THE PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT, 1988
ACT NO. 49 OF 1988
1. What is the short title of the Act mentioned in Section 1?
a. Anti-Corruption Act, 1988
b. Corruption Control Act, 1988
c. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988b
d. Public Servants Act, 1988
2. Section 1 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 deals with:
a. Definition of offences
b. Punishment provisions
c. Short title and extent
d. Powers of investigation
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act was enacted in which year?
a. 1947
b. 1950
c. 1971
d. 1988
4. The extent of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is:
a. Only to Central Government employees
b. Only within Indian territory
c. Whole of India and Indian citizens outside India
d. Only to States and Union Territories
5. Which category of persons does the Act apply to outside India?
a. Foreign nationals
b. Indian citizens
c. Diplomatic staff only
d. Residents of neighboring countries
6. Section 1(2) of the Act makes the Act applicable to:
a. Only offences committed in India
b. Only public servants
c. Citizens of India even outside India
d. Foreign citizens in India
7. The application of the Act to Indian citizens outside India indicates:
a. Territorial jurisdiction only
b. Extraterritorial operation
c. State-wise limitation
d. Optional applicability
8. Which principle of criminal law is reflected in Section 1(2)?
a. Territorial principle
b. Universal jurisdiction
c. Nationality principle
d. Natural justice
9. The words “It extends to the whole of India” imply:
a. Application only to Central laws
b. Application only to Union Territories
c. Application to entire Indian territory
d. Application only to States
10. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 applies to acts committed:
a. Only within India
b. Only by public servants
c. Within India and by Indian citizens abroad
d. Only during office hours
11. Section 1 of the Act contains how many sub-sections?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
12. Sub-section (1) of Section 1 deals with:
a. Extent
b. Application
c. Short title
d. Punishment
13. Sub-section (2) of Section 1 deals with:
a. Definition clause
b. Extent and applicability
c. Jurisdiction of courts
d. Investigation procedure
14. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The Act applies only to offences within India
b. The Act does not apply to citizens outside India
c. The Act applies to all Indian citizens even abroad
d. The Act applies only after government sanction
15. If an Indian citizen commits corruption outside India, the Act:
a. Does not apply
b. Applies only with State approval
c. Applies under Section 1(2)
d. Applies only if extradited
16. The phrase “may be called” in Section 1(1) indicates:
a. Mandatory naming
b. Optional naming
c. Formal naming of the Act
d. Temporary naming
17. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 replaced which earlier Act?
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947
c. Criminal Law Amendment Act
d. Lokpal Act
18. The territorial reach of the Act includes:
a. Only land territory of India
b. Only airspace of India
c. Entire territory of India
d. Only Union Territories
19. Which of the following best describes Section 1?
a. Procedural provision
b. Penal provision
c. Introductory and jurisdictional provision
d. Investigative provision
20. Section 1 ensures that corruption by Indian citizens:
a. Is punishable only in India
b. Can escape punishment abroad
c. Is punishable irrespective of place
d. Requires international treaty
21. Under Section 2(a), “election” means an election held for selecting members of:]
a. Parliament only
b. Legislature only
c. Local authority only
d. Parliament, Legislature, local authority or other public authority
22. The term “election” under the Act is defined with reference to:
a. Mode of voting
b. Nature of candidature
c. Purpose of selecting members
d. Duration of election
23. The definition of “election” under Section 2 applies to elections held:
a. Only by ballot
b. Only by electronic means
c. By whatever means held under any law
d. Only under the Representation of People Act
24. The word “prescribed” under Section 2(aa) means:
a. Prescribed by Parliament
b. Prescribed by Central Government notification
c. Prescribed by rules made under this Act
d. Prescribed by courts
25. The expression “prescribe” shall be construed as:
a. Issued by judiciary
b. Issued by executive order
c. Made under the rules of this Act
d. Mentioned in the Schedule
26. “Public duty” under Section 2(b) means a duty in which interest is of:
