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THE POLICE ACT, 1861 |
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The Police Act, 1861 was enacted primarily to: |
Regulate and reorganize the police |
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According to the Preamble, the Act aims to make the police a more efficient instrument for: |
Prevention and detection of crime |
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The Police Act, 1861 was enacted after which major historical event? |
Revolt of 1857 |
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The Preamble indicates that the existing police system before 1861 was: |
Inadequate and required reorganization |
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The expression “regulation of police” in the Preamble refers to: |
Organization and administration of the police force |
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The Preamble helps in: |
Understanding legislative intent |
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One of the primary objectives of the Act is to: |
Strengthen police efficiency |
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The Act emphasizes prevention of crime in addition to: |
Detection of crime |
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The Preamble reflects the need for: |
Centralized and disciplined police system |
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The Police Act, 1861 is primarily concerned with: |
Organization and control of police |
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Section 1 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Interpretation of terms used in the Act |
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The term “Magistrate of the district” refers to: |
District Magistrate or chief executive officer of the district |
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The word “Magistrate” under Section 1 includes: |
Executive Magistrates exercising magisterial powers |
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The term “police” includes: |
All persons enrolled under the Act |
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“General police district” means: |
Any area where the Act is in force |
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The term “District Superintendent” includes: |
Additional, Joint or Assistant District Superintendents |
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Under Section 1, “property” includes: |
Movable property, money and valuable security |
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The word “person” includes: |
Companies or corporations also |
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The word “month” means: |
Calendar month |
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Subordinate ranks of the police force refer to: |
Officers below the rank of Deputy Superintendent |
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Section 2 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Constitution of the police force |
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Under Section 2, the police establishment of a State is deemed to be: |
One unified police force |
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The police force under the Act shall be: |
Formally enrolled |
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The number of police personnel in a State is determined by: |
State Government |
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Organization of the police force is made according to orders of: |
State Government |
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Subordinate ranks of the police force generally refer to officers: |
Below the rank of Deputy Superintendent |
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Pay and service conditions of subordinate ranks are determined by: |
State Government |
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Section 2 reflects the principle of: |
Centralized State control over police |
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Formal enrolment implies: |
Police officers are appointed through official process |
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Section 2 provides the legal foundation for: |
Existence and organization of the police force |
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Section 2-A of the Police Act, 1861 (UP) relates to: |
Civil aviation personnel becoming police force |
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Section 2-A operates: |
Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act or other laws |
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Civil aviation personnel become members of the police force: |
By notification issued by the State Government |
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The conversion of civil aviation personnel into police force takes effect from: |
Date specified by State Government notification |
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Existing civil aviation personnel who do not wish to join the police force may: |
Give notice opting out within thirty days |
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If a civil aviation employee opts out, his post: |
Stands terminated |
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A civil aviation employee opting out is entitled to compensation equal to: |
Three months’ salary |
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Pay and service conditions of civil aviation personnel after becoming police members are determined by: |
State Government rules |
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Duties of such personnel may include: |
Maintenance of State aircraft and airport security |
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Civil aviation personnel may be assigned duties by: |
Orders of the State Government |
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Civil aviation personnel are granted powers and privileges: |
Necessary for discharge of assigned duties |
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Administration of civil aviation personnel under Section 2-A is vested in: |
Director General, Civil Aviation, Uttar Pradesh |
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The Director General, Civil Aviation is assisted by: |
Additional Director (Administration) and other specified officers |
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Section 2-A creates: |
A specialized police force category |
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The purpose of Section 2-A is primarily to: |
Utilize aviation personnel for police-related duties |
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Section 3 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Superintendence of police |
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Under Section 3, superintendence of police vests in: |
State Government |
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The term “superintendence” in Section 3 implies: |
Overall administrative control and supervision |
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Section 3 establishes that the police are subordinate to: |
Executive government of the State |
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Except as authorized under the Act, control over police functionaries cannot be exercised by: |
Unauthorized persons or authorities |
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Section 3 reflects which principle of policing? |
Centralized executive control |
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Superintendence under Section 3 extends throughout: |
A general police district |
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Policing in India is primarily a: |
State subject |
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Section 3 forms the foundation of: |
Administrative control of police |
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Which authority ultimately directs police policy in a State under the Act? |
State Government |
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Section 4 of the Police Act, 1861 (as applicable in Uttar Pradesh) deals with: |
Administrative structure of the police |
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The administration of the police throughout a general police district shall be vested in: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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Along with the Director-General-cum-Inspector-General, which officers may be appointed for administration of the police at the State level? |
Inspector-General, Deputy Inspector-General and Assistant Inspector-General |
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The number of senior police officers at the State level is determined by: |
State Government |
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The administration of police within a district is vested in: |
Superintendent of Police |
