THE ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986
ACT NO. 29 OF1986
1. What is the short title of the Act under Section 1(1)?
a. Pollution Control Act, 1986
b. Environmental Protection Act, 1986
c. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d. National Environment Act, 1986
2. To which areas does the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 extend under Section 1(2)?
a. Only metropolitan cities
b. Only industrial areas
c. Whole of India
d. Only union territories
3. How is the commencement date of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 determined under Section 1(3)?
a. Fixed by the Parliament
b. Fixed by Supreme Court
c. Appointed by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette
d. Automatically on the date of enactment
4. Can different provisions of the Act come into force on different dates?
a. No, all provisions come into force on the same date
b. Yes, the Central Government may appoint different dates for different provisions
c. Only the Supreme Court can decide different dates
d. Only for union territories
5. Can the Central Government notify different dates for the Act to apply in different areas?
a. No, it must apply uniformly
b. Yes, different dates may be appointed for different areas
c. Only for metropolitan cities
d. Only for industrial zones
6. Which authority has the power to bring the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 into force?
a. Parliament
b. Supreme Court
c. Central Government
d. State Governments
7. The notification of the commencement of the Act is published in:
a. Local newspapers
b. Official Gazette
c. Press conferences only
d. Parliamentary records
8. Section 1 of the Act primarily deals with:
a. Powers of the Central Government
b. Definitions of environmental terms
c. Short title, extent, and commencement of the Act
d. Penalties for pollution
9. Which of the following statements is true regarding the commencement of this Act?
a. It comes into force automatically after enactment
b. Central Government may specify different dates for different provisions or areas
c. Only the Parliament can fix the date of commencement
d. It only applies to industrial areas at the start
10. The purpose of Section 1 is to:
a. Define environmental pollution
b. Prescribe penalties
c. State the name of the Act, its territorial extent, and commencement procedure
d. Authorize inspections
11. What does the term “environment” include under Section 2(a) of the Act?
a. Only air and water
b. Air, water, land, and the inter-relationship between them including humans, living creatures, plants, micro-organisms, and property
c. Only land and forests
d. Only water and land for human use
12. How is “environmental pollutant” defined under Section 2(b)?
a. Any harmless substance present in the environment
b. Any solid, liquid, or gaseous substance in a concentration that may be, or tends to be, injurious to environment
c. Only toxic gases
d. Only industrial waste
13. What is meant by “environmental pollution” under Section 2(c)?
a. Excessive rainfall
b. Presence of any environmental pollutant in the environment
c. Planting of trees
d. Conservation of soil
14. Under Section 2(ca), what does “Fund” refer to?
a. State Disaster Fund
b. Environmental Protection Fund established under Section 16
c. National Green Fund
d. Pollution Control Fund
15. Which of the following is included in the definition of “handling” under Section 2(d)?
a. Only manufacturing
b. Manufacture, processing, treatment, package, storage, transportation, use, collection, destruction, conversion, offering for sale, transfer, or similar actions
c. Only transportation and storage
d. Only collection and destruction
16. How is “hazardous substance” defined under Section 2(e)?
a. Any substance that is harmless to humans and the environment
b. Any substance or preparation which, due to chemical or physico-chemical properties or handling, is likely to cause harm to humans, living creatures, plants, micro-organisms, property, or the environment
c. Only radioactive substances
d. Only flammable substances
17. Who is considered an “occupier” under Section 2(f)?
a. Only the owner of a factory
b. A person who has control over the affairs of a factory or premises and, in relation to any substance, the person in possession of the substance
c. Any employee of a factory
d. Only the manager of a factory
18. What does the term “prescribed” mean under Section 2(g)?
a. Approved by the judiciary
b. Prescribed by rules made under this Act
c. Suggested by environmentalists
d. Approved by the Parliament only
19. Which of the following best describes the relationship among water, air, and land in the definition of “environment”?
a. They are considered separately without interaction
b. They are inter-related, affecting humans, living creatures, plants, micro-organisms, and property
c. Only water and air are interrelated
d. Only air and land are considered
20. Section 2 of the Act primarily serves to:
a. Define penalties for environmental offences
b. Define key terms used in the Act to provide clarity
c. Lay down rules for inspections
d. Prescribe dates of commencement
21. The term “environmental pollutant” can include:
a. Only solid substances
b. Solid, liquid, or gaseous substances injurious to environment
c. Only substances handled in industries
d. Only liquid waste
22. The Environmental Protection Fund (Fund) is established under which Section of the Act?
a. Section 14
b. Section 16
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
23. “Handling” of a substance does NOT include which of the following?
a. Storage and transportation
b. Destruction and conversion
c. Planting trees unrelated to the substance
d. Offering for sale or transfer
24. Which term in Section 2 covers any person in control of a factory or premises?
a. Occupier
b. Manufacturer
c. Authority
d. Controller
25. The definition of “hazardous substance” ensures protection of:
a. Only human beings
b. Human beings, living creatures, plants, micro-organisms, property, and the environment
c. Only industrial plants
d. Only natural resources
26. What is the primary power conferred to the Central Government under Section 3(1)?
a. To regulate only water pollution
b. To take all measures necessary or expedient to protect and improve the environment and prevent, control, and abate environmental pollution
c. To punish violators directly
d. To collect taxes for environmental protection
27. Under Section 3(2)(i), what is included in the coordination of actions by State Governments, officers, and other authorities?