a. Government only
b. State only
c. Public or community at large
d. Private individuals
27. Which interest is essential to qualify a duty as “public duty”?
a. Personal interest
b. Commercial interest
c. State, public or community interest
d. Contractual interest
28. In the definition of “public duty”, the word “State” includes:
a. Only Central Government
b. Only State Government
c. Corporations and Government companies
d. Judiciary alone
29. Section 2(c) defines “public servant” to include:
a. Only government employees
b. Only elected representatives
c. Persons specified under various clauses
d. Only judicial officers
30. A person remunerated by the Government by fees or commission is:
a. Not a public servant
b. A contractor
c. A public servant
d. A private agent
31. A person in the service or pay of a local authority is:
a. Not covered
b. Covered only with notification
c. A public servant
d. Covered only under IPC
32. Employees of a Government-controlled corporation are:
a. Private employees
b. Not public servants
c. Public servants under Section 2(c)(iii)
d. Public servants only if gazette
33. A Judge empowered to discharge adjudicatory functions is:
a. Not a public servant
b. A public servant
c. Covered only under CrPC
d. Covered only if appointed by Government
34. A liquidator appointed by a court is:
a. Not covered
b. A public servant
c. A private officer
d. A contractual employee
35. An arbitrator appointed by a court or competent public authority is:
a. Excluded from the Act
b. A public servant
c. Covered only under Arbitration Act
d. Not liable under PC Act
36. A person empowered to prepare or revise an electoral roll is:
a. Not a public servant
b. A public servant
c. Covered only during elections
d. Covered only under election laws
37. A person authorised to perform any public duty is:
a. Excluded
b. Covered only if paid
c. A public servant
d. Covered only if permanent
38. Office-bearers of a co-operative society receiving government financial aid are:
a. Not public servants
b. Public servants
c. Private servants
d. Exempted persons
39. Members of a Service Commission or selection committee are:
a. Not public servants
b. Temporary servants
c. Public servants
d. Contractual workers
40. A Vice-Chancellor of a University is:
a. Not covered
b. Covered only if Government employee
c. A public servant
d. Covered only under UGC Act
41. Teachers and employees of a University are:
a. Excluded
b. Public servants
c. Private employees
d. Consultants only
42. Office-bearers of institutions receiving government financial assistance are:
a. Not public servants
b. Public servants
c. Volunteers
d. Advisors
43. “Undue advantage” means:
a. Legal remuneration
b. Any gratification other than legal remuneration
c. Only monetary benefit
d. Salary and allowances
44. The term “gratification” includes:
a. Only money
b. Only property
c. Pecuniary and non-pecuniary benefits
d. Only cash payments
45. “Legal remuneration” includes:
a. Only salary
b. Only bonus
c. Remuneration permitted by Government or organization
d. Illegal payments
46. Persons falling under Section 2(c) are public servants:
a. Only if appointed by Government
b. Only if permanent
c. Whether appointed by Government or not
d. Only if gazetted
47. A person actually performing duties of a public servant but with a defective appointment is:
a. Not a public servant
b. A public servant
c. A private servant
d. A de facto officer not covered
48. Explanation 2 to Section 2 emphasizes:
a. Valid appointment
b. Length of service
c. Actual possession of office
d. Salary structure
49. The definition of “public servant” under PC Act is:
a. Narrow
b. Restrictive
c. Broad and inclusive
d. Limited to IPC
50. Section 2 of the Prevention of Corruption Act primarily deals with:
a. Offences
b. Punishments
c. Definitions
d. Procedure
51. Under Section 3(1), who has the power to appoint Special Judges?
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government or State Government