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At the district level, police administration may also include: |
Additional, Joint and Assistant District Superintendents |
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The district police administration operates under the general control and direction of: |
District Magistrate |
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The term “local jurisdiction of the Magistrate of the district” refers to: |
Entire police district area |
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Section 4 establishes which type of control over district police? |
Dual control of police hierarchy and civil administration |
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The Superintendent of Police functions under: |
Both police hierarchy and District Magistrate |
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The Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police represents: |
Head of State police administration |
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Section 4 reflects the traditional system of district administration in India, where: |
Civil and police authorities coordinate |
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Which authority appoints Additional, Joint or Assistant District Superintendents? |
State Government |
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Section 4 primarily concerns: |
Police organization and administration |
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The District Magistrate’s control over police under Section 4 is described as: |
General control and direction |
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The State-level police administration is vested in: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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Section 4 creates a hierarchical structure linking: |
Police leadership and district administration |
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The purpose of placing district police under the Magistrate’s control is to: |
Ensure coordination in maintaining law and order |
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Which of the following best describes Section 4? |
Provision for administrative organization of police |
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Section 4 distributes police administration between: |
State-level police leadership and district-level officers |
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Section 5 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Powers of Inspector-General and exercise of such powers |
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Under the Uttar Pradesh adaptation of the Police Act, the powers under Section 5 are exercised by: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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The term “Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police” in Section 5 indicates: |
The modern designation of the head of State police |
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The heading of Section 5 still uses the term “Inspector-General” because: |
It reflects the original colonial terminology |
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Section 5 states that the police chief shall have full powers of a Magistrate throughout: |
The general police district |
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The phrase “powers of a Magistrate” in Section 5 refers primarily to: |
Administrative and preventive powers |
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The Magistrate referred to in Section 5 is closest to: |
Executive Magistrate |
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Section 5 does NOT confer power on the police chief to: |
Conduct criminal trials |
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The powers under Section 5 are exercised subject to: |
Rules made by the State Government |
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Section 5 establishes that the police chief acts: |
Within the framework of State Government rules |
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Historically, the powers in Section 5 were strengthened after: |
Revolt of 1857 |
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The purpose of granting magisterial-type powers to the police chief was to: |
Ensure swift control of disturbances |
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Section 5 forms part of the administrative hierarchy under the Act along with: |
Sections 3 and 4 |
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Superintendence of police vests in the State Government under: |
Section 3 |
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Appointment of the Inspector-General is provided under: |
Section 4 |
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Section 5 mainly concerns: |
Exercise of powers by head of police force |
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The expression “general police district” refers to: |
Entire State police jurisdiction |
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Section 5 reflects the principle of: |
Centralized police command |
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The powers of the police chief under Section 5 are primarily: |
Administrative and preventive in nature |
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Section 5 ensures that the head of police operates: |
Subject to executive control of the State Government |
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Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Discipline and punishment of subordinate police officers |
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The powers under Section 7 are subject to: |
Article 311 of the Constitution |
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Which authority is NOT mentioned in Section 7? |
Judicial Magistrate |
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Maximum fine under Section 7 is: |
One month’s pay |
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Maximum confinement to quarters may extend to: |
15 days |
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Deprivation of good conduct pay is an example of: |
Departmental punishment |
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Removal from office of distinction means: |
Removal from a special post carrying privilege or extra pay |
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Withholding of increments may include: |
Stoppage at efficiency bar |
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Section 7 primarily applies to: |
Subordinate police ranks |
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Punishment under Section 7 is: |
Departmental/administrative punishment |
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Section 8 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Certificates of appointment to police officers |
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The certificate vests the holder with: |
Powers, functions and privileges of a Police Officer |
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The certificate is issued under the seal of: |
Inspector-General or authorized officer |
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When does the certificate cease to have effect? |
When the person ceases to be a police officer |
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Upon leaving service, the certificate must be: |
Surrendered to an authorized officer |
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A suspended police officer: |
Remains an officer but powers are in abeyance |
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During suspension, the officer remains subject to: |
Police discipline and penalties |
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The certificate primarily serves as: |
Legal proof of police authority |
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Failure to surrender the certificate after leaving service may lead to: |
Possible misuse and legal consequences |
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Section 8 distinguishes between: |
Status as officer and exercise of powers |
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Section 8-A of the Police Act, 1861 (U.P. Amendment) deals with: |
Enrolment of Civil Aviation Personnel |
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Civil aviation personnel become members of a police force by: |
Virtue of this Act |
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The certificate is issued under the seal of: |
Director-General, Civil Aviation, U.P. |
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Personnel already in service at the commencement of the amendment: |
Automatically become members of the police force and receive certificates |
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Personnel appointed after commencement receive the certificate: |
