 29 strengthens proceedings related to:
a. Bail
b. Confiscation of property
c. Compounding of offences
d. Limitation
152. Section 29 applies to which Schedule?
a. Schedule of PC Act, 1988
b. Schedule of IPC
c. Schedule of Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944
d. Schedule of CrPC
153. The words “as the case may be” signify:
a. Mandatory choice
b. Exclusive authority
c. Context-based application
d. Judicial discretion
154. Section 29 widens jurisdiction by including offences under:
a. IPC only
b. CrPC only
c. PC Act, 1988
d. Companies Act only
155. The amendment of time period in Section 10 indicates:
a. Leniency
b. Procedural simplification
c. Strengthening of enforcement
d. Reduction of authority
156. Section 29 mainly serves which legislative purpose?
a. Penal enhancement
b. Administrative convenience
c. Effective attachment of tainted property
d. Judicial review
157. Which of the following entities is expressly included by Section 29?
a. Partnership firms
b. NGOs without aid
c. Societies aided by Government companies
d. Foreign corporations
158. Section 29 is best described as:
a. Punitive provision
b. Declaratory provision
c. Amending provision
d. Saving provision
159. The overall effect of Section 29 is to:
a. Narrow corruption offences
b. Harmonise PC Act with 1944 Ordinance
c. Repeal confiscation laws
d. Limit prosecutorial powers
160. Section 29 strengthens action against corruption by:
a. Limiting government control
b. Expanding definition of covered institutions
c. Removing attachment powers
d. Reducing investigation period
161. The amendment ensures applicability to authorities which are:
a. Fully private
b. Wholly foreign
c. Government-controlled or aided
d. Judicial bodies
162. Section 29 operates in relation to which year Ordinance?
a. 1935
b. 1944
c. 1956
d. 1988
163. The inclusion of PC Act offences in Schedule signifies:
a. Exclusion from confiscation
b. Eligibility for attachment proceedings
c. Bar on prosecution
d. Civil liability only
164. Section 29 ultimately aims to:
a. Protect accused persons
b. Dilute corruption laws
c. Strengthen anti-corruption mechanism
d. Transfer judicial powers
165. Section 29A of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 confers power to make rules on:
a. State Government
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Central Government
d. Supreme Court
166. Rules under Section 29A may be made by the Central Government:
a. By executive order
b. By circular
c. By notification in the Official Gazette
d. By parliamentary resolution
167. The purpose of making rules under Section 29A is:
a. To amend the Act
b. To carry out the provisions of the Act
c. To override judicial decisions
d. To repeal earlier rules
168. Section 29A(2) begins with the phrase:
a. Notwithstanding anything contained
b. Subject to the provisions
c. In particular, and without prejudice to the generality
d. Provided that
169. The phrase “without prejudice to the generality” signifies that:
a. Power is limited only to specified matters
b. Specified matters restrict the rule-making power
c. Specified matters are illustrative, not exhaustive
d. Power is judicial in nature
170. Section 29A(2)(a) authorises rules relating to:
a. Punishment of public servants
b. Guidelines for investigation
c. Guidelines for commercial organisations under section 9
d. Guidelines for Special Judges
171. Guidelines under Section 29A(2)(a) are intended to be put in place by:
a. Courts
b. Investigating agencies
c. Commercial organisations
d. State Governments
172. Section 29A(2)(b) empowers the Central Government to frame rules regarding:
a. Grant of pardon
b. Attachment of property
c. Sanction of prosecution
d. Framing of charges
173. The guidelines for sanction of prosecution relate to:
a. Section 17
b. Section 18
c. Section 19(1)
