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1. Transferee of the part performance has right to protect his possession: —
a. Wrong
b. Right can accrue only after payment of full consideration
c. Right
d. Delivery of possession is not necessary
2. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Transfer by ostensible owner - Section 41
b. Doctrine of part performance - Section 53B
c. Fraudulent transfer - Section 53
d. Doctrine of lis pendens-Section 52
3. The definition of ‘Sale’ is contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in section-
a. 105
b. 100
c. 54
d. None of the above.
4. ........... is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part paid and part promised: -
a. sale
b. mortgage
c. pledge
d. exchange
5. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, sale is a transfer of
a. an interest in a specific immovable property
b. a right to enjoy immovable property
c. ownership
d. None of the above
6. Tangible immovable property of value of this amount or upward, can be transferred only by a registered instrument: —
a. Rs. 100
b. Rs. 50
c. Rs. 25
d. Rs. 90
7. ‘Sale’ under section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act is a transfer of ownership in exchange for
a. Price paid
b. Price promised
c. Price-partly paid and partly promised
d. All above
8. Which one of the following is not an essential element of sale?
a. Parties
b. Subject matter
c. Transfer of conveyance
d. Payment of price in cash
9. Transfer of tangible immovable property of the value of Rs. 100/- can be made: —
a. Only by a registered instrument
b. By an unregistered instrument
c. By delivery of property
d. By placing the buyer in possession of the property
10. In Transfer of Property Act, rights of seller and buyer are provided under: -
a. Section 64 to 66
b. Section 67 to 77
c. Section 78 to 80
d. Section 55
11. Which of the following is not a duty of the seller?
a. to produce tide deeds
b. to disclose patent defects
c. to execute conveyance
d. to pay the outgoings
12. What is the incorrect- the liabilities of the seller is that he is: —
a. to disclose to the buyer any material defect in the property
b. to produce to the buyer for examination all documents of title relating to the property
c. not to answer to the best of his information all the relevant questions put to him by the buyer in respect of the tide
d. to give possession to the buyer as its nature admits
13. In case of transfer of property, the seller is: —
a. not entitled to rents and profits
b. entitled to rents and profits of the property till the ownership thereof passed by buyer
c. entitled to rents and profits forever
d. none of the above
14. In which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act doctrine of marshalling has been provided:
a. Sections 56 and 81
b. Section 81
c. Section 81 and 82
d. Section 85
15. ‘Marshalling by subsequent purchaser’ is provided under Transfer of Property Act in
a. Section 55
b. Section 56
c. Section 57
d. Section 58
16. In which section of Transfer of Property Act, the provisions of mortgage are defined?
a. Section 54
b. Section 56
c. Section 58
d. Section 85
17. Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act defines
a. Mortgagor
b. Mortgage
c. Mortgage money
d. All of these
18. .........is defined as a security for repayment of a loan.
a. Pledge
b. Mortgage
c. Lease
d. None of these
19. How many types of mortgages are there in section 58 of Transfer of Property Act?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
20. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a Mortgage as defined under section 58(a) of TPA?
a. There must be transfer of interest
b. There must be promise to transfer of interest
c. The interest must be of some specific immovable property
d. The purpose of transfer must be to ensure payment of a debt
21. In which of the following mortgage, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage money?
a. Simple mortgage
b. Usufructuary mortgage
c. Anomalous mortgage
d. Mortgage by assurance
22. Where possession of mortgaged property is not delivered to the mortgagee, it is called: -
a. Simple mortgage
b. Usufructuary mortgage
c. English mortgage
d. Mortgage by conditional sale
23. “Every sale accompanied by agreement for reconveyance of property would not constitute mortgage by conditional sale.”
This statement is related to which section of Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 55
b. Section 56
c. Section 58
d. Section 60
24. Which one of the following provisions of the Transfer of Property Act relates to ‘usufructuary mortgage’?
a. Section 58(a)
b. Section 58(b)
c. Section 58(d)
d. Section 58(e)
25. In which of the following mortgages, the mortgagor is required to deliver possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee?