At the time of appointment |
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Section 8-A primarily aims to secure: |
Aviation security |
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Authority to appoint another officer to issue certificates lies with: |
State Government |
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Aviation personnel enrolled under this section are subject to: |
Police discipline and authority |
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The provision applies specifically to: |
Uttar Pradesh (by amendment) |
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Section 8-A reflects the need for: |
Specialized security forces for sensitive installations |
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Section 9 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Resignation and withdrawal from duty |
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A police officer cannot withdraw from duties without: |
Express permission of competent authority |
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Permission to withdraw may be granted by: |
District Superintendent of Police |
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Resignation without leave requires written notice of at least: |
2 months |
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The notice must be given to: |
Superior officer |
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The provision primarily ensures: |
Public safety through continuity of service |
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Leaving duty without permission may lead to: |
Disciplinary action |
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Police service is treated as: |
Essential public service with discipline |
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The authority empowered to grant permission may also be: |
Officer authorized by the District Superintendent |
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The section reflects the principle that police officers: |
Must maintain continuity of duty |
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Section 10 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Prohibition on other employment |
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A police officer may engage in other employment only if: |
Permitted in writing by competent authority |
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Permission must be granted by: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General |
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The phrase “any employment or office whatever” indicates: |
Broad and comprehensive prohibition |
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The main purpose of the section is to ensure: |
Full-time devotion to police duties |
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Outside employment without permission may result in: |
Disciplinary action |
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The provision helps prevent: |
Conflict of interest |
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The rule applies to: |
All police officers |
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Written permission is necessary because: |
Oral orders are invalid for such matters |
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Police service under this provision is treated as: |
Exclusive public service |
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Section 12 of the Police Act, 1861 deals with: |
Rule-making power of the Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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Rules under Section 12 are framed by: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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The rule-making power under Section 12 is exercised: |
Subject to approval of the State Government |
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Section 12 allows rules regarding: |
Organisation and distribution of police force |
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The provision authorizes rules about: |
Supply of arms and equipment |
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Intelligence gathering by police is covered under: |
Section 12 |
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One purpose of rules under Section 12 is to: |
Prevent abuse or neglect of duty |
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Section 12 primarily ensures: |
Internal administrative regulation of police |
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The places where police personnel shall reside may be determined by: |
Rules framed under Section 12 |
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Section 12 ultimately aims at making the police force: |
Efficient in discharge of duties |
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Additional police under Section 13 may be deputed: |
On application of any person showing necessity |
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The cost of additional police deployed under Section 13 is borne by: |
Person making the application |
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The deputed police force under Section 13 is under whose command? |
District Superintendent of Police |
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Deployment of additional police under Section 13 is subject to the general direction of: |
District Magistrate |
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The applicant may require withdrawal of the additional police force by giving: |
One month’s written notice |
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Section 13 primarily relates to: |
Private employment of additional police at cost of individuals |
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Section 14 applies to additional police deployment near: |
Railways, canals, factories or commercial concerns |
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Additional force under Section 14 may be deployed when: |
Behaviour or apprehended behaviour of workers requires it |
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Who forms the opinion regarding necessity of additional force? |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General of Police |
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Consent of which authority is required for deputation of such force? |
State Government |
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Cost of additional police force under Section 14 is borne by: |
Persons in control of funds of the work or concern |
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Duration of deployment of such force: |
As long as necessity continues |
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Section 14 is primarily: |
Preventive and protective |
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The purpose of this provision is to protect: |
Infrastructure and public order |
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Section 15 deals with: |
Quartering of additional police in disturbed areas |
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Declaration of a disturbed area is made by: |
State Government by proclamation |
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Proclamation must be notified in: |
Official Gazette |
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Additional police deployed under this section is: |
In addition to ordinary fixed complement |
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Deployment is made by: |
DGP/IG or authorised officer with Government sanction |
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Cost of additional force is borne by: |
Inhabitants of the area |
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Apportionment of cost is done by: |
District Magistrate |
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Basis of apportionment is: |
Magistrate’s judgment of respective means |
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The State Government may: |
Exempt any class of inhabitants |
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Proclamation under Section 15: |
Must state period of operation |
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“Inhabitants” includes: |
Property holders and absentee landlords collecting rent |
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Purpose of Section 15 is primarily: |
Maintenance of public order through additional police deployment |
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Section 15-A provides for: |
Compensation for misconduct of inhabitants |
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Compensation may be claimed when injury is caused by: |
Misconduct of inhabitants |
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Application for compensation is made to: |
District Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate |
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Limitation period for application is generally: |
