UP Police Act, 1861 MCQs Paper-2

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There are 4 Sets of MCQs available for UP Police Act, 1861 , you are advised to explore all the sets:

UP Police Act MCQs Set -1

UP Police Act MCQs Set -2

UP Police Act MCQs Set -3

UP Police Act MCQs Set -4

1. A police officer cannot withdraw from duties without:

a. Court order

b. Public notice

c. Express permission of competent authority

d. Approval of Governor

2. Permission to withdraw may be granted by:

a. High Court

b. District Superintendent of Police

c. Village head

d. Any citizen

3. Resignation without leave requires written notice of at least:

a. 15 days

b. 1 month

c. 2 months

d. 6 months

4. The notice must be given to:

a. Any police station

b. District Magistrate

c. Superior officer

d. Court clerk

5. The provision primarily ensures:

a. Higher salaries

b. Public safety through continuity of service

c. Promotion opportunities

d. Judicial independence

6. Leaving duty without permission may lead to:

a. Automatic retirement

b. No consequence

c. Disciplinary action

d. Transfer to another State

7. Police service is treated as:

a. Purely private employment

b. Temporary contract work

c. Essential public service with discipline

d. Volunteer service

8. The authority empowered to grant permission may also be:

a. Any elected representative

b. Officer authorized by the District Superintendent

c. Journalist

d. Private employer

9. The section reflects the principle that police officers:

a. May leave service at will

b. Must maintain continuity of duty

c. Are not government servants

d. Serve only during emergencies

10. Section 10 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with:

a. Appointment of officers

b. Discipline during suspension

c. Prohibition on other employment

d. Transfer of officers

11. A police officer may engage in other employment only if:

a. Approved by court

b. Permitted orally by superior

c. Permitted in writing by competent authority

d. Approved by public notice

12. Permission must be granted by:

a. District Magistrate

b. Superintendent of Police

c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General

d. Chief Secretary

13. The phrase “any employment or office whatever” indicates:

a. Limited prohibition

b. Broad and comprehensive prohibition

c. Only government jobs are prohibited

d. Only private jobs are prohibited

14. The main purpose of the section is to ensure:

a. Higher income for officers

b. Full-time devotion to police duties

c. Political neutrality

d. Judicial independence

15. Outside employment without permission may result in:

a. Promotion

b. No consequence

c. Disciplinary action

d. Automatic retirement

16. The provision helps prevent:

a. Transfer disputes

b. Conflict of interest

c. Pension delays

d. Training requirements

17. The rule applies to:

a. Only constables

b. Only senior officers

c. All police officers

d. Only temporary staff

18. Written permission is necessary because:

a. Oral orders are invalid for such matters

b. Courts demand it

c. Public approval is required

d. It reduces paperwork

19. Police service under this provision is treated as:

a. Part-time occupation

b. Casual employment

c. Exclusive public service

d. Volunteer work

20. Section 12 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with:

a. Appointment of police officers

b. Rule-making power of the Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police