a. Only actions under this Act
b. Actions under this Act and any other law relatable to the objects of this Act
c. Only actions under the National Green Tribunal Act
d. Coordination of private companies’ actions
28. Which of the following is included in the Central Government’s powers under Section 3(2)(ii)?
a. Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution
b. Issuing licences for industries
c. Appointing environmental analysts
d. Determining tax rates for pollution control
29. What does Section 3(2)(iii) empower the Central Government to do?
a. Restrict international trade
b. Lay down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects
c. Approve construction projects
d. Levy environmental fines
30. Under Section 3(2)(iv), what can the Central Government regulate?
a. Only industrial water usage
b. Standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
c. Traffic rules
d. Agricultural subsidies
31. According to Section 3(2)(v), the Central Government may restrict areas in which:
a. Only government offices may operate
b. Industries, operations, or processes, or classes of industries, may be carried out or be subject to safeguards
c. Schools may be built
d. Roads may be constructed
32. What is the purpose of Section 3(2)(vi)?
a. To impose taxes on industries
b. To lay down procedures and safeguards for the prevention of accidents which may cause environmental pollution and remedial measures
c. To build industrial infrastructure
d. To promote tourism
33. Section 3(2)(vii) empowers the Central Government to:
a. Ban all chemical factories
b. Lay down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances
c. Appoint local police officers
d. Control import of goods
34. Under Section 3(2)(viii), the Central Government can examine:
a. Manufacturing processes, materials, and substances likely to cause environmental pollution
b. Tax returns of companies
c. Employment contracts
d. Import-export policies
35. Section 3(2)(ix) allows the Central Government to:
a. Conduct investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution
b. Build residential colonies
c. Enforce traffic regulations
d. Issue passports
36. What authority does Section 3(2)(x) provide regarding inspections?
a. To inspect only government offices
b. To inspect premises, plants, equipment, machinery, processes, and substances, and issue directions to prevent or control pollution
c. To monitor elections
d. To control media content
37. Section 3(2)(xi) empowers the Central Government to:
a. Establish or recognize environmental laboratories and institutes to carry out functions under this Act
b. Regulate school curricula
c. Conduct military operations
d. Issue driving licenses
38. Under Section 3(2)(xii), the Central Government may:
a. Collect and disseminate information on environmental pollution
b. Publish newspapers
c. Impose income taxes
d. Regulate stock markets
39. Section 3(2)(xiii) allows the Central Government to prepare:
a. Manuals, codes, or guides relating to prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution
b. Recipes for food safety
c. Foreign trade agreements
d. Labour laws
40. What does Section 3(3) empower the Central Government to do?
a. Constitute authorities to exercise and perform powers and functions of the Central Government under this Act, including issuing directions under Section 5
b. Approve marriages
c. Issue driving licenses
d. Levy customs duties
41. Authorities constituted under Section 3(3) act:
a. Independently without supervision
b. Subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government and the provisions of the order
c. Only under State Government instructions
d. Under local municipal bodies
42. Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned as a power under Section 3(2)?
a. Laying down emission standards
b. Conducting environmental research
c. Controlling educational curriculum
d. Establishing environmental laboratories
43. Under Section 4(1), the Central Government may appoint officers:
a. Only for State Governments
b. With such designations as it thinks fit for the purposes of this Act
c. Only from private companies
d. Without assigning any powers
44. The officers appointed under Section 4(1) can be entrusted with:
a. Powers and functions under this Act as deemed fit by the Central Government
b. Powers unrelated to environmental protection
c. Only judicial powers
d. Only tax collection powers
45. Section 4(2) states that officers appointed under this section are subject to:
a. The control and direction of the State Government only
b. The general control and direction of the Central Government
c. Independent decision-making powers
d. Only judicial authority
46. According to Section 4(2), officers may also be directed by:
a. Authorities constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 or any other authority or officer
b. Municipal corporations only
c. Private companies
d. Foreign agencies
47. Section 4(1) specifies that appointment of officers is:
a. Mandatory for every district
b. Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 3
c. Limited to only judicial officers
d. Subject to election results
48. The main purpose of appointing officers under Section 4 is to:
a. Collect taxes for environmental projects
b. Carry out the powers and functions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
c. Build roads and infrastructure
d. Monitor political parties
49. Who decides the powers and functions of the officers appointed under Section 4?
a. State Government only
b. Central Government
c. National Green Tribunal
d. Local municipal authorities
50. Officers appointed under Section 4 are accountable to:
a. Only the courts
b. The general public
c. Central Government and any authority or officer directed by it
d. International agencies
51. Section 4 allows the Central Government to:
a. Appoint officers with customized powers according to requirements of the Act
b. Delegate powers unrelated to environmental protection
c. Transfer all powers to State Governments
d. Avoid appointing officers
52. The relationship of officers appointed under Section 4 to authorities constituted under Section 3(3) is:
a. Officers act independently of these authorities
b. Officers act under the general control and direction of these authorities if directed by the Central Government
c. Officers can override these authorities
d. Officers report only to State Governments
53. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Section 4?
