UP Police Act, 1861 MCQs Paper-3

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There are 4 Sets of MCQs available for UP Police Act, 1861 , you are advised to explore all the sets:

UP Police Act MCQs Set -1

UP Police Act MCQs Set -2

UP Police Act MCQs Set -3

UP Police Act MCQs Set -4

1. A police officer may be employed:

a. Only in his police station

b. Only in his district headquarters

c. Anywhere in the general police district

d. Anywhere in India

2. Section 22 primarily ensures:

a. Salary protection

b. Continuous accountability of police officers

c. Judicial supervision

d. Promotion opportunities

3. Which of the following is correct?

a. Police officers have fixed territorial limits

b. Police officers cannot be deployed outside their station

c. Police officers can be deployed anywhere in the district

d. Deployment requires court approval

4. The concept underlying Section 22 reflects:

a. Contractual employment

b. Volunteer service

c. Public duty and discipline

d. Temporary appointment

5. Failure of an off-duty officer to act in an emergency may lead to:

a. No consequence

b. Automatic dismissal

c. Possible disciplinary action

d. Criminal liability only

6. Section 22 applies to:

a. Only senior officers

b. Only armed police

c. Every police officer

d. Special police only

7. “General police district” refers to:

a. Entire country

b. Police station area only

c. The district to which the Act applies

d. Municipality limits

8. Section 22 strengthens:

a. Police privileges

b. Administrative control and operational readiness

c. Judicial authority

d. Local self-government

9. Section 23 primarily deals with:

a. Appointment of police officers

b. Duties of police officers

c. Discipline of police force

d. Powers of Magistrate

10. A police officer must obey orders issued by:

a. Any citizen

b. Political authority only

c. Competent lawful authority

d. Senior police officer only

11. Collection of intelligence under Section 23 relates to:

a. Military operations

b. Public peace

c. Revenue matters

d. Private disputes

12. Police duty includes prevention of:

a. Civil disputes

b. Offences and public nuisances

c. Tax evasion only

d. Administrative irregularities

13. Detecting offenders means:

a. Identifying and investigating criminals

b. Passing judgment

c. Imposing punishment

d. Conducting trial

14. Police may apprehend persons:

a. Only with warrant

b. Only on court order

c. Whom they are legally authorized to arrest

d. Any suspicious person

15. Warrantless entry is permitted into:

a. Private residences generally

b. Any building

c. Drinking shops and gaming houses

d. Government offices only

16. Such warrantless entry is allowed for:

a. Personal inquiry

b. Revenue inspection

c. Purposes mentioned in Section 23

d. Political investigation

17. Places of “loose and disorderly characters” refers to:

a. Educational institutions

b. Places likely to disturb public peace

c. Government offices

d. Religious places

18. Section 23 reflects the concept of:

a. Judicial policing

b. Preventive policing

c. Military policing

d. Private security

19. Section 24 empowers a police officer to:

a. Try criminal cases

b. Lay information before a Magistrate

c. Pass sentences

d. Conduct trials

20. The information under Section 24 is laid before:

a. Sessions Court

b. High Court

c. Magistrate

d. Police Superintendent

21. A police officer may apply for which of the following?

a. Summons

b. Warrant

c. Search warrant

d. All of the above

22. Legal process under this section may be issued against:

a. Any government officer

b. Any witness

c. Any person committing an offence

d. Any complainant

23. The power under Section 24 is:

a. Mandatory

b. Discretionary/enabling

c. Judicial

d. Legislative

24. Who ultimately decides whether to issue the process?

a. Police officer

b. Magistrate

c. State Government

d. District Superintendent

25. Section 24 relates primarily to:

a. Trial procedure

b. Sentencing

c. Initiation of criminal process

d. Police discipline

26. The provision supplements:

a. Civil Procedure Code

b. Evidence Act only

c. Criminal Procedure Code

d. Constitution

27. Search warrant mentioned in this section is issued by:

a. Police officer

b. Magistrate

c. Government

d. Court clerk

28. Section 24 highlights the role of police as:

a. Judges

b. Prosecutors

c. Initiators of legal proceedings

d. Legislators

29. Section 25 imposes a duty on police officers regarding:

a. Stolen property only

b. Seized property only

c. Unclaimed property

