1. Applicant against the order must be given:
a. Compensation
b. Written apology
c. Opportunity of hearing
d. Jury trial
2. If application is rejected, authority must:
a. Inform police only
b. Issue fresh order
c. Record reasons in writing
d. Seek court approval
3. Section 32-B provides punishment for violation of:
a. Section 30
b. Section 31
c. Section 32-A
d. Section 33
4. Who is liable under Section 32-B?
a. Only organizers
b. Only police officers
c. Any person contravening the prohibition
d. Only government servants
5. Maximum term of imprisonment under Section 32-B is:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
6. Maximum fine that may be imposed is:
a. ₹500
b. ₹1,000
c. ₹2,000
d. ₹5,000
7. Punishment may consist of:
a. Imprisonment only
b. Fine only
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. Any of the above
8. Punishment can be imposed only:
a. By police authority
b. By District Magistrate without trial
c. After conviction before a Magistrate
d. By executive order
9. Section 32-B is primarily:
a. Administrative provision
b. Civil liability provision
c. Penal provision
d. Procedural provision
10. Section 32-B ensures enforcement of:
a. Licensing provisions
b. Preventive prohibition orders
c. Property laws
d. Revenue laws
11. Violation of Section 32-A prohibition may lead to:
a. Dismissal from service
b. Civil damages only
c. Criminal punishment
d. Warning only
12. Section 33 is a:
a. Penal provision
b. Licensing provision
c. Saving clause
d. Procedural provision
13. The control preserved under Section 33 is that of:
a. State Government
b. High Court
c. District Magistrate
d. Superintendent of Police
14. Section 33 applies to the last how many preceding sections?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
15. The sections referred to primarily deal with:
a. Police recruitment
b. Regulation of assemblies and public order
c. Property disputes
d. Criminal trials
16. Section 33 ensures that police powers are:
a. Absolute
b. Judicial
c. Subject to Magistrate’s control
d. Subject to Parliament’s approval
17. “General control” of the Magistrate means:
a. Only judicial control
b. Only financial control
c. Supervisory administrative control
d. No real control
18. Section 33 reflects:
a. Separation of powers doctrine
b. Military command structure
c. Civil executive control over police
d. Federal supremacy
19. Without Section 33, police authorities might:
a. Lose all powers
b. Become subordinate to courts
c. Act independently of district administration
d. Have no duties
20. Section 33 does NOT create:
a. New offences
b. Punishment
c. Civil liability
d. Any of the above
21. The primary objective of Section 33 is to:
a. Increase police autonomy
b. Preserve administrative hierarchy
c. Regulate elections
d. Control revenue
22. Section 34 primarily deals with offences committed:
a. Inside houses
b. On roads and public places
c. In courts
d. In government offices
23. Maximum imprisonment under Section 34 is:
a. 3 months
b. 1 month
c. 8 days
d. 6 months
24. Maximum fine under Section 34 is:
a. ₹100
b. ₹200
c. ₹500
d. ₹50
25. Police may arrest without warrant when the offence is:
a. Reported later
b. Suspected only
c. Committed in their view
d. Certified by Magistrate
26. Section 34 applies automatically to rural areas:
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only during emergencies
d. Only during festivals
27. Cruelty to animals in public place falls under which clause?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth
28. Street vending causing obstruction falls under:
a. Third clause
b. Fourth clause
c. Fifth clause
d. Sixth clause
29. A drunk person incapable of taking care of himself falls under:
a. Public nuisance only under BNS
b. Sixth clause of Section 34
c. No offence
d. Special Police Act provision
30. Failure to fence a dangerous well is covered under:
a. Seventh clause
b. Eighth clause
c. Third clause
d. Fifth clause
31. Section 34 aims primarily to:
a. Punish serious crimes
b. Maintain public order and safety on streets
c. Regulate property disputes
d. Control police recruitment
32. Section 34-A relates to:
a. Punishment of offences
b. Compounding of certain offences
c. Appointment of police officers
d. Public assemblies
33. Offences under which sections may be compounded under Section 34-A?
a. Sections 30 and 31
b. Sections 31 and 32
c. Sections 32 and 34
d. Sections 34 and 35
34. Authority empowered to compound the offence:
a. District Magistrate
b. Judicial Magistrate
c. District Superintendent of Police
d. State Government directly
35. Compounding is subject to:
a. Court approval only
b. Consent of complainant
c. State Government’s general or special order
d. Police officer’s discretion alone
36. Composition fee:
a. Unlimited
b. Fixed by court
c. Cannot exceed maximum fine for offence
d. Must equal the fine
37. If compounded before prosecution:
a. Offender still prosecuted
b. Case goes to court
c. Offender not liable to prosecution
d. Only fine imposed
38. If offender is in custody and offence compounded before prosecution:
a. Custody continues
b. Must be released
c. Sent to Magistrate
d. Bail required
39. Compounding after prosecution results in:
a. Conviction
b. Withdrawal of case only
c. Acquittal of offender
d. Remand
40. Section 34-A applies primarily to:
a. Serious crimes
b. Civil disputes
c. Minor public order offences
d. Police misconduct
41. Compared to BNSS compounding, Section 34-A compounding is done by:
a. Court only
b. Victim only
c. Police authority
d. Jury
42. Section 35 relates to:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Jurisdiction over charges against police officers
c. Public assemblies
d. Police discipline rules
43. Section 35 applies to police officers:
a. Of all ranks
b. Only constables
c. Above the rank of constable
d. Only gazetted officers
44. Charges under this Act against such officers shall be enquired into by:
a. Superintendent of Police
b. State Government
c. Departmental authority
d. Officer exercising powers of a Magistrate
45. The term “only” in Section 35 indicates:
a. Optional procedure
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. Advisory guideline
d. Administrative convenience
46. Which of the following is NOT covered by Section 35?
a. Inspector
b. Sub-Inspector
c. Head Constable
d. Constable
47. Purpose of the provision is primarily to:
a. Increase police powers
b. Protect public order
c. Ensure fair adjudication for higher officers
d. Reduce court workload
48. Proceedings conducted by a non-magisterial authority under this section would be:
a. Valid
b. Voidable only
c. Invalid
d. Automatically confirmed
49. Section 35 applies to offences under:
a. BNS
b. BNSS
c. Police Act
d. BSA
50. An Executive Magistrate empowered by law can act under Section 35:
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only with court permission
d. Only in emergencies
51. Section 35 creates:
a. Administrative jurisdiction
b. Civil jurisdiction
c. Criminal jurisdiction
d. Special statutory jurisdiction
52. Section 36 primarily deals with:
a. Police discipline
b. Jurisdiction of Magistrates
c. Prosecution under other laws
d. Appointment of officers
53. Under Section 36, prosecution under another law for the same act is:
a. Prohibited
b. Allowed
c. Allowed only with court permission
d. Allowed only if Police Act silent
54. Another law may impose:
a. Only lesser punishment
b. Same punishment only
c. Higher punishment
d. No punishment
55. The proviso to Section 36 embodies the rule against:
a. Retrospective punishment
b. Self-incrimination
c. Double jeopardy
d. Preventive detention
56. “No person shall be punished twice for the same offence” corresponds to:
a. Article 19
b. Article 20(2)
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
57. Section 36 ensures that the Police Act is:
a. A complete code excluding other laws
b. Subordinate to IPC (BNS)
c. Not exclusive in operation
d. Applicable only to police personnel
58. If an act is punishable under both Police Act and IPC (BNS):
a. Only Police Act applies
b. Only IPC(BNS) applies
c. Either law may apply
d. No prosecution possible
59. Double punishment for the same offence is:
a. Mandatory
b. Permissible
c. Prohibited
d. Allowed in serious cases
60. Section 36 is an example of a:
a. Penal provision
b. Procedural provision
c. Saving clause
d. Rule-making provision
61. Liability under other Acts is:
a. Extinguished by Police Act
b. Preserved by Section 36
c. Subject to police approval
d. Limited to civil liability
62. Section 37 deals with:
a. Appointment of police officers
b. Recovery of fines and penalties
c. Public assemblies
d. Police discipline
63. Fines under the Police Act are recoverable using provisions of:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Indian Penal Code (BNS) and Criminal Procedure Code (BNSS)
c. Evidence Act
d. Constitution
64. Sections 64–70 IPC (8(1) – 8(7)) relate to:
a. Arrest
b. Bail
c. Imprisonment in default of fine and recovery of fine
d. Evidence
65. CrPC (BNSS) provisions applied relate to:
a. Trial procedure
b. Recovery of fines
c. Appeals only
d. Preventive detention
66. The proviso to Section 37 applies specifically to fines under:
a. Section 29
b. Section 30
c. Section 32
d. Section 34
67. Default imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 34 may extend up to:
a. 3 days
b. 8 days
c. 15 days
d. 1 month
68. Section 37 illustrates the principle that:
a. Criminal law is retrospective
b. Special law overrides general law
c. Police powers are unlimited
d. Magistrate has no role
69. Recovery of fines under Section 37 is done by:
a. Police only
b. Civil court
c. Magistrate using criminal law procedure
d. State Government only
70. Section 37 ensures:
a. Creation of new offences
b. Uniform enforcement of penalties
c. Removal of judicial oversight
d. Immunity from prosecution
71. Section 42 prescribes limitation for actions under the Police Act as:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