a. English mortgage
b. Mortgage by conditional sale
c. Usufructuary mortgage
d. Anomalous mortgage
26. ‘A’ in lieu of debt from ‘B’ handovers the possession of his house to ‘B’ with a covenant to transfer of property in favour of ‘B’, but with provision for re-transfer in case of repayment of debt. This type of mortgage is known as: —
a. Equitable mortgage
b. English mortgage
c. Usufructuary mortgage
d. Mortgage by conditional sale
27. Where mortgagee is entitled to enjoy the benefits of the mortgaged property in lieu of interest on debt, the mortgage is called
a. simple mortgage
b. equitable mortgage
c. usufructuary mortgage
d. english mortgage
28. In case of usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagee is placed in possession, he has a right to receive the rents and other profits: —
a. Till the contract is rescinded
b. Till the mortgage money is paid
c. For a fixed period of 30 years
d. For a fixed period of 99 years
29. Under which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, English mortgage has been defined?
a. Section 58(e)
b. Section 58(d)
c. Section 58(g)
d. Section 58(f)
30. A Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called: —
a. Anomalous mortgage
b. English mortgage
c. Equitable mortgage
d. Usufructuary mortgage
31. A mortgage which is not a simple mortgage, a mortgage by conditional sale, an usufructuary mortgage, an english mortgage or a mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called
a. A pledge
b. An anomalous mortgage
c. Agreement of mortgage
d. None of the above
32. Which is not specifically mentioned as a kind of Mortgage in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. Equitable Mortgage
b. Anomalous Mortgage
c. Mortgage by deposit of tide deeds
d. English Mortgage
33. ‘A’ transfers his property to ‘B’ by mortgage with the condition that for ten years ‘B’ will take the mortgage money from the income of the property and thereafter ‘A’ shall redeem the property by making the payment of remaining amount. This mortgage is
a. Mortgage by conditional sale
b. Anomalous mortgage
c. Simple mortgage
d. English mortgage
34. Under the Transfer of Property Act personal obligation to pay mortgage money accrues in-
a. Usufructuary mortgage
b. Mortgage by conditional sale
c. Simple and English mortgages
d. Simple mortgage only
35. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only by: -
a. registered instrument
b. signed by the mortgagor
c. attested by at least two witnesses
d. all of the above
36. Which one of the following mortgage does not require writing and registration?
a. Usufructuary mortgage
b. Simple mortgage
c. English mortgage
d. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
37. Which of the following transfer is valid: —
a. An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs. 99
b. An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs. 99
c. An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
d. An oral assignment of debts
38. Right of redemption arises in the case of: -
a. gifts
b. mortgage
c. lease
d. exchange
39. From the following who cannot sue for redemption of the mortgaged property: —
a. The mortgagor
b. The mortgagee
c. Surety for the payment of the mortgage-debt
d. Creditor of the mortgagor who has in a suit for the administration of his estate obtained a decree for sale of the mortgaged property
40. The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgaged property accrues:-
a. at any time after the mortgage
b. at any time after the mortgage money has become due
c. at any time when the mortgagor wants
d. at any time mortgagee demands the money
41. Who among the following persons may not redeem the mortgaged property?
a. Any person having interest in property
b. Any surety for payment of the mortgaged debt
c. Any creditor of the mortgagor
d. Counsel pleading the case against mortgagee
42. Which among the following is false statement about the term “Clog on Redemption”
a. It is an absolute right
b. It is a statutory right
c. It can be fettered by any condition
d. Any condition contained in mortgage deed, which obstructs the right of redemption will be null and void
43. “Once a mortgage, always a mortgage” means
a. Mortgagor has no right to assign right of redemption to any person
b. Mortgagee has no right to assign the mortgagee debt to any other person
c. Mortgage cannot be redeemed after the expiry of a fixed period
d. Mortgage is always redeemable
44. ‘Redemption is the heart of mortgage’ was observed by
a. Lord Develin
b. Lord Davey
c. Lord Halsbury
d. None of the above
45. In which of the section of Transfer of Property Act, the ‘Doctrine of Consolidation’ is incorporated?
a. Section 60
b. Section 61
c. Section 62
d. Section 63
46. A mortgagor who has executed two or more mortgages in favour of the same mortgagee, in absence of a contract to the contrary-
a. Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together
b. Is not entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately
c. Is bound to redeem at least two such mortgages together
d. Be entitled to redeem any one such mortgage separately, or any two or more of such mortgages together
47. Which of the following section/sections deals/ deal with accession to mortgaged property?
a. Section 63
b. Section 70
c. Section 63 and Section 70 both
d. Section 63A
48. Mortgaged property in possession of the mortgagee has, during the continuance of the mort-gage received any accession upon redemption in the absence of a contract to the contrary. Who shall be entitled to such accession?
a. Mortgagee
b. Mortgagor
c. Mortgagee and mortgagor in equal share
d. None of the above
49. Whether a mortgagor can make lease of the mortgaged property?
a. Absolutely Yes.
b. Yes, with certain conditions provided by the Transfer of Property Act.
c. No.
d. None of the above.