d. Parliament
52. Appointment of Special Judges under Section 3 is made by:
a. Executive order
b. Parliamentary resolution
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Judicial order
53. Special Judges may be appointed for:
a. The whole country only
b. Specific cases only
c. Area, areas, case or group of cases
d. Only for States
54. The number of Special Judges appointed shall be:
a. Fixed by statute
b. One per district
c. As many as may be necessary
d. One per State
55. Special Judges are appointed primarily to:
a. Conduct departmental inquiries
b. Try offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act
c. Frame rules
d. Grant sanctions
56. Which of the following offences can be tried by a Special Judge?
a. Offences under IPC only
b. Offences under CrPC
c. Offences punishable under this Act
d. Civil offences
57. A conspiracy to commit an offence under the PC Act can be tried by:
a. Magistrate only
b. Sessions Court only
c. Special Judge
d. High Court only
58. An attempt to commit an offence under the PC Act is triable by:
a. Any criminal court
b. Special Judge
c. Lok Adalat
d. Tribunal
59. Abetment of offences under the PC Act is included within the jurisdiction of:
a. Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. Special Judge
d. Executive Magistrate
60. Clause (a) of Section 3(1) deals with:
a. Civil liability
b. Administrative offences
c. Offences punishable under the Act
d. Appeals
61. Clause (b) of Section 3(1) covers:
a. Only completed offences
b. Conspiracy, attempt and abetment
c. Only conspiracy
d. Only attempt
62. The words “any conspiracy to commit” indicate:
a. Narrow scope
b. Limited jurisdiction
c. Expansive criminal liability
d. Civil nature
63. A person is qualified to be appointed as a Special Judge if he:
a. Is a Magistrate of First Class
b. Is or has been a Sessions Judge
c. Is an Advocate of 10 years
d. Is a District Magistrate
64. Which judicial officer is eligible for appointment as Special Judge?
a. Chief Judicial Magistrate
b. Assistant Sessions Judge
c. Executive Magistrate
d. Metropolitan Magistrate
65. Which of the following is NOT eligible to be appointed as Special Judge?
a. Sessions Judge
b. Additional Sessions Judge
c. Assistant Sessions Judge
d. Judicial Magistrate First Class
66. Eligibility for Special Judge appointment is determined with reference to:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Civil Procedure
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Constitution of India
67. The qualification clause ensures that the Special Judge:
a. Is administratively trained
b. Has sufficient judicial experience
c. Belongs to Higher Judicial Service only
d. Is appointed by judiciary
68. Appointment of Special Judges is:
a. Mandatory
b. Optional and discretionary
c. Judicially enforced
d. Constitutionally required
69. The phrase “as may be necessary” signifies:
a. Fixed numerical limit
b. Judicial discretion
c. Administrative discretion of Government
d. Parliamentary approval
70. The area for which a Special Judge may be appointed can be:
a. Only a district
b. Only a State
c. One or more areas
d. Only metropolitan cities
71. Section 3 primarily deals with:
a. Punishment
b. Investigation
c. Trial of offences
d. Appeal
72. The authority to appoint Special Judges flows from:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
73. Special Judges are appointed for ensuring:
a. Speedy trial
b. Fair investigation
c. Administrative convenience
d. Political control
74. The appointment of Special Judges under the PC Act is:
a. Temporary only
b. Case-specific or area-specific
c. Permanent cadre
d. Automatic
75. The jurisdiction of a Special Judge extends to:
a. Only completed offences
b. Only principal offenders
c. Offences plus conspiracy, attempt and abetment
d. Only corruption cases involving public servants
76. Section 3 reinforces the legislative intent of:
a. Leniency
b. Delay
c. Specialised adjudication
d. Administrative control
77. The words “shall not be qualified” in Section 3(2) indicate:
a. Directory provision
b. Mandatory qualification
c. Optional requirement
d. Advisory nature
78. The appointing authority cannot appoint a person as Special Judge who:
a. Is retired
b. Has criminal background
c. Has never been a Sessions or Assistant Sessions Judge
d. Is transferred
79. Section 3 applies to offences:
a. Before investigation
b. During investigation
c. At the stage of trial
d. At appellate stage
80. Section 3 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is concerned with:
a. Definition of offences
b. Appointment of Special Judges
c. Sanction for prosecution
d. Penalties
81. Section 4 of the Prevention of Corruption Act primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Special Judges