Three months |
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Compensation can be awarded only if injury arose from: |
Riot or unlawful assembly |
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Before awarding compensation, Magistrate must be satisfied that: |
Victim was free from blame |
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Liability to pay compensation falls on: |
Inhabitants of the area |
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State Government may: |
Exempt any class of inhabitants |
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Orders under this section are: |
Subject to revision by Commissioner/State Government |
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Civil suit regarding same injury: |
Barred if compensation awarded |
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Section 16 deals with: |
Recovery of moneys under Sections 13–15A |
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Moneys under Sections 13–15A are recoverable by: |
District Magistrate |
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Recovery may be made in the manner of: |
Recovery of fines under CrPC (BNSS) |
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Alternatively, recovery may also be made by: |
Suit in a competent Court |
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Money recovered under Section 15-A is payable to: |
Victims entitled to compensation |
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Distribution of recovered compensation shall be: |
As determined under Section 15-A |
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Sub-section (2) of Section 16 is: |
Omitted |
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Section 16 primarily ensures: |
Enforcement of financial liability |
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Section 16 applies to money payable under how many sections? |
Four (Sections 13, 14, 15, 15-A) |
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Section 17 deals with: |
Special Police Officers |
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Special Police Officers may be appointed when: |
Riot or disturbance has occurred or is apprehended |
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A request for appointment may be made by a police officer not below the rank of: |
Inspector |
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The request must be made to: |
Nearest Magistrate |
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Persons appointed as Special Police Officers are: |
Residents of the neighbourhood |
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The appointment is: |
Temporary and situation-based |
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The Magistrate shall comply with the request: |
Unless he sees cause to the contrary |
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The purpose of appointment is to: |
Assist in maintaining peace and security |
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Section 17 can be invoked even when disturbance is: |
Reasonably apprehended |
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The Special Police Officers act within: |
Such limits as deemed necessary |
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Section 18 deals with: |
Powers of Special Police Officers |
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A Special Police Officer has powers: |
Same powers as ordinary police officer |
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Special Police Officers enjoy: |
Same privileges and protection as police |
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In respect of duties, a Special Police Officer: |
Performs duties equal to police officers |
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Special Police Officers are liable to: |
Same penalties as ordinary police officers |
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Special Police Officers are subordinate to: |
Same authorities as ordinary police |
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Section 18 ensures that Special Police Officers are: |
Fully empowered temporary police officers |
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Legal accountability of Special Police Officers is: |
Equal to regular police |
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Protection given under this section applies: |
During their appointment as Special Police Officers |
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The objective of Section 18 is to: |
Clarify their full legal equivalence to regular police |
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Section 19 deals with: |
Refusal to serve as Special Police Officer |
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Liability under this section arises when a person: |
Refuses after lawful appointment |
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The refusal must be: |
Without sufficient excuse |
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Disobedience of which orders attracts liability? |
Lawful orders or directions |
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Punishment under Section 19 is: |
Fine only |
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Maximum fine prescribed is: |
₹50 |
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The fine may be imposed: |
Upon conviction before a Magistrate |
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Liability applies for: |
Each act of neglect/refusal/disobedience |
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Section 19 ensures: |
Legal enforceability of appointment |
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Sections 17–19 together regulate: |
Temporary policing during disturbances |
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Section 20 deals with: |
Authority to be exercised by Police Officers |
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Police Officers enrolled under this Act may exercise authority: |
Only as provided by law |
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Authority under this section includes powers under: |
Criminal procedure laws |
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Police authority is: |
Statutory |
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Exercise of power beyond statutory limits would be: |
Ultra vires |
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The section prevents: |
Abuse of police powers |
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The phrase “any Act regulating criminal procedure” refers to: |
Criminal Procedure Code |
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Police authority flows primarily from: |
Statutory law |
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Section 20 embodies which constitutional principle? |
Rule of law |
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If police exercise authority not conferred by law, such action is: |
Illegal |
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Section 21 primarily deals with: |
Village Police Officers |
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The Police Act does not affect hereditary village police officers unless: |
They are enrolled under the Act |
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After enrollment under the Act, village police officers become bound by: |
Section 20 |
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Enrollment of a hereditary village police officer requires: |
Consent of officer and nominating authority |
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The term “right of nomination” refers to: |
Authority entitled to nominate the officer |
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Police chaukidars mentioned in this section relate to: |
Fort William (Bengal) |
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If a chaukidar is employed outside his district: |
He cannot be paid from that district’s rates |
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Section 21 reflects respect for: |
Traditional local institutions |
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Village police officers become statutory police officers: |
By enrollment under the Act |
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Consent requirement ensures: |
Voluntary integration into police force |
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Under Section 22, a police officer is considered: |
Always on duty |
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The expression “always on duty” applies: |
For all purposes of the Act |
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A police officer may be employed: |
Anywhere in the general police district |
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Section 22 primarily ensures: |
Continuous accountability of police officers |
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Which of the following is correct?
