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1. “Delivery up” means:
a. Producing the instrument before court
b. Registering the instrument
c. Executing the instrument
d. Destroying the instrument automatically
2. Cancellation of an instrument results in:
a. Enforceability
b. Invalidity of the document
c. Registration
d. Arbitration
3. If the cancelled instrument was registered, the court must:
a. Destroy it
b. Send decree copy to registering officer
c. Register new instrument
d. Inform government
4. The decree copy is sent to:
a. District judge
b. Registration officer
c. Government authority
d. Police officer
5. The registering officer must:
a. Cancel the instrument physically
b. Note cancellation in his records
c. File criminal case
d. Destroy the document
6. Section 32 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Rectification of instruments
b. Cancellation of instruments
c. Partial cancellation of instruments
d. Specific performance
7. Section 32 allows the court to:
a. Cancel the entire instrument only
b. Cancel an instrument partly
c. Modify contracts
d. Enforce agreements
8. Partial cancellation is allowed where the instrument contains:
a. One right only
b. One obligation only
c. Different rights or obligations
d. Criminal liability
9. Section 32 applies to:
a. Oral agreements
b. Written instruments
c. Arbitration awards
d. Criminal orders
10. The court may cancel the instrument:
a. Fully only
b. Partially
c. Automatically
d. By government order
11. Partial cancellation is allowed in:
a. Every case
b. Proper case
c. Criminal case
d. Government case
12. The power to partially cancel an instrument lies with:
a. Arbitrator
b. Civil Court
c. Government
d. Police
13. The court may allow the remaining part of the instrument to:
a. Become void
b. Stand valid
c. Be registered again
d. Be cancelled
14. Partial cancellation is possible when the instrument is evidence of:
a. Single right
b. Multiple rights
c. Criminal liability
d. Arbitration agreement
15. Partial cancellation is also possible when the instrument creates:
a. Single obligation
b. Different obligations
c. No obligations
d. Criminal duties
16. The part not cancelled is called:
a. Void part
b. Residue
c. Invalid portion
d. Illegal portion
17. After partial cancellation:
a. Entire instrument becomes void
b. Only the cancelled part becomes void
c. Instrument becomes illegal
d. Arbitration begins
18. The remaining portion of the instrument:
a. Remains enforceable
b. Becomes void
c. Requires new registration
d. Must be cancelled
19. Section 32 prevents:
a. Complete destruction of valid rights
b. Enforcement of contracts
c. Arbitration disputes
d. Government control
20. Section 32 is based on the principle of:
a. Severability
b. Res judicata
c. Caveat emptor
d. Estoppel
21. The doctrine of severability means:
a. Entire contract becomes void
b. Invalid portion may be separated from valid portion
c. Contract must be rewritten
d. Arbitration must be used
22. Section 33 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Rectification of instruments
b. Restoration of benefits or compensation when instrument is cancelled
c. Preventive relief
d. Injunction
23. Section 33 applies when:
a. Contract is performed
b. Instrument is cancelled or resisted as void or voidable
c. Arbitration begins
d. Contract is executed
24. The main objective of Section 33 is:
a. Punishment
b. Equitable adjustment between parties
c. Criminal liability
d. Contract enforcement
25. Section 33 reflects the equitable principle:
a. Res judicata
b. He who seeks equity must do equity
c. Caveat emptor
d. Res ipsa loquitur
26. When the court adjudges cancellation of an instrument, it may require:
a. Destruction of instrument
b. Restoration of benefit received
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Arbitration
27. Restoration must be made by:
a. Plaintiff only
b. Party to whom relief is granted
c. Government
d. Arbitrator
28. Restoration of benefit must be done:
a. Completely
b. So far as may be
c. Not required
d. Automatically
29. The court may also require payment of:
a. Penalty
b. Compensation
c. Fine
d. Court fee
30. Compensation is ordered when:
a. Justice requires
b. Plaintiff demands
c. Government directs
d. Arbitrator orders
31. Section 33(2) applies where:
a. Plaintiff wins suit
b. Defendant successfully resists suit
c. Arbitration award exists
d. Contract is executed
32. A defendant may resist the suit by proving the instrument is:
a. Valid
b. Voidable
c. Registered
d. Executed
33. Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Injunctions
b. Declaratory decrees
c. Specific performance
d. Rectification
34. Under Section 34, a person may file a suit for:
a. Damages
b. Declaration of legal character or right to property
c. Criminal action
d. Arbitration
35. The court may declare:
a. Criminal liability
b. Legal character or right to property
c. Contract price
d. Court fees
36. The relief under Section 34 is:
a. Mandatory
b. Discretionary
c. Criminal
d. Automatic
37. A declaratory decree determines:
a. Possession
b. Legal status or rights of parties
c. Damages
d. Penalty
38. A suit under Section 34 may be filed by:
a. Any person entitled to legal character
b. Only government
c. Only owner
d. Arbitrator
39. A person may sue when his:
a. Legal character is denied
b. Property right is denied
c. Both A and B
d. Contract is executed
40. The defendant in a declaratory suit must be a person:
a. Interested to deny plaintiff’s title
b. Government officer only
c. Arbitrator
d. Registrar
41. A declaratory suit can be filed against a person:
a. Denying plaintiff’s right
b. Interested in denying such right
c. Both A and B
d. None
42. Section 34 allows declaration relating to:
a. Legal character
b. Property rights
c. Both A and B
d. Criminal liability
43. In a declaratory suit the plaintiff:
a. Must claim damages
b. Need not seek further relief
c. Must seek injunction
d. Must claim possession
44. The explanation to Section 34 refers to:
a. Executor
b. Trustee
c. Arbitrator
d. Registrar
45. A trustee is considered:
a. Person interested to deny title
b. Government authority
c. Arbitrator
d. Registrar
46. Section 35 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:
a. Injunctions
b. Effect of declaratory decrees
c. Specific performance
d. Rectification
47. A declaration under this Chapter is binding on:
a. Only the plaintiff
b. Only the defendant
c. Parties to the suit and persons claiming through them
d. General public
48. If a party to the suit is a trustee, the declaration is binding on:
a. All beneficiaries automatically
b. Persons for whom the trustee is trustee at the date of declaration
c. Government officials
d. Arbitrators
49. Declaratory decree binds:
a. Only the parties filing suit
b. Parties, successors, and claimants through them
c. All persons in the locality
d. Central Government
50. A person claiming through a party to the suit:
a. Is bound by the declaration
b. Can ignore the declaration
c. Must file a separate suit
d. Cannot be affected
51. The effect of declaration under Section 35 is:
a. Universal
b. Binding only on parties and persons claiming through them
c. Only advisory
d. Automatically enforceable against the public
52. Section 35 is applicable to:
a. Injunction suits
b. Declaratory suits
c. Criminal proceedings
d. Arbitration only
53. Trustees are bound by the declaration for:
a. Past beneficiaries only
b. Beneficiaries in existence at the date of declaration
c. Future beneficiaries
d. None of the above
54. A declaratory decree does not bind:
a. Parties to the suit
b. Persons claiming under parties
c. General public or unrelated third parties
d. Trustees of beneficiaries
55. Successors claiming through a party to the suit are:
a. Bound by the declaration
b. Not bound
c. Must file separate suit
d. Can ignore the suit
56. The binding effect of Section 35 ensures:
a. Multiplicity of suits
b. Certainty in rights among parties and their successors
c. Criminal liability
d. Automatic property transfer
57. Section 36 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:
a. Declaratory relief
b. Preventive relief
c. Recovery of immovable property
d. Rectification of instruments
58. Preventive relief is granted:
a. As a matter of right
b. Only in criminal cases
c. At the discretion of the court
d. By the government
59. Preventive relief is usually granted in the form of:
a. Monetary compensation
b. Injunction
c. Rectification of instrument
d. Transfer of property
60. Which types of injunctions can be granted under Section 36?
a. Temporary only
b. Perpetual only
c. Temporary or perpetual
d. Criminal injunctions only
61. Preventive relief under Section 36 is:
a. Mandatory in every case
b. Discretionary with the court
c. Only for contracts
d. Only for immovable property
62. The primary purpose of preventive relief is to:
a. Recover property
b. Prevent a threatened wrong
c. Award damages
d. Enforce criminal law