d. Government property

30. Every police officer must:

a. Ignore unclaimed property

b. Sell it immediately

c. Take charge of it

d. Transfer it to private persons

31. The police must furnish an inventory to:

a. High Court

b. State Government

c. District Magistrate

d. Superintendent of Police

32. Disposal of unclaimed property is guided by:

a. Police discretion

b. Orders of Magistrate

c. Orders of SP

d. Orders of State Government only

33. The duty under Section 25 is:

a. Optional

b. Discretionary

c. Mandatory

d. Conditional

34. Inventory refers to:

a. Ownership certificate

b. List and description of property

c. Sale document

d. Police diary entry

35. Police officers may dispose of unclaimed property:

a. At their own will

b. With court permission only

c. According to Magistrate’s orders

d. By auction without permission

36. The purpose of requiring inventory is to ensure:

a. Revenue collection

b. Administrative convenience only

c. Accountability and transparency

d. Faster disposal

37. Authority supervising disposal of such property is:

a. Police Headquarters

b. State Cabinet

c. District Magistrate

d. Sessions Court

38. Section 25 primarily protects:

a. Police officers

b. Government funds

c. Interests of rightful owners and public property

d. Private contractors

39. Power to detain unclaimed property is vested in:

a. Superintendent of Police

b. District Magistrate

c. High Court

d. State Government

40. The Magistrate must issue a proclamation:

a. Privately

b. Only to police

c. Publicly describing the property

d. Only to Government officers

41. A claimant must establish his right within:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

42. The limitation period runs from:

a. Date of seizure

b. Date of detention

c. Date of proclamation

d. Date of inventory

43. Burden of proof of ownership lies on:

a. Police

b. Magistrate

c. Claimant

d. State Government

44. Section 26 ensures:

a. Immediate confiscation

b. Secret disposal

c. Due process before disposal

d. Police autonomy

45. Sub-section (2) applies provisions of:

a. Indian Penal Code (BNS)

b. Evidence Act

c. Criminal Procedure Code provisions

d. Civil Procedure Code

46. Detention of property means:

a. Permanent confiscation

b. Temporary custody

c. Destruction

d. Transfer to police ownership

47. Proclamation must specify:

a. Names of police officers

b. Government policy

c. Articles of which property consists

d. Revenue details

48. Section 26 primarily safeguards:

a. Police interests

b. Rights of potential owners

c. Government revenue

d. Private contractors

49. Section 27 applies when:

a. Property is stolen

b. Owner is unknown and no claim is made

c. Police refuse to take custody

d. Property belongs to Government

50. If no claimant appears within prescribed time, the property:

a. Must be destroyed

b. Must be returned to police

c. May be sold by order of District Magistrate

d. Automatically vests in High Court

51. Authority to order sale of such property is:

a. Superintendent of Police

b. State Government directly

c. District Magistrate

d. Civil Court

52. If property has already been sold earlier:

a. Nothing further happens

b. Sale proceeds are considered

c. Property must be resold

d. Police retain the money

53. Sale proceeds of unclaimed property ultimately go to:

a. District Magistrate

b. Police Department

c. State Government

d. Local Municipality

54. Section 27 represents:

a. Punitive confiscation

b. Administrative disposal due to absence of claim

c. Civil attachment

d. Revenue recovery

55. Before Section 27 applies, opportunity to claim is provided under:

a. Section 22

b. Section 23

c. Section 26

d. Section 30

56. Confiscation under Section 27 occurs because:

a. Property is illegal

b. Owner is convicted

c. No claimant establishes ownership

d. Police require funds

57. The scheme of Sections 25–27 relates to:

a. Criminal punishment

b. Unclaimed property management

c. Police recruitment

d. Maintenance of law and order

58. Disposal by State Government indicates that property:

a. Remains private

b. Becomes State property

c. Goes to courts

d. Is auctioned repeatedly

59. Section 28 applies to a person who:

a. Is newly appointed

b. Is suspended

c. Has ceased to be a Police Officer

d. Is transferred

60. Obligation imposed is to deliver up:

a. Only certificate

b. Only uniform

c. All official items supplied for duty

d. Only weapons

61. Delivery must be made:

a. Within one month

b. Within six months

c. Forthwith (immediately)