a. Officers can only perform ceremonial duties
b. Officers may be assigned powers and functions by the Central Government as deemed fit
c. Officers are independent of all government control
d. Section 4 restricts appointments to one officer per state
54. Section 4(1) ensures that the officers’ powers are:
a. Fixed and non-modifiable
b. Flexible and determined by the Central Government based on necessity
c. Only related to tax collection
d. Only judicial in nature
55. Section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 confers power upon:
a. State Governments
b. Central Government
c. National Green Tribunal
d. Pollution Control Boards
56. The power under Section 5 can be exercised:
a. Only after court permission
b. Only during emergencies
c. In the exercise of powers and performance of functions under this Act
d. Only through State Governments
57. Directions under Section 5 must be issued:
a. Orally
b. Through newspaper notification
c. In writing
d. Through judicial order
58. Directions under Section 5 can be issued to:
a. Any person only
b. Officers of the Central Government only
c. Any person, officer or any authority
d. Courts only
59. A person, officer or authority to whom directions are issued under Section 5:
a. May challenge them before complying
b. May ignore them if inconvenient
c. Shall be bound to comply with such directions
d. Is required to seek clarification first
60. Section 5 begins with the expression “Notwithstanding anything contained in”:
a. The Constitution of India
b. Any other law
c. Judicial precedents
d. Rules made by States
61. The phrase “subject to the provisions of this Act” in Section 5 indicates that:
a. Section 5 overrides the entire Act
b. Section 5 operates independently
c. Section 5 must conform to the provisions of the Act
d. Section 5 applies only partially
62. The Explanation to Section 5 clarifies that the power to issue directions includes:
a. Power to impose taxes
b. Power to arrest persons
c. Power to direct closure, prohibition or regulation of industries
d. Power to legislate rules
63. Under Section 5, the Central Government can direct the closure of:
a. Only hazardous industries
b. Any industry, operation or process
c. Only public sector undertakings
d. Only polluting factories after conviction
64. Section 5 empowers the Central Government to direct the stoppage or regulation of:
a. Only electricity supply
b. Only water supply
c. Electricity, water or any other service
d. Only fuel supply
65. The power to regulate under Section 5 applies to:
a. Only industries
b. Only operations
c. Only processes
d. Industries, operations and processes
66. Directions under Section 5 are binding because:
a. They are judicial orders
b. They are executive guidelines
c. The Act mandates compliance
d. They are recommendations of experts
67. The expression “any other service” under Section 5 implies:
a. Only government services
b. Only essential services
c. Services necessary for operation of industry or activity
d. Only transport services
68. Section 5 strengthens environmental protection by:
a. Providing advisory powers only
b. Granting enforcement powers to the Central Government
c. Limiting governmental intervention
d. Delegating powers to private bodies
69. Which of the following best describes the nature of power under Section 5?
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power
c. Administrative and executive power
d. Quasi-judicial power
70. The Explanation to Section 5 is inserted mainly to:
a. Restrict the power of Central Government
b. Create penalties
c. Remove doubts regarding the scope of directions
d. Define environmental pollution
71. Section 5 directions can be issued even if:
a. Another law provides otherwise
b. State Government objects
c. Industry has valid license
d. Pollution has not occurred
72. Compliance with directions under Section 5 is:
a. Optional
b. Subject to approval by State Government
c. Mandatory
d. Dependent on judicial confirmation
73. The authority of Section 5 primarily aims at:
a. Revenue generation
b. Industrial development
c. Prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution
d. Settlement of disputes
74. Section 5 is an important provision because it:
a. Empowers citizens to file suits
b. Gives immediate corrective powers to the Central Government
c. Establishes environmental laboratories
d. Defines hazardous substances
75. Section 5A of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Power of Central Government
b. Penalties for pollution
c. Appeal to National Green Tribunal
d. Establishment of environmental laboratories
76. An appeal under Section 5A can be filed against directions issued under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
77. Who is entitled to file an appeal under Section 5A?
a. Only State Governments
b. Only industries
c. Any person aggrieved
d. Only Pollution Control Boards
78. The appeal under Section 5A lies before:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. National Green Tribunal