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Police officers can be deployed anywhere in the district |
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The concept underlying Section 22 reflects: |
Public duty and discipline |
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Failure of an off-duty officer to act in an emergency may lead to: |
Possible disciplinary action |
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Section 22 applies to: |
Every police officer |
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“General police district” refers to: |
The district to which the Act applies |
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Section 22 strengthens: |
Administrative control and operational readiness |
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Section 23 primarily deals with: |
Duties of police officers |
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A police officer must obey orders issued by: |
Competent lawful authority |
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Collection of intelligence under Section 23 relates to: |
Public peace |
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Police duty includes prevention of: |
Offences and public nuisances |
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Detecting offenders means: |
Identifying and investigating criminals |
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Police may apprehend persons: |
Whom they are legally authorized to arrest |
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Warrantless entry is permitted into: |
Drinking shops and gaming houses |
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Such warrantless entry is allowed for: |
Purposes mentioned in Section 23 |
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Places of “loose and disorderly characters” refers to: |
Places likely to disturb public peace |
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Section 23 reflects the concept of: |
Preventive policing |
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Section 24 empowers a police officer to: |
Lay information before a Magistrate |
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The information under Section 24 is laid before: |
Magistrate |
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A police officer may apply for which of the following? |
Summons, Warrant, Search warrant |
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Legal process under this section may be issued against: |
Any person committing an offence |
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The power under Section 24 is: |
Discretionary/enabling |
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Who ultimately decides whether to issue the process? |
Magistrate |
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Section 24 relates primarily to: |
Initiation of criminal process |
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The provision supplements: |
Criminal Procedure Code |
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Search warrant mentioned in this section is issued by: |
Magistrate |
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Section 24 highlights the role of police as: |
Initiators of legal proceedings |
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Section 25 imposes a duty on police officers regarding: |
Unclaimed property |
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Every police officer must: |
Take charge of it |
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The police must furnish an inventory to: |
District Magistrate |
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Disposal of unclaimed property is guided by: |
Orders of Magistrate |
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The duty under Section 25 is: |
Mandatory |
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Inventory refers to: |
List and description of property |
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Police officers may dispose of unclaimed property: |
According to Magistrate’s orders |
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The purpose of requiring inventory is to ensure: |
Accountability and transparency |
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Authority supervising disposal of such property is: |
District Magistrate |
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Section 25 primarily protects: |
Interests of rightful owners and public property |
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Power to detain unclaimed property is vested in: |
District Magistrate |
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The Magistrate must issue a proclamation: |
Publicly describing the property |
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A claimant must establish his right within: |
Six months |
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The limitation period runs from: |
Date of proclamation |
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Burden of proof of ownership lies on: |
Claimant |
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Section 26 ensures: |
Due process before disposal |
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Sub-section (2) applies provisions of: |
Criminal Procedure Code provisions |
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Detention of property means: |
Temporary custody |
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Proclamation must specify: |
Articles of which property consists |
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Section 26 primarily safeguards: |
Rights of potential owners |
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Section 27 applies when: |
Owner is unknown and no claim is made |
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If no claimant appears within prescribed time, the property: |
May be sold by order of District Magistrate |
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Authority to order sale of such property is: |
District Magistrate |
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If property has already been sold earlier: |
Sale proceeds are considered |
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Sale proceeds of unclaimed property ultimately go to: |
State Government |
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Section 27 represents: |
Administrative disposal due to absence of claim |
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Before Section 27 applies, opportunity to claim is provided under: |
Section 26 |
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Confiscation under Section 27 occurs because: |
No claimant establishes ownership |
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The scheme of Sections 25–27 relates to: |
Unclaimed property management |
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Disposal by State Government indicates that property: |
Becomes State property |
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Section 28 applies to a person who: |
Has ceased to be a Police Officer |
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Obligation imposed is to deliver up: |
All official items supplied for duty |
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Delivery must be made: |
Forthwith (immediately) |
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Authority competent to convict is: |
Magistrate |
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Maximum imprisonment prescribed is: |
Six months |
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Imprisonment may be: |
Either with or without hard labour |
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Maximum fine under Section 28 is: |
₹200 |
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Purpose of this provision is mainly to prevent: |