d. After notice

62. Authority competent to convict is:

a. Superintendent of Police

b. Sessions Court

c. Magistrate

d. State Government

63. Maximum imprisonment prescribed is:

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. One year

d. Two years

64. Imprisonment may be:

a. Only with hard labour

b. Only without hard labour

c. Either with or without hard labour

d. Only simple imprisonment

65. Maximum fine under Section 28 is:

a. ₹50

b. ₹100

c. ₹200

d. ₹500

66. Purpose of this provision is mainly to prevent:

a. Corruption

b. Absenteeism

c. Impersonation of police

d. Promotion disputes

67. Section 28 protects:

a. Police officers’ rights

b. Government property and public safety

c. Judicial independence

d. Election process

68. Failure to surrender uniform after retirement may lead to:

a. Departmental warning only

b. No action

c. Criminal liability under Section 28

d. Civil suit only

69. Section 29 deals with penalties for:

a. Theft of property

b. Neglect or breach of duty by police

c. Public nuisance

d. Illegal assembly

70. Unauthorized withdrawal from duty without permission attracts:

a. Departmental warning only

b. No penalty

c. Liability under Section 29

d. Transfer

71. Failure to report after expiry of leave without reasonable cause is:

a. Not punishable

b. Civil wrong

c. Misconduct punishable under Section 29

d. Only administrative lapse

72. Engaging in other employment without authority is:

a. Allowed

b. Encouraged

c. Punishable misconduct

d. Subject only to tax law

73. Offering unwarranted personal violence to a person in custody refers to:

a. Lawful use of force

b. Self-defence

c. Custodial abuse

d. Riot control

74. Maximum imprisonment prescribed is:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

75. Fine may extend to:

a. ₹200

b. ₹500

c. Three months’ pay

d. No fine allowed

76. Imprisonment may be:

a. Only with hard labour

b. Only without hard labour

c. Either with or without hard labour

d. Only simple imprisonment

77. Trial for offence under Section 29 is before:

a. Sessions Court

b. Police Tribunal

c. Magistrate

d. State Government

78. Cowardice in performance of duty is expressly included as:

a. Civil liability

b. Departmental lapse only

c. Punishable misconduct

d. Non-justiciable issue

79. Section 30 primarily deals with:

a. Police recruitment

b. Public assemblies and processions

c. Criminal trials

d. Custodial procedures

80. Authority to regulate assemblies on public roads is given to:

a. Magistrate only

b. District Superintendent of Police

c. Governor

d. Sessions Judge

81. Police may prescribe:

a. Dress code of participants

b. Route and timing of processions

c. Political agenda

d. Religious practices

82. Licence may be required when the assembly is likely to:

a. Increase traffic

b. Cause inconvenience

c. Cause breach of peace

d. Exceed 100 persons

83. Who forms the opinion regarding likelihood of breach of peace?

a. Governor

b. High Court

c. Magistrate of district or sub-division

d. Police constable

84. Licence issued under this section:

a. Requires payment of prescribed fee

b. Requires security deposit

c. Is free of cost

d. Is issued by court

85. Licence may specify:

a. Names of licensees and conditions

b. Only number of participants

c. Only route

d. Only time

86. Police may regulate music in streets during:

a. Only elections

b. Only emergencies

c. Festivals and ceremonies

d. Court proceedings

87. Section 30 is primarily:

a. Punitive

b. Revenue-generating

c. Preventive and regulatory

d. Judicial provision

88. The power under Section 30 applies to:

a. Private property only

b. Government offices

c. Public roads and streets

d. Military areas

89. Section 30-A deals with:

a. Grant of licence for assemblies

b. Violation of licence conditions

c. Police recruitment

d. Criminal trials

90. Who can stop a procession violating licence conditions?

a. Only Magistrate

b. Only Superintendent of Police

c. Magistrate or specified police officers

d. Court only

91. An Inspector of Police:

a. Cannot act under this section

b. Can stop violating procession

c. Can only report violation

d. Needs court order

92. Officer-in-charge of a police station:

a. Has no authority

b. Can stop and disperse violating assembly

c. Must seek approval from High Court

d. Can only impose fine

93. If assembly refuses to disperse after order:

a. Nothing happens

b. Licence is automatically cancelled

c. It becomes unlawful assembly

d. Only warning is issued

94. Section 30-A operates after:

a. Arrest

b. Conviction