63. A temporary injunction is granted:
a. For the entire duration of the contract
b. For a limited period pending trial
c. As a final relief
d. Only after decree
64. A perpetual injunction is granted:
a. Only before trial
b. As a final order to prevent continuing or future wrong
c. Only for movable property
d. Only against government
65. Preventive relief may be granted against:
a. Actual breach only
b. Threatened or apprehended breach
c. Government only
d. Only contracts for immovable property
66. Section 36 gives the court power to:
a. Enforce specific performance
b. Award compensation only
c. Grant injunction to prevent a wrong
d. Cancel an instrument
67. Preventive relief is not granted as:
a. Matter of right
b. Injunction
c. Temporary or perpetual measure
d. Discretionary measure
68. The nature of preventive relief under Section 36 is:
a. Remedial
b. Compensatory
c. Preventive
d. Punitive
69. Which of the following is true regarding preventive relief?
a. Always granted to plaintiff automatically
b. Court must consider discretion and circumstances
c. Only granted after breach occurs
d. Applicable only in criminal matters
70. The court may grant preventive relief in the form of injunction when:
a. There is a threatened violation of legal rights
b. A contract has been fully performed
c. There is no dispute
d. Only for movable property
71. Section 36 is applicable to:
a. Only contracts
b. Only movable property disputes
c. Any threatened legal wrong
d. Criminal proceedings
72. The discretionary nature of preventive relief means:
a. Plaintiff always gets injunction
b. Court evaluates facts, law, and equities before granting relief
c. Injunction must be perpetual
d. Injunction cannot be temporary
73. Temporary injunction is granted primarily to:
a. Punish the defendant
b. Preserve status quo during trial
c. Award damages
d. Transfer property
74. Perpetual injunction is granted primarily to:
a. Award compensation
b. Prevent future or continuing wrong
c. Restore possession temporarily
d. Avoid filing of suit
75. Temporary injunctions are such as are to continue until:
a. A specific time or further order of the court
b. Decree of appellate court
c. Filing of written statement
d. Completion of evidence
76. Temporary injunctions may be granted:
a. Only before filing of suit
b. Only after decree
c. At any stage of a suit
d. Only at the time of judgment
77. Temporary injunctions are regulated by:
a. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Indian Penal Code
c. Evidence Act
d. Limitation Act
78. Temporary injunctions continue until:
a. Filing of appeal
b. Specific time or further order of the court
c. Completion of trial
d. Admission of plaint
79. Perpetual injunction can be granted only by:
a. Interim order
b. Decree made at the hearing
c. Police order
d. Executive order
80. Perpetual injunction is granted:
a. At the filing of suit
b. At the hearing and upon the merits of the suit
c. At interim stage
d. Before notice
81. A perpetual injunction restrains the defendant from:
a. Filing written statement
b. Assertion of a right contrary to plaintiff's rights
c. Filing appeal
d. Filing review
82. A perpetual injunction may be granted to:
a. Defendant
b. Plaintiff
c. Witness
d. Arbitrator
83. A perpetual injunction may be granted to prevent:
a. Breach of an obligation existing in plaintiff’s favour
b. Filing of suit
c. Filing of appeal
d. Criminal prosecution
84. Obligation for granting perpetual injunction may exist:
a. Expressly
b. By implication
c. Both expressly or by implication
d. Only by written agreement
85. When obligation arises from contract, the court shall be guided by:
a. Chapter II
b. Chapter III
c. Code of Civil Procedure
d. Indian Contract Act only
86. Perpetual injunction may be granted when the defendant:
a. Invades plaintiff’s right to property
b. Files appeal
c. Files review
d. Files written statement
87. Perpetual injunction may be granted where the defendant is:
a. Trustee of the property for the plaintiff
b. Tenant of the plaintiff
c. Witness of the plaintiff
d. Advocate of the plaintiff
88. Perpetual injunction may be granted where there exists:
a. No standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused
b. Adequate compensation
c. Criminal liability
d. Arbitration clause
89. Perpetual injunction may be granted where:
a. Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
b. Compensation is adequate
c. Criminal liability exists
d. Police investigation exists