50. In case of Mortgaged lease, if the mortgagor obtains a renewal of the lease, the mortgagor upon redemption: —
a. Shall not have the benefit of new lease
b. Shall have the benefit of new lease
c. Shall have the benefit of previous lease
d. None of the above
51. Section 65 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 contains provisions relating to: —
a. Implied contracts by mortgagor
b. Implied contracts by mortgagee
c. Marshalling of securities
d. Rights of usufructuary mortgagor
52. Improvements to mortgaged property is provided in which of following section of T.P Act:
a. Section 63
b. Section 63A
c. Section 65
d. Section 65A
53. Right to foreclosure or sale has been provided in which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
a. Section 65
b. Section 66
c. Section 67
d. Section 68
54. Which is a right of the Mortgagee and not that of a Mortgagor?
a. Right to foreclosure
b. Right to redeem
c. Right to recover possession
d. Right to inspect documents
55. A right to obtain a decree from the court that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the mortgaged property is called: —
a. a right foreclosure
b. a right for claim
c. a right for redemption
d. a right for sale
56. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available under which one of the following mortgages?
a. Mortgage by conditional sale
b. English mortgage
c. Usufructuary mortgage
d. Simple mortgage
57. In Transfer of Property Act, rights and liabilities of mortgagee is provided under: -
a. Section 55 to 57
b. Section 61 to 65
c. Section 67 to 77
d. Section 78
58. The Mortgagee has a right to sue for the mortgage money in the following cases namely
a. Section 68(1)(c) where the mortgagee is deprived of the whole or part of his security by or in consequence of the wrongful act or default of the mortgagor
b. Section 68(1)(d) where, the mortgagee being entitled to possession of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor fails to deliver the same to him or to secure the possession thereof to him without disturbance by the mortgagor or any person claiming under a title superior to that of the mortgagor
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
59. Which section of Transfer of Property Act provides the provisions relating to appointment of receiver?
a. Section 60
b. Section 61
c. Section 62
d. Section 69A
60. Which one of the following provisions of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides the statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession?
a. Section 76
b. Section 77
c. Section 78
d. Section 79
61. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act deals with doctrine of substituted security’?
a. Section 68
b. Section 70
c. Section 71
d. Section 73
62. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act provides that when there is a conflict between marshalling and contribution, marshalling shall prevail?
a. Section 80
b. Section 81
c. Section 82
d. Section 83
63. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Transfer of Property Act?
A. Universal donee - Section 128
B. Doctrine of Part Performance - Section 53A
C. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser - Section 65
D. Mortgagee’s right to foreclosure or sale - Section 67
Choose the right answer
a. Only (A)
b. Both (A) and (B)
c. Only (C)
d. Both (C) and (D)
64. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act provides for subrogation?
a. Section 90
b. Section 92
c. Section 91
d. Section 93
65. Doctrine of subrogation applies to: -
a. sale
b. mortgage
c. lease
d. gift
66. The doctrine of subrogation enables: —
a. Third person to stand in the shoes of a creditor
b. Creditor to sue the debtor
c. Debtor to postpone the payment
d. Includes all of these
67. State the correct answer, the familiar rule “redeem up foreclose down” is a combination of Provisions of: —
a. Section 89 and 91
b. Section 91 and 92
c. Section 92 and 93
d. Section 91 and 94
68. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines charge?
a. Section 100
b. Section 95
c. Section 105
d. Section 92
69. “Charge” and “Exchange” are
a. Transfer of Property
b. Negotiable instruments
c. Right of Government to collect revenue or taxes by attachment and sale of property
d. None of these
70. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a charge may be created by:-
a. acts of the parties
b. process of law
c. presumption
d. acts of parties and process of law
71. Under section 104 of Transfer of Property Act on whom the power of making Rules is conferred?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Supreme Court
d. High Court
72. Which one of the following group of sections deals with lease under Transfer of Property Act?
a. Sections 102 to 119
b. Sections 105 to 119
c. Sections 102 to 117
d. Sections 105 to 117
73. Lease under section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, pertains to: -
a. A lease of immovable property
b. A lease of movable property
c. Both immovable and movable property
d. Does not to any particular property
74. Transfer of right to enjoy an immovable property in consideration of price is known as: —
a. Mortgage
b. Actionable claim
c. Lease
d. license
75. In a lease of immovable property what is transferred is the: -
a. Right to enjoy the property
b. Interest in the property
c. Mesne profit
d. Possession alone
76. In view of section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a lease of immovable property is a transfer of: —
a. A right to enjoy such property in consideration of a price paid or promised or of money, a share of crops, service or any other thing of value.
b. An interest in specific immovable property for securing the payment of money advanced.
c. Ownership in consideration of price paid or promised.
d. Certain immovable property, made voluntarily and without consideration.