d. Central Government
79. The National Green Tribunal referred to in Section 5A is established under:
a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
b. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
c. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
d. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
80. Section 5A applies to directions issued under Section 5:
a. At any time
b. Only before 2010
c. On or after commencement of the NGT Act, 2010
d. Only after amendment in 2020
81. Directions issued before the commencement of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010:
a. Are appealable under Section 5A
b. Are not covered under Section 5A
c. Can be appealed to High Court only
d. Stand automatically cancelled
82. The appeal under Section 5A must be filed:
a. In the Supreme Court rules
b. As per rules framed by Central Government
c. In accordance with the provisions of the NGT Act, 2010
d. As per Code of Civil Procedure
83. Section 5A was introduced mainly to:
a. Restrict powers of Central Government
b. Provide judicial remedy against Section 5 directions
c. Increase penalties
d. Establish new authorities
84. The right of appeal under Section 5A is available to:
a. Only companies
b. Only government departments
c. Any aggrieved person
d. Only environmental NGOs
85. The appellate forum under Section 5A has specialised jurisdiction because it deals with:
a. Criminal offences
b. Civil disputes only
c. Environmental matters
d. Service matters
86. Section 5A ensures compliance with principles of:
a. Absolute liability
b. Natural justice
c. Strict liability
d. Vicarious liability
87. The phrase “aggrieved person” under Section 5A implies:
a. Only the person penalized
b. Only the owner of industry
c. Any person adversely affected by directions
d. Only the Central Government
88. Appeal under Section 5A is a:
a. Mandatory remedy
b. Optional statutory remedy
c. Constitutional remedy
d. Administrative review
89. Section 5A strengthens environmental governance by:
a. Removing executive powers
b. Allowing unchecked directions
c. Providing appellate oversight by NGT
d. Limiting access to justice
90. The power to hear appeals under Section 5A flows from:
a. Section 5 itself
b. Section 3 of the NGT Act, 2010
c. Section 19 of the Act
d. Rules made by States
91. Which of the following best describes the nature of appeal under Section 5A?
a. Administrative appeal
b. Judicial appeal before specialised tribunal
c. Executive review
d. Departmental appeal
92. Section 5A acts as a safeguard against:
a. Judicial interference
b. Arbitrary exercise of power under Section 5
c. Environmental awareness
d. Rule-making powers
93. Filing an appeal under Section 5A does not require:
a. Aggrievement
b. Direction under Section 5
c. Compliance with NGT Act
d. Approval of Central Government
94. The primary objective of Section 5A is to:
a. Increase environmental penalties
b. Transfer powers to State Governments
c. Provide an effective appellate mechanism
d. Limit jurisdiction of courts
95. Section 6 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers which authority to make rules?
a. State Government
b. Central Pollution Control Board
c. Central Government
d. National Green Tribunal
96. Rules under Section 6 are made by notification in:
a. Parliament Gazette
b. State Gazette
c. Official Gazette
d. Environmental Bulletin
97. Rules under Section 6 can be framed in respect of matters referred to in:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 5
d. Section 7
98. The phrase “without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power” in Section 6 implies:
a. Limitation of power
b. Absolute exclusion
c. Expansion of rule-making scope
d. Delegation to States
99. Standards for quality of air, water or soil are provided under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6(2)(a)
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
100. Fixing different environmental standards for different areas is permitted under Section 6 because of:
a. Federal structure
b. Administrative convenience
c. Area-specific environmental needs
d. Judicial direction
101. Maximum allowable limits of environmental pollutants including noise are covered under:
a. Section 6(2)(a)
b. Section 6(2)(b)
c. Section 6(2)(c)
d. Section 6(2)(f)
102. Noise pollution standards are specifically included under:
a. Water pollution
b. Hazardous substances
c. Environmental pollutants
d. Industrial regulation
103. Procedures and safeguards for handling hazardous substances fall under:
a. Section 6(2)(c)
b. Section 6(2)(d)
c. Section 7
d. Section 8 only
104. Prohibition or restriction on handling hazardous substances in different areas is provided under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6(2)(d)
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
105. Rules relating to location of industries and carrying on operations are made under:
a. Section 6(2)(e)
b. Section 3(2)
c. Section 5A
d. Section 8
106. Section 6 enables regulation of industries primarily for the purpose of:
a. Revenue generation
b. Industrial growth
c. Environmental protection
d. Employment creation
107. Procedures and safeguards for prevention of environmental accidents are provided under:
a. Section 6(2)(f)
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 14
108. Remedial measures for environmental accidents are addressed under:
a. Section 7
b. Section 6(2)(f)
c. Section 8
d. Section 11
109. Section 6 supplements the powers of the Central Government under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 19
110. Rules made under Section 6 are:
a. Advisory in nature
b. Optional for industries
c. Legally binding
d. Subject to State approval
111. Section 6 allows rules to be framed for:
a. Only air pollution
b. Only water pollution
c. Only hazardous substances
d. All forms of environmental pollution
112. The power under Section 6 is an example of:
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power delegated to executive