Impersonation of police |
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Section 28 protects: |
Government property and public safety |
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Failure to surrender uniform after retirement may lead to: |
Criminal liability under Section 28 |
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Section 29 deals with penalties for: |
Neglect or breach of duty by police |
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Unauthorized withdrawal from duty without permission attracts: |
Liability under Section 29 |
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Failure to report after expiry of leave without reasonable cause is: |
Misconduct punishable under Section 29 |
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Engaging in other employment without authority is: |
Punishable misconduct |
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Offering unwarranted personal violence to a person in custody refers to: |
Custodial abuse |
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Maximum imprisonment prescribed is: |
Three months |
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Fine may extend to: |
Three months’ pay |
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Imprisonment may be: |
Either with or without hard labour |
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Trial for offence under Section 29 is before: |
Magistrate |
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Cowardice in performance of duty is expressly included as: |
Punishable misconduct |
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Section 30 primarily deals with: |
Public assemblies and processions |
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Authority to regulate assemblies on public roads is given to: |
District Superintendent of Police |
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Police may prescribe: |
Route and timing of processions |
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Licence may be required when the assembly is likely to: |
Cause breach of peace |
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Who forms the opinion regarding likelihood of breach of peace? |
Magistrate of district or sub-division |
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Licence issued under this section: |
Is free of cost |
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Licence may specify: |
Names of licensees and conditions |
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Police may regulate music in streets during: |
Festivals and ceremonies |
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Section 30 is primarily: |
Preventive and regulatory |
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The power under Section 30 applies to: |
Public roads and streets |
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Section 30-A deals with: |
Violation of licence conditions |
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Who can stop a procession violating licence conditions? |
Magistrate or specified police officers |
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An Inspector of Police: |
Can stop violating procession |
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Officer-in-charge of a police station: |
Can stop and disperse violating assembly |
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If assembly refuses to disperse after order: |
It becomes unlawful assembly |
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Section 30-A operates after: |
Grant of licence under Section 30 |
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Purpose of Section 30-A is: |
Enforcement of licence conditions |
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Which of the following may NOT act under Section 30-A? |
Private citizen |
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Once assembly is deemed unlawful: |
Police powers increase |
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Section 30-A is primarily: |
Preventive enforcement provision |
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Section 31 primarily imposes: |
Duty on police to maintain order |
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Which place is NOT covered under Section 31? |
Private residence |
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Police must prevent obstruction during: |
Assemblies and processions |
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Section 31 applies near places of worship: |
During public worship |
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The duty applies when a place: |
Is thronged or likely to be obstructed |
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The expression “places of public resort” means: |
Public gathering places |
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Section 31 authorizes police to act: |
Preventively before obstruction |
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The duty under Section 31 is: |
Mandatory |
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Which activity falls within Section 31? |
Regulating crowd at festival |
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Section 31 mainly aims at: |
Maintenance of public order and free movement |
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Section 32 provides punishment for disobedience of orders issued under: |
Police Act regulatory sections on assemblies |
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Liability arises when a person: |
Opposes or disobeys orders |
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Violation of which also attracts punishment? |
Licence conditions |
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The licence mentioned relates to: |
Music, assemblies, processions |
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Who can grant such licence under this section? |
Specified police officers |
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Maximum punishment prescribed is: |
Fine up to ₹200 |
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Penalty can be imposed only after: |
Conviction before Magistrate |
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Section 32 aims primarily to: |
Maintain public order compliance |
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Which act would attract Section 32? |
Playing loud music contrary to licence terms |
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Section 32 applies to: |
Every person |
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Section 32-A empowers whom to prohibit mass drill with arms? |
District Magistrate |
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Prohibition may be issued for preservation of: |
Public peace and safety |
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“Arms” under this section includes: |
Offensive weapons like lathi or danda |
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Initial prohibition order may remain in force for: |
Three months |
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Further extension may be granted by: |
State Government |
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Maximum extension period allowed is: |
Six months |
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District Magistrate may rescind or alter order: |
Suo motu or on application |
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Who may also rescind or alter the order? |
State Government |
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Applicant against the order must be given: |
Opportunity of hearing |
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If application is rejected, authority must: |
Record reasons in writing |
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Section 32-B provides punishment for violation of: |