77. A lease can be made: -
a. for a certain period only
b. for perpetuity only
c. none of the above
d. (a) and (b) both
78. In which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, an amendment was made in the year 2002?
a. Section 100
b. Section 106
c. Section 108
d. Section 110
79. The provisions of section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 were substituted by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act, 2002 and this provision came into force with effect from: -
a. December 31,2002
b. July 1,2002
c. October 30,2002
d. November 2,2002
80. In the absence of written contract, a lease of immovable property for the purpose other than the agricultural or manufacturing shall be deemed to be a lease from month to month, terminable, by 15 days’ notice. The period shall commence from the: -
a. issuance of notice
b. receipt of notice
c. end of month of tenancy
d. knowledge of notice
81. In the absence of contract or local laws or usage, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be
a. A lease for year to year
b. A lease for month to month
c. A lease for minimum term of 2 years
d. A lease for a minimum term of 3 years.
82. A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable on the part of the lessor or lessee by the notice: -
a. One month
b. Six months
c. Three months
d. Sixty days
83. Termination of lease of immovable property shall be in the following manner: —
a. By oral intimation
b. By written notice
c. By sending agent
d. By telephonic intimation
84. A lease of immovable property from year to year, can be made by-
a. Oral agreement
b. Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of pos-session
c. Simple instrument
d. Only by a registered instrument
85. Under the Transfer of Property Act leases from month to month can be made-
a. by oral agreement only
b. by oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession only
c. either by a registered instrument or by oral agreement accompanied by delivery of possession
d. by a registered instrument only
86. Where a lease of immovable property is made by a registered instrument, such instrument shall be executed-
a. By lessor only
b. By lessee only
c. By either of the two
d. By both the lessor and the lessee
87. In which section of the Transfer of Property Act the provisions regarding rights and liabilities of lessor and lessee are provided?
a. 107
b. 08
c. 109
d. 110
88. Determination of lease is dealt with under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in-
a. Section 108
b. b. Section 107
c. Section 113
d. Section 111
89. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated?
a. Efflux of time
b. On termination of lessor’s interest or power
c. On merger
d. All the above
90. In which of the following cases, a lease of immovable property does not determine?
a. On the service of a notice to quit
b. By forfeiture
c. By express surrender
d. By efflux of time limited thereby
91. Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease: -
a. Efflux of the time limited
b. Implied surrender
c. Expiration of notice of determination of lease
d. Death of the lessee
92. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived: —
a. By express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given.
b. By implied consent of the person to whom it is given.
c. By express consent of the person to whom it is given.
d. By notice from either party.
93. A valid lease can be determined by: -
a. efflux of time
b. forfeiture
c. on expiration of notice period for determination of such lease
d. all of the above
94. A lessee accepts from the lessor a new lease of the property leased, to take effect during the continuance of the existing lease. This: —
a. converts the former lease into exchange
b. converts the former lease into a perpetual lease
c. is an implied surrender of the former lease
d. is a voidable agreement
95. Which of the following is a ground for determination of a lease by forfeiture:-
a. On breach of express condition
b. On expiry of lease period
c. On surrender by lessee
d. On vesting of lessors interest in the lessee
96. ‘A’ lets a house to ‘B’ for five years. ‘B’ underlets the house to ‘O’ at a monthly rent of Rs. 1000. The five years expire, but ‘C’ continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to ‘A’. C’s lease is
a. renewed from month to month.
b. year to year.
c. not renewed being sub-let.
d. none of these.