c. Quasi-judicial power
d. Police power
113. Which of the following is NOT expressly mentioned under Section 6(2)?
a. Standards for soil quality
b. Noise pollution limits
c. Environmental education
d. Safeguards for hazardous substances
114. Section 6 ensures flexibility in environmental regulation by:
a. Fixing uniform national standards only
b. Allowing area-specific and purpose-specific rules
c. Leaving matters to courts
d. Limiting Central Government powers
115. The rules framed under Section 6 derive their enforceability from:
a. Consent of industries
b. Approval of Parliament
c. Statutory authority of the Act
d. Directions of NGT
116. Section 6 plays a crucial role in environmental governance by:
a. Defining offences
b. Prescribing punishments
c. Creating detailed regulatory framework
d. Establishing tribunals
117. Environmental standards framed under Section 6 are meant for:
a. Advisory guidance only
b. Judicial interpretation
c. Mandatory compliance
d. Academic reference
118. Section 6 empowers the Central Government to regulate pollution through:
a. Administrative orders only
b. Judicial verdicts
c. Statutory rules
d. Executive instructions
119. The primary objective behind Section 6 is to:
a. Penalise offenders
b. Regulate environmental pollution through rules
c. Provide appeal mechanism
d. Establish laboratories
120. Section 7 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 imposes restriction on whom?
a. Only Government departments
b. Only factories
c. Persons carrying on industry, operation or process
d. Only public sector undertakings
121. The main prohibition under Section 7 relates to:
a. Handling of hazardous substances
b. Emission or discharge of pollutants beyond prescribed standards
c. Location of industries
d. Establishment of laboratories
122. Section 7 applies to which of the following activities?
a. Industry only
b. Operation only
c. Process only
d. Industry, operation and process
123. Under Section 7, environmental pollutants must not be discharged:
a. At all
b. Without permission
c. In excess of prescribed standards
d. During night hours
124. The standards referred to in Section 7 are prescribed under:
a. Judicial orders
b. Rules made under the Act
c. State notifications only
d. Industrial guidelines
125. Section 7 places responsibility primarily on:
a. Pollution Control Boards
b. Courts
c. Persons carrying on industry or operations
d. Local authorities
126. Which word in Section 7 indicates that indirect pollution is also covered?
a. Discharge
b. Emit
c. Permit
d. Carrying on
127. The expression “permit to be discharged or emitted” means:
a. Pollution with consent
b. Accidental pollution only
c. Allowing pollution through negligence or omission
d. Pollution caused by natural factors
128. Section 7 aims to control pollution at which stage?
a. After damage occurs
b. During litigation
c. At the source of pollution
d. At appellate stage
129. Section 7 is preventive in nature because it:
a. Provides punishment
b. Prescribes penalties
c. Restricts pollution before harm occurs
d. Establishes authorities
130. Emission under Section 7 generally relates to:
a. Solid waste only
b. Liquid discharge only
c. Release of pollutants into air
d. Noise pollution only
131. Discharge under Section 7 generally refers to:
a. Release into water or land
b. Release into air only
c. Noise emission
d. Vibration
132. Section 7 applies irrespective of whether pollution is:
a. Intentional
b. Accidental
c. Negligent
d. Intentional, accidental or negligent
133. Which of the following is NOT a defence under Section 7?
a. Lack of intention
b. Compliance with prescribed standards
c. Absence of permit
d. Use of modern technology
134. The phrase “such standards as may be prescribed” indicates that:
a. Standards are fixed in the Act itself
b. Standards are flexible and rule-based
c. Standards are optional
d. Standards are decided by industries
135. Section 7 works in conjunction with which provision?
a. Section 2
b. Section 6
c. Section 19
d. Section 24
136. Violation of Section 7 attracts penalty under:
a. Section 14 only
b. Section 14A
c. Section 15 only
d. Section 19
137. The obligation under Section 7 is:
a. Voluntary
b. Conditional
c. Mandatory
d. Advisory
138. Section 7 ensures compliance mainly through:
a. Judicial supervision
b. Administrative regulation
c. Economic incentives
d. International treaties
139. The scope of Section 7 extends to:
a. Public authorities only
b. Private individuals only
c. Both public and private entities engaged in polluting activities
d. Courts and tribunals
140. Section 7 strengthens environmental protection by:
a. Allowing limited pollution
b. Setting absolute prohibition
c. Linking pollution control with standards
d. Removing industrial restrictions
141. Which principle of environmental law is reflected in Section 7?
a. Polluter Pays Principle
b. Precautionary Principle
c. Sustainable Development
d. Public Trust Doctrine
142. Section 7 applies even if pollution occurs due to:
a. Natural disaster only
b. Third party action
c. Failure of management
d. Failure of management within industrial control
143. Section 7 primarily regulates:
a. Environmental education
b. Environmental offences
c. Environmental standards compliance
d. Environmental adjudication
144. The ultimate objective of Section 7 is to:
a. Promote industrial growth
b. Balance ecology and development
c. Prevent environmental degradation
d. Increase government revenue
145. Section 8 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Emission standards
b. Handling of hazardous substances
c. Penalties for pollution
d. Appeals to Tribunal
146. Under Section 8, who is prohibited from handling hazardous substances without compliance?
a. Government agencies only
b. Industrial workers only
c. Any person
d. Licensed manufacturers only
147. Hazardous substances may be handled only:
a. With prior judicial approval
b. After complying with prescribed procedures and safeguards
c. During working hours
d. With consent of local authority
148. The phrase “cause to be handled” in Section 8 signifies:
a. Direct handling only
b. Indirect responsibility through agents or employees
c. Accidental handling
d. Natural handling
149. Section 8 imposes which type of obligation?
a. Optional
b. Advisory
c. Mandatory
d. Temporary
150. Which authority prescribes the procedures and safeguards under Section 8?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Pollution Control Boards
