THE PREVENTION OF DAMAGE TO PUBLIC PROPERTY ACT, 1984
1. What does The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deal with?
a. Regulation of private property disputes
b. Prevention of damage to public property and matters connected therewith
c. Compensation for damaged movable property
d. Protection of environmental resources
2. What is the official short title of the Act enacted in 1984 to prevent damage to public property?
a. The Public Property Protection Act, 1984
b. The Damage to Property Control Act, 1984
c. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984
d. The Public Assets Safety Act, 1984
3. What is the Act number of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984?
a. Act No. 1 of 1984
b. Act No. 2 of 1984
c. Act No. 3 of 1984
d. Act No. 4 of 1984
4. On which date was The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 enacted?
a. 26th January, 1984
b. 1st March, 1984
c. 16th March, 1984
d. 15th August, 1984
5. By which authority was The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 enacted?
a. State Legislature
b. Supreme Court of India
c. President of India
d. Parliament
6. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 was enacted in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Thirty-third Year
b. Thirty-fourth Year
c. Thirty-fifth Year
d. Thirty-sixth Year
7. Section 1 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deals with which of the following?
a. Punishment for mischief to public property
b. Definitions under the Act
c. Short title, extent and commencement of the Act
d. Powers of the Central Government
8. What is the short title of the Act as provided under Section 1(1)?
a. The Public Property Protection Act, 1984
b. The Prevention of Damage to Property Act, 1984
c. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984
d. The Public Assets Protection Act, 1984
9. To which territorial extent does The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 apply?
a. Selected States only
b. Whole of India
c. Union Territories only
d. Such areas as notified by the Central Government
10. Under Section 1(3), from which date is The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deemed to have come into force?
a. 16th March, 1984
b. 26th January, 1984
c. 28th January, 1984
d. 1st February, 1984
11. Section 2 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 primarily deals with which of the following?
a. Punishments for offences
b. Definitions of key terms used in the Act
c. Powers of the investigating authorities
d. Trial of offences under the Act
12. The term “mischief” under this Act has the same meaning as defined under which provision?
a. Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code
b. Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code
c. Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code
d. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code
13. According to Section 2(b), “public property” includes property of which nature?
a. Only immovable property
b. Only movable property
c. Both movable and immovable property, including machinery
d. Only land and buildings
14. Which of the following authorities’ property is included within the definition of “public property” under Section 2(b)?
a. Private individuals
b. Cooperative societies
c. Central Government
d. Registered partnerships
15. Property owned by which of the following bodies is included within the meaning of “public property” under the Act?
a. Trusts registered under the Trusts Act
b. Corporations established by or under a Central, Provincial or State Act
c. Unregistered associations
d. Foreign companies operating in India
16. Which category of companies is expressly included within the definition of “public property” under Section 2(b)?
a. Companies incorporated outside India
b. Private companies under the Companies Act, 2013
c. Companies defined under section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956
d. Partnership firms registered under the Partnership Act
17. The Central Government may specify institutions as “public property” by which method?
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary resolution
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial direction
18. Under the proviso to Section 2(b), the Central Government may specify an institution only if it is:
a. Registered under any Central law
b. Engaged in public welfare activities
c. Financed wholly or substantially by government funds
d. Declared essential by the Supreme Court
19. Section 3 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deals with which of the following?
a. Definition of public property
b. Mischief causing damage to public property and punishment therefor
c. Powers of investigation
d. Trial of offences under the Act
20. Under Section 3(1), mischief committed in respect of public property (other than those specified in sub-section (2)) is punishable with:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to three years without fine
c. Imprisonment up to five years and fine
d. Rigorous imprisonment of not less than six months
21. Section 3(2) applies to mischief committed in respect of which category of public property?
a. All movable public property
b. Public property of special nature specified in clauses (a) to (e)
c. Only government buildings
d. Property belonging to local authorities only
22. Damage caused to property used in connection with the production, distribution or supply of water, light, power or energy falls under which provision?
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(2)(a)
c. Section 2(b)
d. Section 4
23. Mischief committed in respect of oil installations is punishable under:
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(2)(b)
c. Section 3(2)(e)
d. Section 5
24. Under Section 3(2), what is the minimum punishment prescribed for mischief to specified public property?
a. Simple imprisonment of three months
b. Rigorous imprisonment of six months
c. Simple imprisonment of six months
d. Rigorous imprisonment of one year
25. What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 3(2) for mischief causing damage to specified public property?
a. Three years
b. Four years
c. Five years
d. Seven years
26. Which of the following properties is specifically included under Section 3(2)(e)?
a. Private transport vehicles
b. Means of public transportation or tele-communications
c. Agricultural land
d. Residential houses
27. According to the proviso to Section 3(2), when may a court award imprisonment for less than six months?
a. When the accused is a first-time offender
b. When the damage is minor
c. When reasons are recorded in the judgment
d. When the prosecution consents
28. Mischief causing damage to which of the following is specifically covered under Section 3(2)(c) of the Act?
a. Oil installations
b. Sewage works
c. Telecommunication towers
d. Public transport vehicles
29. Under Section 3(2)(d), mischief committed in respect of which property attracts enhanced punishment under the Act?
a. Any residential building
b. Any mine or factory
c. Any government office
d. Any warehouse owned by the State
30. Section 4 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deals with which of the following?
a. Mischief to private property by fire
b. Mischief causing damage to public property by fire or explosive substance
c. Attempt to commit mischief
d. Abetment of offences under the Act
31. Section 4 applies when an offence under which provisions is committed by fire or explosive substance?
a. Section 2 only
b. Section 3(1) only
c. Section 3(2) only
d. Section 3(1) or Section 3(2)
32. What is the nature of imprisonment prescribed under Section 4 for mischief caused by fire or explosive substance?
a. Simple imprisonment only
b. Rigorous imprisonment only
c. Either simple or rigorous imprisonment
d. Imprisonment at the discretion of the accused
33. What is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 4?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Five years