Section 32-A |
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Who is liable under Section 32-B? |
Any person contravening the prohibition |
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Maximum term of imprisonment under Section 32-B is: |
Six months |
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Maximum fine that may be imposed is: |
₹2,000 |
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Punishment may consist of: |
Both imprisonment and fine |
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Punishment can be imposed only: |
After conviction before a Magistrate |
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Section 32-B is primarily: |
Penal provision |
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Section 32-B ensures enforcement of: |
Preventive prohibition orders |
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Violation of Section 32-A prohibition may lead to: |
Criminal punishment |
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Section 33 is a: |
Saving clause |
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The control preserved under Section 33 is that of: |
District Magistrate |
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Section 33 applies to the last how many preceding sections: |
Four |
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The sections referred to primarily deal with: |
Regulation of assemblies and public order |
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Section 33 ensures that police powers are: |
Subject to Magistrate’s control |
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“General control” of the Magistrate means: |
Supervisory administrative control |
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Section 33 reflects: |
Civil executive control over police |
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Without Section 33, police authorities might: |
Act independently of district administration |
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Section 33 does NOT create: |
Any of the above |
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The primary objective of Section 33 is to: |
Preserve administrative hierarchy |
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Section 34 primarily deals with offences committed: |
On roads and public places |
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Maximum imprisonment under Section 34 is: |
8 days |
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Maximum fine under Section 34 is: |
₹50 |
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Police may arrest without warrant when the offence is: |
Committed in their view |
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Section 34 applies automatically to rural areas: |
No |
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Cruelty to animals in public place falls under which clause? |
Second |
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Street vending causing obstruction falls under: |
Fourth clause |
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A drunk person incapable of taking care of himself falls under: |
Sixth clause of Section 34 |
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Failure to fence a dangerous well is covered under: |
Eighth clause |
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Section 34 aims primarily to: |
Maintain public order and safety on streets |
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Section 34-A relates to: |
Compounding of certain offences |
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Offences under which sections may be compounded under Section 34-A? |
Sections 32 and 34 |
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Authority empowered to compound the offence: |
District Superintendent of Police |
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Compounding is subject to: |
State Government’s general or special order |
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Composition fee: |
Cannot exceed maximum fine for offence |
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If compounded before prosecution: |
Offender not liable to prosecution |
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If offender is in custody and offence compounded before prosecution: |
Must be released |
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Compounding after prosecution results in: |
Acquittal of offender |
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Section 34-A applies primarily to: |
Minor public order offences |
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Compared to BNSS compounding, Section 34-A compounding is done by: |
Police authority |
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Section 35 relates to: |
Jurisdiction over charges against police officers |
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Section 35 applies to police officers: |
Above the rank of constable |
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Charges under this Act against such officers shall be enquired into by: |
Officer exercising powers of a Magistrate |
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The term “only” in Section 35 indicates: |
Exclusive jurisdiction |
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Which of the following is NOT covered by Section 35? |
Constable |
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Purpose of the provision is primarily to: |
Ensure fair adjudication for higher officers |
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Proceedings conducted by a non-magisterial authority under this section would be: |
Invalid |
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Section 35 applies to offences under: |
Police Act |
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An Executive Magistrate empowered by law can act under Section 35: |
Yes |
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Section 35 creates: |
Special statutory jurisdiction |
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Section 36 primarily deals with: |
Prosecution under other laws |
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Under Section 36, prosecution under another law for the same act is: |
Allowed |
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Another law may impose: |
Higher punishment |
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The proviso to Section 36 embodies the rule against: |
Double jeopardy |
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“No person shall be punished twice for the same offence” corresponds to: |
Article 20(2) |
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Section 36 ensures that the Police Act is: |
Not exclusive in operation |
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If an act is punishable under both Police Act and IPC(BNS): |
Either law may apply |
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Double punishment for the same offence is: |
Prohibited |
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Section 36 is an example of a: |
Saving clause |
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Liability under other Acts is: |
Preserved by Section 36 |
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Section 37 deals with: |
Recovery of fines and penalties |
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Fines under the Police Act are recoverable using provisions of: |
Indian Penal Code (BNS) and Criminal Procedure Code (BNSS) |
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Sections 64–70 IPC (8(1) – 8(7)) relate to: |
Imprisonment in default of fine and recovery of fine |
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CrPC (BNSS) provisions applied relate to: |
Recovery of fines |
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The proviso to Section 37 applies specifically to fines under: |