c. Public assemblies

d. Special police officers

21. Rules under Section 12 are framed by:

a. District Magistrate

b. State Legislature

c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police

d. High Court

22. The rule-making power under Section 12 is exercised:

a. Independently without approval

b. Subject to approval of the State Government

c. Only with court permission

d. By Parliament

23. Section 12 allows rules regarding:

a. Judicial procedures

b. Organisation and distribution of police force

c. Taxation powers

d. Election duties only

24. The provision authorizes rules about:

a. Supply of arms and equipment

b. Military deployment

c. Revenue collection

d. Civil administration

25. Intelligence gathering by police is covered under:

a. Section 9

b. Section 12

c. Section 23 only

d. Not covered in the Act

26. One purpose of rules under Section 12 is to:

a. Reduce police powers

b. Prevent abuse or neglect of duty

c. Abolish discipline

d. Transfer judicial authority

27. Section 12 primarily ensures:

a. External control by judiciary

b. Internal administrative regulation of police

c. Military supervision

d. Public participation

28. The places where police personnel shall reside may be determined by:

a. Local bodies

b. State Government alone

c. Rules framed under Section 12

d. Judicial orders

29. Section 12 ultimately aims at making the police force:

a. Independent of government

b. Efficient in discharge of duties

c. Judicial in character

d. Temporary in nature

30. Additional police under Section 13 may be deputed:

a. Only during riots declared by Government

b. On application of any person showing necessity

c. Only by court order

d. Only for government institutions

31. The cost of additional police deployed under Section 13 is borne by:

a. State Government

b. Central Government

c. Local Municipality

d. Person making the application

32. The deputed police force under Section 13 is under whose command?

a. Applicant

b. District Magistrate

c. District Superintendent of Police

d. State Government

33. Deployment of additional police under Section 13 is subject to the general direction of:

a. High Court

b. State Government

c. District Magistrate

d. Central Government

34. The applicant may require withdrawal of the additional police force by giving:

a. Immediate oral notice

b. Seven days’ notice

c. One month’s written notice

d. Three months’ notice

35. Section 13 primarily relates to:

a. Punishment of police officers

b. Recruitment of police

c. Private employment of additional police at cost of individuals

d. Powers of arrest

36. Section 14 applies to additional police deployment near:

a. Residential colonies

b. Courts

c. Railways, canals, factories or commercial concerns

d. Schools

37. Additional force under Section 14 may be deployed when:

a. Elections are due

b. Court orders are issued

c. Behaviour or apprehended behaviour of workers requires it

d. Media demands security

38. Who forms the opinion regarding necessity of additional force?

a. District Magistrate

b. State Legislature

c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police

d. Chief Justice

39. Consent of which authority is required for deputation of such force?

a. Central Government

b. High Court

c. State Government

d. District Panchayat

40. Cost of additional police force under Section 14 is borne by:

a. State Treasury

b. Local Municipality

c. Persons in control of funds of the work or concern

d. General public

41. Duration of deployment of such force:

a. Fixed one year

b. Till completion of project

c. As long as necessity continues

d. Permanent

42. Section 14 is primarily:

a. Punitive

b. Preventive and protective

c. Judicial

d. Revenue-related

43. The purpose of this provision is to protect:

a. Private disputes

b. Infrastructure and public order

c. Political interests

d. Tax collection

44. Section 15 deals with:

a. Recruitment of police

b. Quartering of additional police in disturbed areas

c. Promotion of officers

d. Police discipline

45. Declaration of a disturbed area is made by:

a. District Magistrate

b. Superintendent of Police

c. State Government by proclamation

d. Central Government

46. Proclamation must be notified in:

a. District records

b. Police station diary

c. Official Gazette

d. Court register

47. Additional police deployed under this section is:

a. Within ordinary strength

b. Temporary volunteers

c. In addition to ordinary fixed complement

d. From armed forces

48. Deployment is made by:

a. District Magistrate

b. DGP/IG or authorised officer with Government sanction

c. High Court

d. Central Government

49. Cost of additional force is borne by:

a. State Government

b. Central Government

c. Local municipality

d. Inhabitants of the area

50. Apportionment of cost is done by:

a. State Government

b. Police Department

c. District Magistrate

d. Revenue Board

51. Basis of apportionment is:

a. Equal share

b. Population

c. Magistrate’s judgment of respective means

d. Property value only

52. The State Government may:

a. Not alter liability

b. Only increase cost

c. Exempt any class of inhabitants

d. Transfer liability to police

53. Proclamation under Section 15:

a. Is permanent

b. Has no time limit

c. Must state period of operation

d. Requires court approval

54. “Inhabitants” includes:

a. Only residents

b. Only landowners living there

c. Property holders and absentee landlords collecting rent

d. Government servants only

55. Purpose of Section 15 is primarily:

a. Punishment of offenders

b. Revenue generation

c. Maintenance of public order through additional police deployment

d. Recruitment procedure

56. Section 15-A provides for:

a. Recruitment of police

b. Compensation for misconduct of inhabitants

c. Punishment of offenders

d. Transfer of officers

57. Compensation may be claimed when injury is caused by:

a. Natural disaster

b. Police action

c. Misconduct of inhabitants

d. Court order

58. Application for compensation is made to:

a. Superintendent of Police

b. District Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate

c. High Court

d. Central Government

59. Limitation period for application is generally:

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

60. Compensation can be awarded only if injury arose from:

a. Theft

b. Accident

c. Riot or unlawful assembly

d. Negligence of police

61. Before awarding compensation, Magistrate must be satisfied that:

a. Police failed to act

b. Victim was free from blame

c. Government approved beforehand

d. Offender was identified

62. Liability to pay compensation falls on:

a. State Government

b. Police Department

c. Inhabitants of the area

d. Courts

63. State Government may:

a. Increase compensation only

b. Exempt any class of inhabitants

c. Cancel the claim automatically

d. Transfer liability to Centre

64. Orders under this section are:

a. Appealable to High Court only

b. Subject to revision by Commissioner/State Government

c. Reviewable by police

d. Temporary only

65. Civil suit regarding same injury:

a. Always maintainable

b. Allowed after revision

c. Barred if compensation awarded

d. Allowed only with permission

66. Section 16 deals with:

a. Appointment of police officers

b. Recovery of moneys under Sections 13–15A

c. Discipline of police

d. Recruitment procedure

67. Moneys under Sections 13–15A are recoverable by:

a. Superintendent of Police

b. State Government

c. District Magistrate

d. Civil Court only

68. Recovery may be made in the manner of:

a. Tax recovery

b. Recovery of fines under CrPC (BNSS)