34. What is the maximum term of imprisonment that may be awarded under Section 4?
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Imprisonment for life
35. In addition to imprisonment, which of the following punishments is also mandatory under Section 4?
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Community service
c. Fine
d. Compensation to victims only
36. According to the proviso to Section 4, when may the court award imprisonment for a term of less than one year?
a. When the accused pleads guilty
b. When the offence is compoundable
c. When special reasons are recorded in the judgment
d. When the prosecution recommends leniency
37. The proviso to Section 4 requires the court to record reasons of what nature before reducing the minimum sentence?
a. General reasons
b. Administrative reasons
c. Special reasons
d. Procedural reasons
38. Section 5 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deals with which of the following?
a. Compounding of offences
b. Special provisions regarding bail
c. Powers of arrest without warrant
d. Cognizance of offences
39. Section 5 applies to persons accused or convicted of offences punishable under which sections of the Act?
a. Section 2 only
b. Section 3 only
c. Section 4 only
d. Section 3 or Section 4
40. Which category of persons is covered under Section 5 of the Act?
a. Only persons accused of an offence
b. Only persons convicted of an offence
c. Both persons accused or convicted of an offence
d. Only habitual offenders
41. Under Section 5, the restriction on release applies when the person is:
a. On parole
b. On probation
c. In custody
d. Under investigation but not arrested
42. Section 5 restricts release of a person on which of the following?
a. Bail only
b. Personal recognizance only
c. Bail or on his own bond
d. Anticipatory bail only
43. What is the mandatory condition before granting bail or release on own bond under Section 5?
a. Approval of the court registry
b. Consent of the accused
c. Opportunity to the prosecution to oppose the application
d. Filing of a written undertaking
44. According to Section 5, bail or release on own bond can be granted only if:
a. The offence is non-violent
b. The accused is a first-time offender
c. The prosecution has been given an opportunity to oppose the application
d. The damage caused is below a prescribed value
45. The phrase “special provisions regarding bail” in Section 5 indicates that:
a. Bail is completely prohibited
b. Bail is automatic
c. Bail is subject to statutory conditions beyond the general law
d. Bail is governed only by the Code of Criminal Procedure
46. Section 6 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 relates to which of the following?
a. Repeal of inconsistent laws
b. Saving of other laws
c. Compounding of offences
d. Grant of immunity
47. According to Section 6, the provisions of this Act are:
a. In substitution of other laws
b. In derogation of other laws
c. In addition to, and not in derogation of, other laws
d. Applicable only if no other law exists
48. Section 6 clarifies the relationship between this Act and which category of laws?
a. Laws repealed by Parliament
b. Laws made by State Legislatures only
c. Any other law for the time being in force
d. Only criminal laws in force
49. According to Section 6, nothing contained in this Act shall exempt any person from:
a. Arrest under other laws
b. Punishment under other statutes
c. Any proceeding that may be instituted apart from this Act
d. Civil liability only
50. The term “proceeding” under Section 6 includes which of the following?
a. Trial only
b. Investigation only
c. Investigation or otherwise
d. Appeal proceedings only
51. Section 6 ensures that proceedings against a person may be taken under other laws:
a. Only after conclusion of proceedings under this Act
b. Only with prior sanction of the court
c. Even if proceedings are taken under this Act
d. Only if this Act is inapplicable
52. The phrase “apart from this Act” in Section 6 signifies that:
a. This Act repeals other laws
b. Proceedings under other laws are barred
c. Other legal proceedings remain unaffected by this Act
d. This Act overrides all other statutes
53. Section 7 of The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984 deals with which of the following?
a. Penalties and punishment
b. Special provisions regarding bail
c. Repeal of an ordinance and saving of actions taken
d. Power to make rules
54. Which instrument is expressly repealed under Section 7(1) of the Act?
a. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Act, 1984
b. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Ordinance, 1983
c. The Prevention of Damage to Public Property Ordinance, 1984
d. The Public Property Protection Ordinance, 1984
55. What is the ordinance number of the Prevention of Damage to Public Property Ordinance, 1984 that is repealed?
a. Ordinance No. 1 of 1984
b. Ordinance No. 2 of 1984
c. Ordinance No. 3 of 1984
d. Ordinance No. 5 of 1984
56. What is the legal effect of the repeal mentioned in Section 7(1)?
a. All actions taken under the Ordinance become void
b. All proceedings under the Ordinance automatically abate
c. The Ordinance ceases to have effect
d. The Act becomes inapplicable
57. According to Section 7(2), what happens to anything done or any action taken under the repealed Ordinance?
a. It must be re-done under the Act
b. It lapses automatically
c. It is deemed to have been done or taken under the corresponding provisions of this Act
d. It requires confirmation by the Central Government
58. The saving provision under Section 7(2) operates notwithstanding which of the following?
a. Commencement of the Act
b. Repeal of the Ordinance
c. Notification by the Central Government
d. Expiry of limitation period
59. The phrase “corresponding provisions of this Act” in Section 7(2) indicates that:
a. Only identical provisions are saved
b. Actions are saved only if expressly mentioned
c. Actions under the Ordinance are linked to equivalent provisions of the Act
d. New provisions apply retrospectively