90. Perpetual injunction may be granted where injunction is necessary to prevent:
a. Multiplicity of judicial proceedings
b. Appeal proceedings
c. Criminal proceedings
d. Arbitration proceedings
91. Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Temporary injunction
b. Perpetual injunction
c. Mandatory injunction
d. Declaratory decree
92. A mandatory injunction is granted to prevent:
a. Breach of an obligation
b. Filing of appeal
c. Institution of suit
d. Criminal prosecution
93. Mandatory injunction compels the:
a. Performance of certain acts
b. Payment of damages
c. Filing of appeal
d. Filing of written statement
94. Mandatory injunction may be granted when the court is capable of:
a. Enforcing the act
b. Filing appeal
c. Passing criminal order
d. Conducting investigation
95. The court may grant mandatory injunction:
a. As a matter of right
b. In its discretion
c. By police order
d. By executive order
96. Mandatory injunction may compel:
a. Performance of requisite acts
b. Payment of penalty
c. Filing of appeal
d. Filing of revision
97. Mandatory injunction is granted to:
a. Prevent breach of an obligation
b. Grant damages
c. Punish defendant
d. Enforce criminal law
98. Mandatory injunction may be granted when:
a. Court is capable of enforcing the act
b. Police investigate the act
c. Criminal liability arises
d. Appeal is pending
99. Mandatory injunction compels the defendant to:
a. Do a particular act
b. Pay damages
c. File appeal
d. File written statement
100. Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Temporary injunction
b. Damages in lieu of or in addition to injunction
c. Mandatory injunction
d. Declaratory decree
101. Under Section 40, the plaintiff may claim damages in a suit for:
a. Temporary injunction
b. Perpetual injunction under Section 38
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Appeal
102. Under Section 40, damages may also be claimed in a suit for:
a. Mandatory injunction under Section 39
b. Temporary injunction
c. Appeal
d. Revision
103. Damages under Section 40 may be claimed:
a. In addition to injunction
b. In substitution for injunction
c. In addition to or in substitution for injunction
d. Only in substitution for injunction
104. The power to award damages under Section 40 lies with the:
a. Court
b. Police authority
c. Executive authority
d. Arbitrator
105. The court may award damages under Section 40:
a. As a matter of right
b. If it thinks fit
c. Only on appeal
d. Only on review
106. Relief for damages shall not be granted unless:
a. The plaintiff has claimed such relief in his plaint
b. The defendant agrees
c. The police approve
d. The government approves
107. If damages are not claimed in the plaint, the court may:
a. Reject the suit
b. Dismiss the claim permanently
c. Allow amendment of the plaint
d. Transfer the suit
108. The court may allow amendment of plaint for claiming damages:
a. Only at the filing stage
b. Only before trial
c. At any stage of the proceedings
d. Only after decree
109. Amendment of plaint under Section 40 may be allowed on:
a. Terms as may be just
b. Police approval
c. Government approval
d. Consent of defendant
110. If a suit to prevent breach of obligation is dismissed:
a. Plaintiff may still sue for damages
b. Plaintiff’s right to sue for damages is barred
c. Defendant must pay damages
d. Appeal is barred
111. The dismissal of a suit to prevent breach of obligation bars the right to sue for:
a. Damages for such breach
b. Appeal
c. Revision
d. Review
112. Section 40 applies in suits for:
a. Perpetual injunction
b. Mandatory injunction
c. Perpetual injunction and mandatory injunction
d. Temporary injunction
113. Damages may be claimed by the:
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Witness
d. Arbitrator
114. Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Temporary injunction
b. Mandatory injunction
c. Injunction when refused
d. Declaratory decree
115. An injunction cannot be granted to restrain:
a. Prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit
b. Execution of decree
c. Filing of written statement
d. Filing of appeal
116. Injunction may be granted to restrain pending judicial proceedings only when necessary to prevent:
a. Criminal liability
b. Multiplicity of proceedings
c. Appeal
d. Review
117. An injunction cannot be granted to restrain a person from instituting proceedings in a court:
a. Subordinate to the court granting injunction
b. Not subordinate to the court granting injunction