Section 34 |
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Default imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 34 may extend up to: |
8 days |
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Section 37 illustrates the principle that: |
Special law overrides general law |
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Recovery of fines under Section 37 is done by: |
Magistrate using criminal law procedure |
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Section 37 ensures: |
Uniform enforcement of penalties |
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Section 42 prescribes limitation for actions under the Police Act as: |
3 months |
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The limitation period runs from: |
Date of act complained of |
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Prior notice before filing action must be given at least: |
1 month |
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Notice may be given to: |
Defendant or District Superintendent of Police of the concerned district |
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Tender of amends means: |
Offer of compensation |
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If sufficient amends are tendered before suit: |
Plaintiff cannot recover damages |
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If money is paid into court after suit: |
Plaintiff generally not entitled to costs |
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Civil action is barred if officer has already been: |
Criminally prosecuted for same act |
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Section 42 protects acts: |
Done under Police Act or general police powers |
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The section primarily aims to: |
Protect bona fide official acts from vexatious litigation |
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Section 43 allows a police officer to plead that the act was done: |
Under authority of a Magistrate’s warrant |
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To prove the plea, the officer must produce: |
Warrant directing the act |
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If warrant is produced, the officer is entitled to: |
Decree in his favour |
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Protection applies even if: |
Magistrate lacked jurisdiction |
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Proof of Magistrate’s signature is: |
Not required unless court doubts genuineness |
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Section 43 protects: |
Police officers acting under warrant |
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Remedy of the aggrieved person lies against: |
Authority issuing the warrant |
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Section 43 is based on the principle that: |
Obedience to judicial orders protects subordinate officers |
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The section applies to acts done: |
In official capacity |
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Main object of Section 43 is to: |
Protect officers executing court orders |
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Section 44 requires maintenance of a: |
General diary |
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Duty to maintain the diary lies on: |
Officer-in-charge of police station |
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Form of the diary is prescribed by: |
State Government |
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The diary must record: |
Complaints, arrests, offences, seized property and witnesses |
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Which authority may inspect the diary? |
District Magistrate |
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The diary serves primarily to ensure: |
Transparency and accountability |
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Names of witnesses examined must be: |
Recorded in the diary |
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General Diary differs from FIR because: |
FIR records specific cognizable offence; GD records daily activities |
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Failure to maintain such diary may affect: |
Police credibility and accountability |
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Section 44 reflects: |
Executive oversight through Magistracy |
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Section 45 empowers the: |
State Government |
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The State Government may require submission of returns from: |
Director-General-cum-Inspector-General and other police officers |
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“Returns” refers to: |
Official reports and statements |
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The form of such returns is prescribed by: |
State Government |
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Submission of returns under Section 45 is: |
As directed by State Government |
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This provision reflects: |
Executive administrative control over police |
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Returns may include: |
Crime statistics and reports |
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Section 45 applies to: |
All police officers as directed |
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The power under this section is: |
Administrative |
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Purpose of requiring returns is primarily: |
Administrative supervision |
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The Police Act, 1861 comes into force in a State or place: |
By notification of the State Government in Official Gazette |
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Under Section 46, the State Government may extend: |
Either the whole Act or any part of it |
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Rules under Section 46 must be: |
Consistent with the Act |
|
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Which authority has power to make rules under Section 46? |
State Government |
|
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Rules framed under Section 46 may be: |
Amended or cancelled by the State Government |
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Section 46 primarily relates to: |
Territorial application and rule-making |
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Section 47 concerns authority over: |
Village police |
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The authority may be transferred from District Magistrate to: |
District Superintendent of Police |
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Transfer of authority occurs through: |
State Government declaration |
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Even after transfer, SP acts: |
Subject to general control of District Magistrate |
|
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The provision applies to: |
Village watchmen and village police officers |
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Section 47 reflects: |
Magisterial supervision over police |
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The declaration under this section is made by: |
State Government |
|
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Authority transferred relates to: |
Police purposes |
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Village police officers primarily include: |
Village watchmen |
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Section 47 aims at: |
Enhancing administrative control over village policing |
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