c. Land revenue recovery only

d. Arbitration proceedings

69. Alternatively, recovery may also be made by:

a. Executive order only

b. Police action

c. Suit in a competent Court

d. High Court writ only

70. Money recovered under Section 15-A is payable to:

a. State treasury

b. Police welfare fund

c. Victims entitled to compensation

d. District Magistrate

71. Distribution of recovered compensation shall be:

a. Equal among inhabitants

b. At Magistrate’s discretion later

c. As determined under Section 15-A

d. Fixed by State Government only

72. Sub-section (2) of Section 16 is:

a. Amended

b. Replaced

c. Omitted

d. Repealed

73. Section 16 primarily ensures:

a. Investigation of offences

b. Enforcement of financial liability

c. Appointment of additional police

d. Judicial review

74. Section 16 applies to money payable under how many sections?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

75. Section 17 deals with:

a. Appointment of regular police

b. Special Police Officers

c. Recruitment rules

d. Police discipline

76. Special Police Officers may be appointed when:

a. Crime rate increases generally

b. Riot or disturbance has occurred or is apprehended

c. Elections are held

d. Police strike occurs

77. A request for appointment may be made by a police officer not below the rank of:

a. Sub-Inspector

b. Inspector

c. Superintendent

d. Constable

78. The request must be made to:

a. State Government

b. District Magistrate only

c. Nearest Magistrate

d. Sessions Judge

79. Persons appointed as Special Police Officers are:

a. Government servants permanently

b. Residents of the neighbourhood

c. Military personnel

d. Private security staff

80. The appointment is:

a. Permanent

b. For fixed 5 years

c. Temporary and situation-based

d. For life

81. The Magistrate shall comply with the request:

a. Always

b. Only with State Government approval

c. Unless he sees cause to the contrary

d. Only during riots already in progress

82. The purpose of appointment is to:

a. Conduct investigations

b. Assist in maintaining peace and security

c. Collect taxes

d. Perform judicial duties

83. Section 17 can be invoked even when disturbance is:

a. Imaginary

b. Already resolved

c. Reasonably apprehended

d. Minor civil dispute

84. The Special Police Officers act within:

a. Entire State

b. Any district

c. Such limits as deemed necessary

d. Only police station limits

85. Section 18 deals with:

a. Recruitment of police

b. Powers of Special Police Officers

c. Discipline of police force

d. Pay structure

86. A Special Police Officer has powers:

a. Limited powers only

b. Advisory powers

c. Same powers as ordinary police officer

d. Only preventive powers

87. Special Police Officers enjoy:

a. No legal protection

b. Partial protection

c. Same privileges and protection as police

d. Protection only from State Government

88. In respect of duties, a Special Police Officer:

a. Performs minor tasks only

b. Performs duties equal to police officers

c. Has no duties

d. Acts only as witness

89. Special Police Officers are liable to:

a. No penalties

b. Same penalties as ordinary police officers

c. Only civil penalties

d. Administrative warnings only

90. Special Police Officers are subordinate to:

a. Only Magistrate

b. State Government directly

c. Same authorities as ordinary police

d. No authority

91. Section 18 ensures that Special Police Officers are:

a. Volunteers without authority

b. Auxiliary staff without responsibility

c. Fully empowered temporary police officers

d. Private security agents

92. Legal accountability of Special Police Officers is:

a. Lesser than regular police

b. Greater than regular police

c. Equal to regular police

d. Non-existent

93. Protection given under this section applies:

a. Only during training

b. Only after confirmation

c. During their appointment as Special Police Officers

d. Never

94. The objective of Section 18 is to:

a. Restrict powers of special officers

b. Clarify their full legal equivalence to regular police

c. Reduce administrative burden

d. Provide honorary status

95. Section 19 deals with:

a. Appointment of Special Police Officers

b. Powers of Special Police Officers

c. Refusal to serve as Special Police Officer

d. Dismissal of police officers

96. Liability under this section arises when a person:

a. Refuses appointment

b. Refuses after lawful appointment

c. Fails to apply for appointment

d. Resigns from police service

97. The refusal must be:

a. With excuse

b. Without sufficient excuse

c. Approved by police

d. Supported by public opinion

98. Disobedience of which orders attracts liability?

a. Any order

b. Private orders

c. Lawful orders or directions

d. Verbal requests only

99. Punishment under Section 19 is:

a. Imprisonment

b. Fine only

c. Dismissal from service

d. Community service

100. Maximum fine prescribed is:

a. ₹10

b. ₹25

c. ₹50

d. ₹100

101. The fine may be imposed:

a. By Police Officer

b. By District Magistrate directly

c. Upon conviction before a Magistrate

d. By State Government

102. Liability applies for:

a. Each act of neglect/refusal/disobedience

b. Only first offence

c. Only repeated offences

d. Only written refusal

103. Section 19 ensures:

a. Voluntary service

b. Legal enforceability of appointment

c. Promotion of police officers

d. Compensation to citizens

104. Sections 17–19 together regulate:

a. Recruitment of IPS officers

b. Temporary policing during disturbances

c. Criminal trials

d. Prison administration

105. Section 20 deals with:

a. Appointment of police officers

b. Powers of Magistrates

c. Authority to be exercised by Police Officers

d. Suspension of officers

106. Police Officers enrolled under this Act may exercise authority:

a. As they deem necessary

b. Only with public approval

c. Only as provided by law

d. Without restriction

107. Authority under this section includes powers under:

a. Any personal judgment

b. Only Police Manual

c. Criminal procedure laws

d. Local customs

108. Police authority is:

a. Inherent

b. Unlimited

c. Statutory

d. Customary

109. Exercise of power beyond statutory limits would be:

a. Valid if urgent

b. Administrative discretion

c. Ultra vires

d. Automatically legal

110. The section prevents:

a. Appointment of civilians

b. Abuse of police powers

c. Judicial interference

d. Legislative control

111. The phrase “any Act regulating criminal procedure” refers to:

a. Civil Procedure Code

b. Police Manual

c. Criminal Procedure Code

d. Evidence Act

112. Police authority flows primarily from:

a. Public support

b. Executive instructions alone

c. Statutory law

d. Judicial orders only

113. Section 20 embodies which constitutional principle?

a. Separation of powers

b. Rule of law

c. Federalism

d. Natural justice

114. If police exercise authority not conferred by law, such action is:

a. Valid if done in good faith

b. Valid during emergencies

c. Illegal

d. Subject only to departmental action

115. Section 21 primarily deals with:

a. Appointment of district police

b. Village Police Officers

c. Special Police Officers

d. Police pensions

116. The Police Act does not affect hereditary village police officers unless:

a. They retire

b. They commit misconduct

c. They are enrolled under the Act

d. They are transferred

117. After enrollment under the Act, village police officers become bound by:

a. Section 15

b. Section 18

c. Section 20

d. Section 25

118. Enrollment of a hereditary village police officer requires:

a. Only government approval

b. Consent of the officer alone

c. Consent of nominating authority alone

d. Consent of officer and nominating authority

119. The term “right of nomination” refers to:

a. Election by villagers

b. Government appointment

c. Authority entitled to nominate the officer

d. Judicial selection

120. Police chaukidars mentioned in this section relate to:

a. Madras Presidency

b. Bombay Presidency

c. Fort William (Bengal)

d. Punjab Province

121. If a chaukidar is employed outside his district:

a. He receives double salary

b. He is unpaid

c. He cannot be paid from that district’s rates

d. He must resign

122. Section 21 reflects respect for:

a. Judicial independence

b. Federal structure

c. Traditional local institutions

d. Military authority

123. Village police officers become statutory police officers:

a. Automatically

b. By election

c. By enrollment under the Act

d. By court order

124. Consent requirement ensures:

a. Administrative convenience

b. Voluntary integration into police force

c. Judicial oversight

d. Financial control

125. Under Section 22, a police officer is considered:

a. On duty only during office hours

b. On duty only when in uniform

c. Always on duty

d. On duty only within police station limits

126. The expression “always on duty” applies:

a. Only during emergencies

b. Only while carrying arms

c. For all purposes of the Act

d. Only when ordered by Magistrate

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