c. Same court
d. Tribunal only
118. Injunction cannot be granted to restrain any person from applying to:
a. Executive authority
b. Legislative body
c. Court
d. Arbitrator
119. Injunction cannot be granted to restrain proceedings in:
a. Civil matter
b. Criminal matter
c. Arbitration
d. Administrative tribunal
120. Injunction cannot be granted to prevent breach of contract where the performance:
a. Can be specifically enforced
b. Would not be specifically enforced
c. Is lawful
d. Is conditional
121. Injunction cannot be granted to prevent an act on the ground of nuisance when:
a. It is certain nuisance
b. It is clearly nuisance
c. It is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance
d. It is proven nuisance
122. Injunction cannot be granted to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has:
a. Objected
b. Acquiesced
c. Protested
d. Appealed
123. Injunction cannot be granted when equally efficacious relief can be obtained by:
a. Any other usual mode of proceeding
b. Appeal
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Arbitration
124. Exception to the rule of equally efficacious remedy exists in case of:
a. Breach of trust
b. Breach of contract
c. Breach of duty
d. Breach of policy
125. Injunction cannot be granted if it would impede or delay the progress of:
a. Civil suit
b. Infrastructure project
c. Criminal trial
d. Arbitration
126. Injunction cannot be granted when the conduct of the plaintiff:
a. Is proper
b. Disentitles him to the assistance of the court
c. Is lawful
d. Is contractual
127. Injunction cannot be granted when the plaintiff has:
a. Personal interest in the matter
b. No personal interest in the matter
c. Contractual interest
d. Legal notice
128. Injunction cannot restrain proceedings pending at the institution of suit unless necessary to prevent:
a. Multiplicity of proceedings
b. Criminal liability
c. Arbitration
d. Appeal
129. Injunction cannot restrain proceedings in a court:
a. Subordinate court
b. Not subordinate court
c. Same court
d. Tribunal
130. Injunction cannot restrain applying to:
a. Court
b. Legislative body
c. Tribunal
d. Arbitrator
131. Injunction cannot restrain proceedings in:
a. Civil matter
b. Criminal matter
c. Administrative tribunal
d. Arbitration
132. Injunction cannot be granted to prevent breach of contract where performance:
a. Is specifically enforceable
b. Would not be specifically enforced
c. Is lawful
d. Is void
133. Injunction cannot be granted when the plaintiff has:
a. Acquiesced in continuing breach
b. Objected to breach
c. Filed suit immediately
d. Filed appeal
134. Injunction cannot be granted when equally efficacious relief can be obtained by:
a. Usual mode of proceeding
b. Appeal
c. Criminal prosecution
d. Arbitration
135. Injunction may still be granted despite alternative remedy in case of:
a. Breach of trust
b. Breach of contract
c. Breach of policy
d. Breach of statute
136. Injunction cannot be granted if it delays:
a. Infrastructure project
b. Criminal investigation
c. Civil suit
d. Arbitration
137. Injunction cannot be granted when plaintiff’s conduct:
a. Disentitles him to assistance of the court
b. Is proper
c. Is neutral
d. Is contractual
138. Injunction cannot be granted when the plaintiff has:
a. No personal interest in the matter
b. Personal interest in the matter
c. Contractual right
d. Statutory right
139. Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:
a. Temporary injunction
b. Mandatory injunction
c. Injunction to perform negative agreement
d. Declaratory decree
140. Section 42 operates notwithstanding anything contained in:
a. Clause (e) of section 41
b. Clause (a) of section 41
c. Clause (b) of section 41
d. Clause (h) of section 41
141. Section 42 applies where a contract comprises:
a. Affirmative agreement only
b. Negative agreement only
c. Affirmative agreement coupled with negative agreement
d. Void agreement
142. An affirmative agreement means an agreement:
a. Not to do a certain act
b. To do a certain act
c. To commit an offence
d. To file suit
143. A negative agreement means an agreement:
a. To do a certain act
b. Not to do a certain act
c. To perform contract immediately
d. To terminate contract
144. Negative agreement under Section 42 may be:
a. Express
b. Implied
c. Express or implied
d. Written only
145. Under Section 42, injunction may be granted to enforce:
a. Affirmative agreement
b. Negative agreement
c. Criminal agreement
d. Arbitration agreement