97. What is the effect of “Holding over”?
a. The lease becomes illegal
b. The lease is renewed
c. The lease becomes extinguished
d. The lease becomes void
98. ‘A’ lets a farm to ‘B’ for the life of ‘C’. ‘C’ dies but ‘B’ continues in possession with A’s assent. B’s lease is: -
a. Determined
b. Renewed from year to year
c. Renewed forever
d. Renewed for the year of death
99. In Transfer of Property Act, effect of holding over of lease is provided under: -
a. Section 114A
b. Section 115
c. Section 116
d. Section 117
100. An act of interference with the property of an other may be justified by the consent of that other is defence falling under: -
a. Authority of law
b. Lease and license
c. Easement
d. None of the above
101. Which one of the following transfers can be made orally?
a. lease from year to year
b. surrender of lease
c. exchange of immovable property exceeding ru-pees one hundred
d. simple mortgage
102. Two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another the transaction is called:
a. Gift
b. Exchange
c. Sale
d. Lease
103. In exchange, under the provisions of Transfer of Property Act, which of the following statements is true?
a. There is consideration
b. There is no consideration
c. There is no transfer of property
d. None of the above
104. Ram transfers a house worth rupees five lakhs to Shyam in lieu of a field worth rupees two lakhs and rupees three lakhs as cash. This transfer is: —
a. a sale
b. an exchange
c. neither a sale nor an exchange
d. a settlement
105. The provision as to ‘exchange of money’ has been provided under which of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act?
a. Section 118
b. Section 119 Section 121
c. None of the above
d. None of the above
106. If ‘A’ transfers house worth Rs. 2000/- to ‘B’ and ‘B’ transfers a field worth Rs. 1200/- and in additional pay Rs. 800/- in cash to ‘A’ the transfer is:
a. Exchange
b. Sale
c. Sale and Exchange
d. None of these
107. Gift is defined in which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:—
a. Section 11
b. Section 106
c. Section 122
d. Section 25
108. Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with which following kinds of gift, namely
a. Gift intervivos
b. Gift moritis causa
c. Gift by will
d. All of the above
109. According to section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 property includes
a. Only movable property
b. Only immovable property
c. Both movable and immovable property
d. Agricultural Land only
110. Which of the following is not an essential element of gift?
a. Donor and Donee
b. Subject-matter
c. Transfer of subject-matter
d. Transfer must be for consideration
111. Transfer of immovable property by way of gift requires
a. registered instrument signed by or on behalf of donor.
b. attestation by at least two witnesses.
c. delivery of the property.
d. both (a) and (b)
112. In case, the donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the said gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is
a. Valid
b. Heritable
c. Void
d. Voidable
113. Find out the incorrect answer from the following
a. Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration
b. Gift should be accepted during the life time of the donor
c. If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void
d. Gift may be made only of movable property
114. Which one of the following is correct in respect of a gift under Transfer of Property Act?
a. There cannot be a gift of movable property.
b. Only immovable property can be given in gift.
c. The gift must be accepted by the donee only.
d. If the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.
115. The registration of a gift of immovable property is: —
a. Compulsory
b. Optional
c. Compulsory in relation to ancestral property
d. Depends of the Court
116. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding transfer of immovable property by gift?
a. Instrument must be signed by or on behalf of the donor
b. Instrument must be signed by donor only.
c. Instrument must be registered
d. Instrument must be attested by at least two witnesses.
117. As per section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act “Gift” means:-
a. The transfer of certain existing movable property made by donor to donee
b. The transfer of certain existing immovable property made by donor to the donee
c. The transfer of property by donor to donee on certain consideration
d. The transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration by one person, called the donor, to another, called the donee and accepted by or on behalf of the donee
118. Read the following propositions. Find out which is incorrect?
a. In a sale, there is an absolute transfer of all rights in the property sold and no rights are left in the transferor
b. In a lease, there is a partial transfer or demise and the right left in the transferor are called reversion
c. A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter
d. Acceptance is not the pivotal requirement to constitute a valid gift
119. Which of the following statement is true with regard to section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. It provides an exception to section 17(1) (a) of the Registration Act
b. It is supplemental of section 17(1) (a) of the Registration Act
c. It provides an exception to section 17(1) (b) of the Registration Act
d. Itis supplemental to section 17(l)(b) of the Registration Act
120. Under Transfer of Property Act gift of future property is
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Void
d. Irregular
121. The Chapter that deals with gift tender the Transfer of Property Act, 1882: -
a. applies to Mohammedan gift also
b. does not apply to Mohammedan gift
c. applies to all caste, creed, etc.
d. applies to Parsi gift only
122. Where a gift is made of a property, which is not in not in existence, which is the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act declares it void?