d. Courts
151. The procedural safeguards under Section 8 are prescribed through:
a. Judicial precedents
b. Rules under the Act
c. Executive instructions
d. Industrial manuals
152. Section 8 applies irrespective of whether handling is:
a. Commercial
b. Experimental
c. Temporary
d. Commercial, experimental or temporary
153. Section 8 aims primarily to:
a. Ban all hazardous substances
b. Regulate safe handling of hazardous substances
c. Promote chemical industries
d. Reduce import of chemicals
154. Failure to comply with Section 8 leads to liability under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
155. Section 8 is closely connected with which definition under Section 2?
a. Environment
b. Environmental pollution
c. Hazardous substance
d. Prescribed
156. Handling of hazardous substances includes activities such as:
a. Manufacture and storage
b. Transportation and disposal
c. Use and processing
d. All of the above
157. The requirement of safeguards under Section 8 reflects which principle?
a. Polluter Pays Principle
b. Precautionary Principle
c. Absolute Liability
d. Strict Liability
158. Section 8 prevents environmental damage by:
a. Punishing offenders only
b. Regulating post-accident actions
c. Ensuring compliance before handling
d. Encouraging compensation
159. Which of the following best describes Section 8?
a. Penal provision
b. Preventive provision
c. Remedial provision
d. Appellate provision
160. Section 8 prohibits handling of hazardous substances unless:
a. Pollution control consent is obtained
b. Environmental clearance is issued
c. Prescribed procedure and safeguards are followed
d. Industry is government-owned
161. Responsibility under Section 8 extends to:
a. Owner only
b. Manager only
c. Person having control over handling
d. Inspector only
162. Section 8 complements which provision of the Act?
a. Section 3
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. All of the above
163. Which phrase in Section 8 emphasizes strict compliance?
a. No person
b. Shall handle
c. Except in accordance
d. As may be prescribed
164. Section 8 strengthens environmental protection by focusing on:
a. Waste disposal only
b. Pollution after occurrence
c. Safe management of hazardous substances
d. Criminal prosecution
165. Section 8 applies even when hazardous substances are handled:
a. In small quantities
b. For research purposes
c. For public utility
d. In any quantity or purpose
166. Section 8 creates a duty to:
a. Inform public
b. Obtain insurance
c. Follow prescribed safety norms
d. Pay compensation
167. The object of Section 8 is best described as:
a. Industrial control
b. Environmental safety
c. Revenue generation
d. Judicial efficiency
168. Which of the following is NOT allowed under Section 8?
a. Handling hazardous substances as per rules
b. Handling hazardous substances without safeguards
c. Handling hazardous substances with precautions
d. Handling hazardous substances under supervision
169. Section 8 plays a crucial role in preventing:
a. Air pollution only
b. Water pollution only
c. Industrial disasters and environmental harm
d. Noise pollution only
170. Section 9 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Powers of inspection
b. Furnishing of information in certain cases
c. Penalty for offences
d. Appeals
171. Section 9 is attracted when discharge of environmental pollutant:
a. Is within prescribed limits
b. Is below standards
c. Exceeds prescribed standards or is apprehended to occur
d. Is permitted by authority
172. Excess discharge under Section 9 must occur due to:
a. Normal industrial activity
b. Intentional act only
c. Accident or other unforeseen act or event
d. Government direction
173. Who is bound to prevent or mitigate environmental pollution under Section 9(1)?
a. Central Government only
b. State Government only
c. Person responsible and person in charge of the place
d. Pollution Control Board
174. Which obligation is imposed immediately under Section 9(1)?
a. Filing of complaint
b. Payment of compensation
c. Forthwith intimation of occurrence or apprehension
d. Obtaining clearance
175. Intimation under Section 9 must be given to:
a. Courts
b. Legislature
c. Prescribed authorities or agencies
d. Local public
176. Apart from intimation, the person concerned is also required to:
a. Shut down industry
b. Render all assistance if called upon
c. Publish notice
d. Apply for renewal of consent
177. Assistance under Section 9(1)(b) is to be given to:
a. Any citizen
b. Media
c. Authorities or agencies as may be prescribed
d. Non-governmental organisations
178. Section 9 places a duty to prevent or mitigate pollution:
a. After government action
b. Only after damage occurs
c. Immediately upon occurrence or apprehension
d. After court order
179. On receipt of information, authorities shall act:
a. After investigation
b. After approval of court
c. As early as practicable
d. At their discretion
180. The primary function of authorities under Section 9(2) is to:
a. Prosecute the offender
b. Collect penalty
c. Take remedial measures
d. Issue closure orders
181. Remedial measures under Section 9 aim to:
a. Punish offender
b. Prevent or mitigate environmental pollution
c. Recover compensation
d. Suspend licenses
182. Expenses incurred for remedial measures can be recovered from:
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Person concerned
d. Pollution Control Board
183. Recovery of expenses under Section 9(3) is made as:
a. Fine
b. Civil decree
c. Arrears of land revenue or public demand
d. Criminal penalty
184. Interest on expenses is recoverable from:
a. Date of accident
b. Date of pollution
c. Date of demand till payment
d. Date of conviction
185. Rate of interest under Section 9(3) is fixed by:
a. Tribunal
b. Courts
c. Government by order
d. Pollution Control Board
186. Section 9 reflects which principle of environmental law?
a. Absolute liability
b. Polluter pays principle
c. Precautionary principle
d. Sustainable development
187. Section 9 applies even when discharge is:
a. Intentional
b. Accidental
c. Unforeseen
d. Accidental or unforeseen
188. Which phrase indicates urgency in Section 9(1)?
a. Shall be bound
b. As may be prescribed
c. Forthwith
d. If called upon
189. Section 9 imposes liability primarily on:
a. Occupier only
b. Government officers
c. Person responsible for discharge
d. Inspector
190. The term “apprehended to occur” under Section 9 means:
a. Pollution already occurred
b. Pollution is expected or feared
c. Pollution has ended
d. Pollution is permitted
191. Section 9 is preventive in nature because it:
a. Punishes offenders
b. Provides compensation
c. Requires action before or immediately after pollution
d. Cancels licenses
192.Section 9 applies to which type of pollution?