c. Grant of licence under Section 30

d. Filing of FIR

95. Purpose of Section 30-A is:

a. Revenue collection

b. Regulation of police salaries

c. Enforcement of licence conditions

d. Appointment of officers

96. Which of the following may NOT act under Section 30-A?

a. Magistrate

b. Inspector of Police

c. Station House Officer

d. Private citizen

97. Once assembly is deemed unlawful:

a. It gets immunity

b. Police powers increase

c. Licence automatically renews

d. No legal consequence

98. Section 30-A is primarily:

a. Preventive enforcement provision

b. Judicial provision

c. Revenue provision

d. Administrative guideline

99. Section 31 primarily imposes:

a. Criminal liability

b. Administrative procedure

c. Duty on police to maintain order

d. Revenue obligation

100. Which place is NOT covered under Section 31?

a. Public streets

b. Ghats

c. Private residence

d. Landing places

101. Police must prevent obstruction during:

a. Private meetings only

b. Assemblies and processions

c. Court proceedings

d. Legislative sessions

102. Section 31 applies near places of worship:

a. Only at night

b. Only during emergencies

c. During public worship

d. Never

103. The duty applies when a place:

a. Is permanently blocked

b. Is thronged or likely to be obstructed

c. Is privately owned

d. Is deserted

104. The expression “places of public resort” means:

a. Secret government locations

b. Public gathering places

c. Military bases

d. Private clubs only

105. Section 31 authorizes police to act:

a. Only after obstruction occurs

b. Only on court order

c. Preventively before obstruction

d. Only during riots

106. The duty under Section 31 is:

a. Optional

b. Advisory

c. Mandatory

d. Conditional on approval

107. Which activity falls within Section 31?

a. Regulating crowd at festival

b. Conducting criminal trial

c. Issuing passport

d. Levying tax

108. Section 31 mainly aims at:

a. Crime investigation

b. Maintenance of public order and free movement

c. Revenue collection

d. Police recruitment

109. Section 32 provides punishment for disobedience of orders issued under:

a. Criminal Procedure Code

b. Police Act regulatory sections on assemblies

c. Indian Penal Code (BNS) only

d. Municipal laws

110. Liability arises when a person:

a. Only uses force against police

b. Opposes or disobeys orders

c. Commits a serious crime

d. Fails to pay tax

111. Violation of which also attracts punishment?

a. Court decree

b. Licence conditions

c. Private contract

d. Election rules

112. The licence mentioned relates to:

a. Driving vehicles

b. Firearms

c. Music, assemblies, processions

d. Trade activities

113. Who can grant such licence under this section?

a. Civil Judge

b. District Collector

c. Specified police officers

d. Panchayat head

114. Maximum punishment prescribed is:

a. Imprisonment up to six months

b. Fine up to ₹200

c. Both imprisonment and fine

d. Community service

115. Penalty can be imposed only after:

a. Police order

b. Administrative approval

c. Conviction before Magistrate

d. Public complaint

116. Section 32 aims primarily to:

a. Investigate crimes

b. Maintain public order compliance

c. Regulate taxation

d. Control police recruitment

117. Which act would attract Section 32?

a. Playing loud music contrary to licence terms

b. Filing a civil suit

c. Paying fine late

d. Registering FIR

118. Section 32 applies to:

a. Police officers only

b. Government servants only

c. Every person

d. Magistrates

119. Section 32-A empowers whom to prohibit mass drill with arms?

a. Superintendent of Police

b. District Magistrate

c. Sessions Judge

d. Governor

120. Prohibition may be issued for preservation of:

a. Trade interests

b. Public peace and safety

c. Revenue collection

d. Private disputes

121. “Arms” under this section includes:

a. Only firearms

b. Only explosives

c. Offensive weapons like lathi or danda

d. Kitchen utensils

122. Initial prohibition order may remain in force for:

a. One month

b. Three months

c. Six months

d. One year

123. Further extension may be granted by:

a. Police Department

b. High Court

c. State Government

d. Central Government

124. Maximum extension period allowed is:

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. One year

d. Unlimited

125. District Magistrate may rescind or alter order:

a. Only on court direction

b. Only on complaint

c. Suo motu or on application

d. Never

126. Who may also rescind or alter the order?

a. Municipal authority

b. State Government

c. Parliament

d. Police station officer

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