72. The limitation period runs from:
a. Date of knowledge
b. Date of FIR
c. Date of act complained of
d. Date of arrest
73. Prior notice before filing action must be given at least:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
74. Notice may be given to:
a. District Magistrate only
b. Superintendent of Police of any district
c. Defendant or District Superintendent of Police of the concerned district
d. Home Ministry
75. Tender of amends means:
a. Admission of guilt
b. Offer of compensation
c. Withdrawal of action
d. Criminal apology
76. If sufficient amends are tendered before suit:
a. Suit must proceed normally
b. Plaintiff cannot recover damages
c. Defendant must still pay costs
d. Suit converts into criminal case
77. If money is paid into court after suit:
a. Suit automatically dismissed
b. Plaintiff still entitled to costs
c. Plaintiff generally not entitled to costs
d. Defendant discharged from liability
78. Civil action is barred if officer has already been:
a. Suspended
b. Departmentally punished
c. Criminally prosecuted for same act
d. Transferred
79. Section 42 protects acts:
a. Done in private capacity
b. Done under Police Act or general police powers
c. Done outside jurisdiction
d. Done after retirement
80. The section primarily aims to:
a. Punish police officers
b. Restrict civil courts
c. Protect bona fide official acts from vexatious litigation
d. Increase compensation claims
81. Section 43 allows a police officer to plead that the act was done:
a. Under departmental orders
b. Under executive instructions
c. Under authority of a Magistrate’s warrant
d. Under public necessity
82. To prove the plea, the officer must produce:
a. FIR copy
b. Charge sheet
c. Warrant directing the act
d. Departmental file
83. If warrant is produced, the officer is entitled to:
a. Bail
b. Discharge only
c. Decree in his favour
d. Departmental inquiry
84. Protection applies even if:
a. Officer acted negligently
b. Magistrate lacked jurisdiction
c. Officer acted privately
d. Warrant unsigned
85. Proof of Magistrate’s signature is:
a. Always required
b. Required only in criminal cases
c. Not required unless court doubts genuineness
d. Required if challenged by plaintiff
86. Section 43 protects:
a. Magistrates only
b. Police officers acting under warrant
c. All government servants
d. Private citizens assisting police
87. Remedy of the aggrieved person lies against:
a. State Government only
b. Police Department
c. Authority issuing the warrant
d. No one
88. Section 43 is based on the principle that:
a. Ignorance of law is excuse
b. Obedience to judicial orders protects subordinate officers
c. Police have absolute immunity
d. Warrants override Constitution
89. The section applies to acts done:
a. In private capacity
b. After retirement
c. In official capacity
d. Outside jurisdiction only
90. Main object of Section 43 is to:
a. Punish illegal arrests
b. Protect officers executing court orders
c. Empower Magistrates
d. Limit police powers
91. Section 44 requires maintenance of a:
a. Case diary
b. Crime register
c. General diary
d. Arrest memo
92. Duty to maintain the diary lies on:
a. District Superintendent of Police
b. Every police constable
c. Officer-in-charge of police station
d. Magistrate
93. Form of the diary is prescribed by:
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. District Magistrate
94. The diary must record:
a. Only cognizable offences
b. Only FIRs
c. Complaints, arrests, offences, seized property and witnesses
d. Only court orders
95. Which authority may inspect the diary?
a. Sessions Judge
b. District Magistrate
c. Governor
d. Home Secretary
96. The diary serves primarily to ensure:
a. Revenue collection
b. Police training
c. Transparency and accountability
d. Criminal prosecution only
97. Names of witnesses examined must be:
a. Recorded in the diary
b. Sent only to court
c. Kept confidential
d. Recorded only in FIR
98. General Diary differs from FIR because:
a. FIR records specific cognizable offence; GD records daily activities
b. FIR is secret
c. GD is judicial order
d. No difference
99. Failure to maintain such diary may affect:
a. Validity of police station
b. Police credibility and accountability
c. Jurisdiction of court
d. Appointment of officers
100. Section 44 reflects:
a. Judicial control over police
b. Legislative supremacy
c. Executive oversight through Magistracy
d. Police autonomy
101. Section 45 empowers the:
a. High Court
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. District Magistrate
102. The State Government may require submission of returns from:
a. Only constables
b. Only District Magistrate
c. Director-General-cum-Inspector-General and other police officers
d. Courts
103. “Returns” refers to:
a. Appeals filed in court
b. Official reports and statements
c. Salary records only
d. FIR copies only
104. The form of such returns is prescribed by:
a. High Court
b. Police Headquarters
c. State Government
d. Legislature
105. Submission of returns under Section 45 is:
a. Mandatory for citizens
b. Optional for police officers
c. As directed by State Government
d. Required only during emergencies
106. This provision reflects:
a. Judicial control
b. Legislative supremacy
c. Executive administrative control over police
d. Federal conflict
107. Returns may include:
a. Crime statistics and reports
b. Judicial judgments
c. Tax returns
d. Personal diaries
108. Section 45 applies to:
a. Only senior officers
b. Only district police
c. All police officers as directed
d. Armed forces
109. The power under this section is:
a. Judicial
b. Legislative
c. Administrative
d. Quasi-judicial
110. Purpose of requiring returns is primarily:
a. Punishment of officers
b. Administrative supervision
c. Conducting trials
d. Granting promotions
111. The Police Act, 1861 comes into force in a State or place:
a. Automatically upon enactment
b. By order of the District Magistrate
c. By notification of the State Government in Official Gazette
d. By order of the Director-General of Police
112. Under Section 46, the State Government may extend:
a. Only the entire Act
b. Only selected sections
c. Either the whole Act or any part of it
d. Only procedural provisions
113. Rules under Section 46 must be:
a. Approved by the High Court
b. Consistent with the Act
c. Approved by Parliament
d. Made by the DGP
114. Which authority has power to make rules under Section 46?
a. District Magistrate
b. Director-General of Police
c. State Government
d. Central Government
115. Rules framed under Section 46 may be:
a. Permanent and unchangeable
b. Amended or cancelled by the State Government
c. Reviewed only by courts
d. Applicable only for five years
116. Section 46 primarily relates to:
a. Discipline of police officers
b. Appointment of police personnel
c. Territorial application and rule-making
d. Criminal procedure
117. Section 47 concerns authority over:
a. City police
b. Military forces
c. Village police
d. Traffic police
118. The authority may be transferred from District Magistrate to:
a. Governor
b. District Superintendent of Police
c. Chief Minister
d. Inspector General only
119. Transfer of authority occurs through:
a. Court order
b. Parliamentary law
c. State Government declaration
d. Police regulation
120. Even after transfer, SP acts:
a. Independently
b. Under Central Government
c. Subject to general control of District Magistrate
d. Under village headman
121. The provision applies to:
a. All public servants
b. Judicial officers
c. Village watchmen and village police officers
d. Municipal employees
122. Section 47 reflects:
a. Separation of powers
b. Pure police autonomy
c. Magisterial supervision over police
d. Military control of police
123. The declaration under this section is made by:
a. District Magistrate
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Central Government
124. Authority transferred relates to:
a. Revenue functions
b. Police purposes
c. Judicial trials
d. Civil administration
125. Village police officers primarily include:
a. Judges
b. Constables only
c. Village watchmen
d. Lawyers
126. Section 47 aims at:
a. Abolishing village police
b. Enhancing administrative control over village policing
c. Creating new courts
d. Fixing police salaries