a. Only air pollution
b. Only water pollution
c. Only hazardous waste
d. All environmental pollutants
193. Failure to comply with Section 9 may attract penalty under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
194. Section 9 strengthens environmental protection by:
a. Judicial review
b. Mandatory reporting and remedial action
c. Advisory guidelines
d. Voluntary compliance
195. Section 10 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 relates to:
a. Penalty for offences
b. Powers of entry and inspection
c. Cognizance of offences
d. Rule-making power
196. Who is authorised to exercise powers under Section 10?
a. Any police officer
b. Any public servant
c. Person empowered by the Central Government
d. State Pollution Control Board member
197. Entry under Section 10 can be made:
a. Only during daytime
b. At all reasonable times
c. Only with court permission
d. Only after notice
198. The empowered person may enter a place with:
a. Police force only
b. Prior warrant
c. Such assistance as he considers necessary
d. State Government approval
199. One purpose of entry under Section 10(1)(a) is:
a. To arrest offenders
b. To perform functions of Central Government entrusted to him
c. To impose penalty
d. To grant licence
200. Entry under Section 10(1)(b) is made to determine:
a. Ownership of premises
b. Whether provisions of the Act are being complied with
c. Tax liability
d. Employment conditions
201. Section 10 allows entry to check compliance with:
a. Only the Act
b. Only rules
c. Act, rules, notices, orders, directions or authorisations
d. Only court orders
202. Which of the following can be examined or tested under Section 10(1)(c)?
a. Only industrial plants
b. Only machinery
c. Equipment, plant, records, registers and documents
d. Only hazardous substances
203. Search under Section 10 may be conducted when:
a. Court issues summons
b. Officer has reason to believe an offence has been or is about to be committed
c. Pollution has already stopped
d. Complaint is filed
204. Seizure under Section 10 is permitted when the officer believes that:
a. Property is government owned
b. Material may furnish evidence of offence
c. Industry is unregistered
d. Tax evasion has occurred
205. Seizure is also justified if necessary to:
a. Punish offender
b. Shut down industry permanently
c. Prevent or mitigate environmental pollution
d. Recover compensation
206. Section 10(2) imposes duty on:
a. Inspecting officer
b. Court
c. Person carrying on industry or handling hazardous substances
d. Central Government
207. Assistance under Section 10(2) must be rendered to:
a. State Government
b. Pollution Control Board
c. Person empowered by Central Government
d. Local authority
208. Failure to render assistance without reasonable cause attracts penalty under:
a. Section 15
b. Section 14A
c. Section 14B
d. Section 19
209. Section 10(3) deals with:
a. Inspection powers
b. Willful delay or obstruction
c. Appeals
d. Environmental Fund
210. Willful obstruction of empowered officer makes the person liable under:
a. Section 15
b. Section 14B
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
211. Section 10(3) applies when obstruction occurs during:
a. Sub-section (1) functions only
b. Sub-section (2) functions only
c. Sub-sections (1) or (2)
d. Judicial proceedings
212. Search and seizure under Section 10 are governed by:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Evidence Act