a. Section 122
b. Section 123
c. Section 124
d. Section 125
123. Which of the following gift is not governed by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
a. Onerous gift
b. Mortis causa gift
c. Universal gift
d. Gift to disqualified person
e. None of these
124. ‘A’ makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to ‘B’. A reserves right with B’s consent to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of Rs. 50,000.
a. Gift is void
b. Gift is valid
c. Gift is valid upto Rs. 40,000 and void as to taking back Rs. 10,000
d. Gift is voidable
125. A gives a lakh of rupees to B reserving to himself with B’s assent the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10000 out of lakh. The gift: —
a. Is wholly void
b. Is invalid
c. Holds goods as to Rs. 90000
d. Is onerous
126. A gives a field to B, reserving to himself, with B’s assent, the right to take back the field in case B and his descendants dies in A’s life time. Can ‘A’ take back the field?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Condition is void
d. None of the above
127. ‘A’ transfers a house, having market value of Rs. 10,000 without consideration to ‘B’ but the house is under liability to pay public charges of Rs. 15,000. The transfer is: -
a. Gift
b. Onerous gift
c. Actionable claim
d. None of the above
128. The provisions relating to “Onerous gift” have been provided under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in:
a. Section 127
b. Section 124
c. Section 125
d. Section 126
129. Gift of tangible immovable property of value less than rupees one hundred can be made under the Transfer of Property Act:
a. By oral agreement accompanied with delivery of possession only
b. By a registered instrument only
c. By a registered instrument attested by at least two witnesses
d. Either by oral agreement or by registered deed
130. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines “universal donee”?
a. Section 122
b. Section 123
c. Section 128
d. Section 129
131. A donee which has taken all the properties of the donor and also liable to discharge all the liabilities of the donor is known as: —
a. an onerous donee
b. a gratuitous donee
c. a universal donee
d. none of the above
132. Universal donee is liable to the creditors of the donor, the liability of the donee is: -
a. Personal
b. To the extent of value of gifted property in hand
c. Based on pious obligation
d. Limited to reasonable extent
133. An universal donee gets-
a. The ownership of whole property
b. The whole property and donor’s property in litigation
c. Donor’s property and liabilities of the donor in respect of all the debts due
d. Only the right to perform last rites
134. Which section of Transfer of Property Act preserves the rule of Mohammedan Law and excludes the applicability of Section 123 of Transfer of Property Act which mandates that the gift of immovable property must be effected by a registered instrument as stated therein-
a. Section 126
b. Section 127
c. Section 128
d. Section 129
135. An actionable claim can be transferred by-
a. A registered instrument
b. An instrument in writing signed by the transferor
c. A registered instrument attested by two witnesses
d. oral agreement
136. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
a. Universal donee-Section 128A
b. Mortgaged debt - Section 134
c. Exchange of Money - Section 120
d. All of the above
137. ‘Actionable claim’ means: -
a. a claim to unsecured debt
b. a claim to beneficial interest in movable property not in possession of claimant
c. both (a) and (b)
d. only (a)
138. Which of the following is NOT an actionable claim?
a. Lottery tickets
b. Beneficial interest in movable property which is in possession of claimant
c. Life insurance policy
d. Claim for arrears of rent
139. Which among the following is recognized as ‘Actionable Claims’?
a. Future decree
b. Copyright of a book
c. Claim for mesne profit
d. Arrears of rent
140. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following properties may be transferred?
a. An easementary right from the dominant heritage
b. Mere right to sue
c. Right to future maintenance
d. Actionable claim
141. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim?
a. A claim for mesne profit
b. A claim for arrears of rent
c. A share in partnership
d. A claim for return of earnest money
142. Match the provision of the Transfer of Property Act in List-I and Section in List-II below and select the correct answer using the codes mentioned thereunder: —
list-I list-II
(provisions) (Sections)
A. Doctrine of Election 1. 112
B. Subrogation 2. 92
C. Doctrine of Holding Over 3. 35
D. Waiver of forfeiture 4.116
Codes
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 3 2 4 1
143. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser - Section 81
b. Right of mortgagor to redeem - Section 60A
c. Right of usufructuary mortgagor to recover possession - Section 62
d. None of the above
144. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Doctrine of subrogation 1. Section 92
B. Rule against perpetuity 2. Section 14
C. Feeding the grant by estoppel 3. Section 43
D. Doctrine of accumulation 4. Section 17
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 3 2 4 1
145. In which transaction no interest in the property is created?
a. Lease
b. license
c. Mortgage
d. Tenancy