d. Section 20
174. Section 29A(2)(c) allows rules to be made for:
a. Matters expressly mentioned only
b. Matters required or permitted to be prescribed
c. Matters decided by courts
d. Matters excluded by the Act
175. Section 29A(3) deals with:
a. Delegation of powers
b. Publication of rules
c. Laying of rules before Parliament
d. Enforcement of rules
176. Every rule made under the Act must be laid before:
a. State Legislature
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Vigilance Commission
d. Each House of Parliament
177. The rules must be laid before Parliament:
a. Before coming into force
b. Immediately on making
c. As soon as may be after making
d. After judicial approval
178. The total period for which rules must be laid before Parliament is:
a. Fifteen days
b. Thirty days
c. Sixty days
d. Ninety days
179. The period of thirty days may be comprised in:
a. Only one session
b. Only two sessions
c. One or more successive sessions
d. One session of Lok Sabha only
180. If both Houses of Parliament agree to modify a rule:
a. The rule ceases to exist
b. The rule continues without change
c. The rule takes effect in modified form
d. The rule requires presidential assent
181. If both Houses agree that a rule should not be made:
a. Rule remains valid
b. Rule becomes void
c. Rule applies prospectively
d. Rule applies only to pending cases
182. The modification or annulment of a rule shall be:
a. Retrospective in effect
b. Without prejudice to prior actions
c. Subject to judicial review only
d. Effective only after re-notification
183. The phrase “without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done” means:
a. Past actions become invalid
b. Past actions remain valid
c. Past actions require ratification
d. Past actions are suspended
184. Section 29A embodies which form of legislative control?
a. Judicial control
b. Administrative control
c. Parliamentary control
d. Executive control
185. The rule-making power under Section 29A is an example of:
a. Judicial legislation
b. Delegated legislation
c. Subordinate judiciary
d. Constitutional amendment
186. Rules framed under Section 29A derive authority from:
a. Judicial precedent
b. Parliamentary resolution
c. Statutory delegation
d. Constitutional mandate
187. Which authority has the power to annul the rules under Section 29A?
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Government
c. Both Houses of Parliament
d. Central Vigilance Commission
188. Section 29A ensures accountability of rule-making by:
a. Judicial sanction
b. Parliamentary scrutiny
c. Presidential assent
d. Public consultation
189. Section 29A rules come into force:
a. On parliamentary approval
b. On notification in Official Gazette
c. After thirty days automatically
d. After Supreme Court validation
190. The power under Section 29A(1) is:
a. Mandatory
b. Judicial
c. Discretionary
d. Ministerial
191. Section 29A primarily supports:
a. Investigation process
b. Implementation of the Act
c. Trial procedure
d. Punishment mechanism
192. The scope of rule-making under Section 29A is:
a. Narrow and restrictive
b. Limited to offences only
c. Broad and enabling
d. Exclusively procedural
193. Guidelines under Section 29A aim to:
a. Replace statutory provisions
b. Supplement statutory provisions
c. Override court judgments
d. Limit prosecutorial powers
194. Section 29A ensures that the Act remains:
a. Rigid and inflexible
b. Dynamic and adaptable
c. Judicially controlled
d. Constitutionally entrenched
195. Section 30 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with:
a. Rule-making power
b. Amendment of other laws
c. Repeal and saving
d. Transitional provisions only
196. Which Act is expressly repealed by Section 30(1)?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947
c. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
d. General Clauses Act, 1897
197. Along with the PC Act, 1947, which other Act is repealed under Section 30(1)?
a. Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944
b. Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952
c. Evidence Act, 1872
d. Companies Act, 1956
198. Section 30(1) repeals how many enactments?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
199. The year of the Prevention of Corruption Act repealed under Section 30 is:
a. 1944
b. 1947
c. 1952
d. 1988
200. The Criminal Law Amendment Act repealed under Section 30 belongs to which year?
a. 1944
b. 1947
c. 1952
d. 1973
201. Section 30(2) begins with which expression?
a. Subject to the provisions
b. Provided that
c. Notwithstanding such repeal
d. Except as otherwise provided
202. Section 30(2) saves actions taken under repealed Acts by applying:
a. Section 5 of IPC
b. Section 6 of CrPC
c. Section 6 of General Clauses Act, 1897
d. Section 7 of Evidence Act
203. The phrase “without prejudice to the application of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897” means:
a. Section 6 is excluded
b. Section 6 is overridden
c. Section 6 continues to apply
d. Section 6 applies only partially
204. Anything done or action taken under the repealed Acts shall be deemed to have been done:
a. Under IPC
b. Under CrPC
c. Under the corresponding provisions of this Act
d. Under administrative orders
205. Saving under Section 30(2) applies only if the earlier action is:
a. Approved by court
b. Not inconsistent with the new Act
c. Pending trial
d. Reported to Government
206. The word “deemed” in Section 30(2) signifies:
a. Presumption of law
b. Rebuttable presumption
c. Legal fiction
d. Judicial discretion
207. Section 30 ensures continuity of:
a. Punishment only
b. Substantive offences only
c. Legal proceedings and actions
d. Judicial appointments
208. Actions “purported to have been done” include:
a. Only valid actions
b. Only judicial orders
c. Actions done in good faith
d. Actions done or claimed to be done
209. The saving clause in Section 30 protects:
a. Accused persons
b. Investigating agencies
c. Past actions under repealed Acts
d. Future legislation
210. Section 30 prevents which consequence?
a. Judicial review
b. Revival of repealed Acts
c. Invalidity of prior actions
d. New prosecutions
211. The repeal under Section 30 is:
a. Absolute without savings
b. Conditional upon notification
c. Accompanied by saving clause
d. Temporary in nature
212. Section 30 reflects which principle of statutory interpretation?
a. Strict construction
b. Prospective overruling
c. Continuity of law
d. Ejusdem generis
213. Section 30(2) applies to:
a. Only criminal trials
b. Only investigations
c. Anything done or any action taken
d. Only convictions
214. The saving clause operates:
a. Retrospectively only
b. Prospectively only
c. Both retrospectively and prospectively
d. Temporarily
215. Section 30 ensures that repeal does not:
a. Strengthen the Act
b. Affect pending or past proceedings
c. Empower Special Judges
d. Increase punishment
216. Section 30(2) comes into effect:
a. Only after court declaration
b. Automatically on repeal
c. After parliamentary approval
d. After Gazette notification
217. The expression “corresponding provision” refers to:
a. Identical wording
b. Similar subject-matter provision
c. Procedural rules
d. Penal sections only
218. Section 30 safeguards which category of actions?
a. Administrative only
b. Judicial only
c. Legislative only
d. All lawful actions under repealed Acts
219. Section 30 is an example of:
a. Penal provision
b. Amending provision
c. Repeal with saving provision
d. Delegated legislation
220. Without Section 30(2), repeal could have resulted in:
a. Faster trials
b. Automatic acquittals
c. Legal vacuum
d. Increased jurisdiction
221. Section 30 harmonises the old laws with:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Constitution of India
222. The General Clauses Act, 1897 is relevant in Section 30 for:
a. Definition of offence
b. Interpretation of repeal
c. Trial procedure
d. Punishment
223. Section 30 preserves validity of actions:
a. Even if inconsistent
b. Only if inconsistent
c. Only if consistent with new Act
d. Regardless of legality
224. Section 30 ensures smooth transition from:
a. Colonial law to constitutional law
b. IPC to PC Act
c. Old corruption laws to new Act
d. Ordinance to statute
225. The combined effect of repeal and saving is:
a. Termination of all cases
b. Revival of repealed Acts
c. Continuation of lawful proceedings
d. Suspension of enforcement
226. Section 30 is crucial because it:
a. Creates new offences
b. Prescribes punishment
c. Prevents failure of justice
d. Limits jurisdiction