b. Jurisdiction and trial of offences
c. Sanction for prosecution
d. Investigation powers
82. The use of the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained” in Section 4 indicates:
a. Conditional application
b. Subordinate nature
c. Overriding effect
d. Advisory intent
83. Section 4 overrides provisions of:
a. Indian Penal Code only
b. Code of Civil Procedure only
c. Code of Criminal Procedure and any other law
d. Constitution of India
84. Offences mentioned in Section 3(1) are triable:
a. By Magistrates
b. By Sessions Courts
c. Exclusively by Special Judges
d. By any criminal court
85. Which principle is reinforced by Section 4(1)?
a. Concurrent jurisdiction
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. Appellate jurisdiction
d. Revisional jurisdiction
86. Ordinary criminal courts are excluded from trying PC Act offences because of:
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 7
87. Normally, an offence under the PC Act is tried by the Special Judge:
a. Where accused is posted
b. Where complaint is filed
c. Where offence was committed
d. Where investigation was conducted
88. When a Special Judge is appointed specifically for a case, the trial shall be conducted by:
a. Any available Special Judge
b. The nearest Sessions Judge
c. The Special Judge appointed for that case
d. Magistrate of jurisdiction
89. In case of multiple Special Judges in one area, allocation of case is done by:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Chief Justice of India
90. Section 4(3) allows a Special Judge to try:
a. Only corruption offences
b. Only IPC offences
c. Connected offences along with PC Act offences
d. Civil disputes
91. The authority of Special Judge to try other offences flows from:
a. IPC
b. CrPC
c. Constitution
d. Evidence Act
92. Section 4(3) is intended to prevent:
a. Delay in sanction
b. Multiple trials for same transaction
c. Abuse of investigation
d. Double punishment
93. The trial under Section 4 should be conducted:
a. Weekly
b. Fortnightly
c. On day-to-day basis as far as practicable
d. As per Judge’s convenience
94. The phrase “as far as practicable” implies:
a. Absolute mandate
b. Complete discretion
c. Reasonable flexibility
d. Optional compliance
95. The intended time-limit for concluding trial is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
96. If trial exceeds two years, the Special Judge must:
a. Discharge the accused
b. Stop proceedings
c. Record reasons in writing
d. Refer matter to High Court
97. Extension of trial period can be granted:
a. Indefinitely
b. Only once
c. In blocks not exceeding six months
d. Only by High Court
98. The total trial period including extensions shall ordinarily not exceed:
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Four years
d. Five years
99. Reasons for extension must be:
a. Oral
b. Presumed
c. Recorded in writing
d. Approved by accused
100. The word “ordinarily” in Section 4(4) signifies:
a. Absolute prohibition
b. Strict mandate
c. General rule with exceptions
d. Optional guideline
101. Section 4 ensures speedy trial which aligns with:
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 32
102. The purpose of day-to-day trial is to:
a. Increase conviction rate
b. Reduce judicial workload
c. Prevent undue delay
d. Limit defence rights
103. Section 4 read with Section 3 establishes:
a. Investigation mechanism
b. Special judicial forum
c. Appellate authority
d. Administrative control
104. Which of the following best describes the role of Special Judge under Section 4?
a. Executive authority
b. Administrative officer
c. Exclusive trial judge for corruption cases
d. Appellate judge
105. Section 4 is procedural in nature because it deals with:
a. Definition of offence
b. Punishment
c. Trial and jurisdiction
d. Investigation powers
106. A Special Judge trying a PC Act offence can also try IPC offence because:
a. IPC permits it
b. CrPC allows joint trial
c. Constitution mandates it
d. PC Act is silent
107. Which authority ensures proper allocation among multiple Special Judges?
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Central Government
d. State Legislature
108. Failure to conclude trial within two years automatically vitiates proceedings:
a. Yes, always
b. Yes, unless appeal
c. No, reasons may be recorded and time extended
d. Yes, trial becomes void
109. Section 4 strengthens which anti-corruption objective?
a. Strict liability
b. Speedy justice
c. Enhanced punishment
d. Wider investigation
110. Section 4 reflects legislative intent to:
a. Centralise investigation
b. Decentralise courts
c. Specialise and expedite trials
d. Reduce judicial review
111. Under Section 5(1), a Special Judge may take cognizance of offences:
a. Only after committal by Magistrate
b. Only after police report
c. Without the accused being committed for trial
d. Only with prior sanction
112. Section 5(1) removes the requirement of:
a. Investigation
b. Sanction
c. Committal proceedings
d. Charge framing
113. While trying accused persons, a Special Judge shall follow the procedure prescribed for:
a. Sessions trials
b. Summary trials
c. Warrant cases by Magistrates
d. Civil trials
114. The procedure followed by a Special Judge under Section 5(1) is taken from:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Code of Civil Procedure