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Civil Procedure Code
213. CrPC provisions apply to search under Section 10 as if conducted under:
a. Section 41 CrPC
b. Section 93 CrPC
c. Section 94 CrPC
d. Section 100 CrPC
214. Application of CrPC under Section 10 is:
a. Absolute
b. Excluded
c. So far as may be
d. Optional
215. The phrase “reason to believe” under Section 10 implies:
a. Mere suspicion
b. Arbitrary satisfaction
c. Rational and objective satisfaction
d. Court conviction
216. Section 10 empowers seizure of materials related to:
a. Civil disputes
b. Labour disputes
c. Environmental offences
d. Tax evasion
217. Section 10 strengthens environmental enforcement by:
a. Providing compensation
b. Enabling inspection, search and seizure
c. Creating tribunals
d. Issuing advisories
218. Section 10 powers can be exercised against:
a. Only factories
b. Only hazardous units
c. Any place where offence is suspected
d. Only government premises
219. Section 10 ensures compliance primarily through:
a. Voluntary action
b. Penal sanctions alone
c. Preventive and investigative mechanisms
d. Civil remedies
220. Assistance under Section 10(2) includes:
a. Legal advice
b. Physical and documentary cooperation
c. Payment of penalty
d. Filing affidavit
221. Section 10 applies notwithstanding:
a. Rules only
b. Judicial precedents
c. Nature of industry
d. Type of ownership
222. The object of Section 10 is best described as:
a. Punitive
b. Compensatory
c. Preventive and regulatory
d. Advisory
223. Section 10 can be invoked even before actual pollution occurs because it covers:
a. Civil liability
b. Apprehended commission of offence
c. Judicial review
d. Environmental clearance
224. Section 10 read with Section 14B reflects which principle?
a. Natural justice
b. Strict liability
c. Enforcement through deterrence
d. Absolute immunity
225. Section 11 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with:
a. Power to issue directions
b. Power to take samples and procedure
c. Power to impose penalty
d. Cognizance of offences
226. Who is empowered to take samples under Section 11(1)?
a. Any police officer
b. State Government officer
c. Central Government or officer empowered by it
d. Pollution Control Board only
227. Samples under Section 11 can be taken for the purpose of:
a. Inspection
b. Evidence collection only
c. Analysis
d. Seizure
228. Samples may be taken from which of the following?
a. Factory only
b. Premises only
c. Factory, premises or any other place
d. Government land only
229. Which substances can be sampled under Section 11?
a. Only air
b. Only water
c. Air, water, soil or other substance
d. Only hazardous substances
230. The manner of taking samples under Section 11(1) shall be:
a. Arbitrary
b. As per court directions
c. As may be prescribed
d. As per State rules
231. Result of analysis of a sample is admissible in evidence only if:
a. Sample is positive
b. Court permits
c. Provisions of sub-sections (3) and (4) are complied with
d. Analyst certifies
232. Non-compliance of Section 11(3) and (4) affects:
a. Jurisdiction
b. Investigation
c. Admissibility of evidence
d. Cognizance
233. Before taking a sample, the officer must serve notice to:
a. District Magistrate
b. Pollution Control Board
c. Occupier or his agent or person in charge
d. Local authority
234. Notice under Section 11(3)(a) must be served:
a. In advance
b. After sampling
c. Then and there
d. Within 24 hours
235. Sample collection under Section 11(3)(b) must be done:
a. Secretly
b. In absence of occupier
c. In the presence of occupier or his agent or person
d. With police presence
236. After collection, the sample must be:
a. Left at site
b. Handed to police
c. Placed in marked, sealed and signed container
d. Sent directly without sealing
237. Who must sign the container under Section 11(3)(c)?
a. Only occupier
b. Only sampling officer
c. Sampling officer and occupier or his agent
d. Government Analyst
238. The sample container must be sent to:
a. State laboratory
b. Private laboratory
c. Laboratory established or recognised under Section 12
d. Court
239. The sample must be sent to the laboratory:
a. After court permission
b. After approval
c. Without delay
d. Within one week
240. Section 11(4) applies when:
a. Sample is contaminated
b. Occupier cooperates
c. Notice has been served but occupier absents or refuses
d. Court orders sampling
241. If the occupier wilfully absents himself, the officer shall:
a. Cancel sampling
b. Take police help
c. Collect and seal sample signed by himself
d. File complaint
242. In case of refusal to sign by occupier, the container shall be signed by:
a. Court officer
b. Government Analyst
c. Sampling officer
d. Pollution Board officer
243. In case of refusal or wilful absence, the officer must inform:
a. Central Government
b. Magistrate
c. Government Analyst
d. Pollution Control Board
244. Information to Government Analyst must be given:
a. Orally
b. Telephonically
c. In writing
d. Through court
245. Section 11 ensures fairness by:
a. Giving appeal
b. Providing notice and presence of occupier
c. Providing compensation
d. Reducing penalties
246. Section 11 procedure safeguards primarily protect:
a. Government
b. Accused person
c. Environment
d. Court
247. Failure to follow Section 11 procedure will result in:
a. Automatic acquittal
b. Invalid Act
c. Sample analysis being inadmissible
d. Closure of industry
248. Section 11 is closely connected with which sections?
a. Sections 3 and 5
b. Sections 7 and 8
c. Sections 12 and 13
d. Sections 18 and 19
249. Section 11 reflects which principle of criminal jurisprudence?
a. Presumption of guilt
b. Natural justice and due process
c. Strict liability
d. Absolute liability
250. The requirement of sealing and signing mainly ensures:
a. Speed
b. Confidentiality
c. Authenticity and integrity of sample
d. Public awareness
251. Section 11 balances environmental enforcement with:
a. Administrative convenience
b. Fundamental rights
c. Procedural safeguards
d. Economic growth
252. The role of Government Analyst under Section 11 arises mainly in:
a. Sample collection
b. Evidence sealing
c. Being informed of absence or refusal
d. Issuing directions
253. Section 11 applies to sampling for:
a. Civil proceedings only
b. Criminal proceedings only
c. Legal proceedings generally
d. Administrative inquiry only
254. Section 11 strengthens prosecution by ensuring:
a. Higher penalties
b. Proper chain of custody
c. Speedy trial
d. Judicial review
255. Section 12 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 relates to:
a. Government Analysts
b. Environmental laboratories
c. Penalties
d. Appeals
256. Who is empowered to establish environmental laboratories under Section 12(1)?
a. State Government
b. Pollution Control Board
c. Central Government
d. National Green Tribunal
257. Environmental laboratories can be established by:
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary approval
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial direction
258. Under Section 12(1)(a), the Central Government may establish:
a. Only one environmental laboratory
b. Only State laboratories
c. One or more environmental laboratories
d. Private laboratories only