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Evidence Act
115. Section 5(1) is an exception to which normal criminal procedure?
a. Investigation by police
b. Committal to Sessions Court
c. Grant of bail
d. Recording of evidence
116. Under Section 5(2), a Special Judge may tender pardon to a person:
a. Only to accused
b. Only to complainant
c. Supposed to be concerned in the offence
d. Only to approver after conviction
117. The purpose of tendering pardon under Section 5(2) is to:
a. Reduce sentence
b. Obtain evidence
c. Speed up appeal
d. Withdraw prosecution
118. Pardon may be tendered to a person who is:
a. Directly concerned in the offence
b. Indirectly concerned in the offence
c. Privy to the offence
d. All of the above
119. Tender of pardon is conditional upon:
a. Admission of guilt only
b. Partial disclosure
c. Full and true disclosure of circumstances
d. Withdrawal of charges
120. Disclosure must relate to:
a. Only principal offender
b. Only abettor
c. Whole offence and all persons involved
d. Only facts favourable to prosecution
121. A pardon tendered under Section 5(2) is deemed to be tendered under:
a. Section 306 CrPC
b. Section 307 CrPC
c. Section 308 CrPC
d. Section 320 CrPC
122. For purposes of Section 308 CrPC, pardon under Section 5(2) is treated as:
a. Ordinary pardon
b. Invalid pardon
c. Pardon under Section 307 CrPC
d. Executive pardon
123. Section 5(3) provides that CrPC provisions shall apply:
a. Fully without exception
b. Only with High Court permission
c. So far as they are not inconsistent with the Act
d. Only during appeal
124. For purposes of CrPC provisions, the Court of Special Judge is deemed to be:
a. Magistrate Court
b. Civil Court
c. Court of Session
d. Tribunal
125. The person conducting prosecution before a Special Judge is deemed to be:
a. Advocate
b. Assistant Public Prosecutor
c. Public Prosecutor
d. State Counsel
126. Section 5(4) specifically applies which CrPC sections to Special Judge proceedings?
a. Sections 209 and 273
b. Sections 306 and 307
c. Sections 326 and 475
d. Sections 360 and 361
127. For the purpose of Sections 326 and 475 CrPC, a Special Judge is deemed to be:
a. Sessions Judge
b. Magistrate
c. District Judge
d. Executive Magistrate
128. Section 5(4) clarifies that deeming of Special Judge as Magistrate is:
a. For all purposes
b. For appeal purposes
c. Only for Sections 326 and 475 CrPC
d. Only for sentencing
129. Under Section 5(5), a Special Judge may pass:
a. Only minimum sentence
b. Only fine
c. Any sentence authorised by law
d. Only imprisonment
130. Sentencing power of Special Judge is:
a. Limited
b. Advisory
c. Co-extensive with law
d. Subject to State approval
131. While trying offences under PC Act, Special Judge shall exercise powers of:
a. Sessions Judge under IPC
b. Magistrate under CrPC
c. District Judge under Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944
d. High Court Judge
132. Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944 mainly deals with:
a. Bail
b. Confiscation of property
c. Appeals
d. Limitation
133. Section 5(6) strengthens which aspect of corruption trials?
a. Investigation
b. Confiscation and attachment of property
c. Sanction
d. Appeal
134. Section 5(1) combines features of:
a. Magistrate and Sessions trial
b. Civil and criminal trial
c. Summary and warrant trial
d. Inquiry and trial
135. Though deemed to be Court of Session, Special Judge follows procedure of:
a. Sessions trial
b. Summary trial
c. Warrant case by Magistrate
d. Civil procedure
136. Which provision allows a Special Judge to bypass committal stage?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5(1)
c. Section 3
d. Section 6
137. The power to tender pardon under Section 5(2) is similar to which CrPC power?
a. Section 306
b. Section 307
c. Section 309
d. Section 320
138. Section 5 makes Special Judge a hybrid court because he acts as:
a. Magistrate only
b. Sessions Judge only
c. Magistrate, Sessions Judge and District Judge
d. Executive authority
139. Section 5 ensures effective prosecution mainly by:
a. Increasing punishment
b. Simplifying procedure
c. Eliminating committal delay and enabling pardon
d. Removing defence rights
140. Section 5 of the PC Act is primarily concerned with:
a. Investigation
b. Jurisdiction
c. Trial procedure and powers
d. Appeal
141. Section 6 applies when a Special Judge tries an offence:
a. Under IPC only
b. Under Section 3(1) of PC Act involving public servant and Essential Commodities Act orders
c. Under CrPC alone
d. Of civil nature
142. The offence must be committed by:
a. Any person
b. A private individual
c. A public servant
d. A company
143. The contravention must relate to:
a. IPC offences
b. Special orders under Essential Commodities Act, 1955
c. Forest laws
d. Customs Act
144. Section 6 refers specifically to orders under:
a. Section 3 of Essential Commodities Act
b. Section 10 of Essential Commodities Act
c. Section 12A of Essential Commodities Act
d. Section 14 of Essential Commodities Act
145. Section 6 operates notwithstanding:
a. Section 4 of PC Act only
b. Section 5(1) of PC Act and Section 260 CrPC
c. IPC provisions
d. Evidence Act
146. When Section 6 applies, the Special Judge shall try the offence:
a. As a sessions trial
b. As a warrant case
c. In a summary way
d. As a civil proceeding
147. Which provisions of CrPC apply to summary trial under Section 6?
a. Sections 200–204
b. Sections 207–209
c. Sections 262–265
d. Sections 306–308
148. The phrase “as far as may be” in Section 6 indicates:
a. Absolute mandate
b. Advisory nature
c. Practical applicability with flexibility
d. Optional compliance
149. Maximum imprisonment that may be awarded in a summary trial under Section 6 is:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
150. The sentence limitation applies only:
a. At investigation stage
b. At charge framing
c. Upon conviction in summary trial
d. At appeal stage
151. The Special Judge’s sentencing power in summary trial is:
a. Unlimited
b. Restricted to fine only
c. Restricted to imprisonment not exceeding one year
d. Dependent on sanction
152. If the Special Judge feels higher punishment may be required, he shall:
a. Continue summary trial
b. Dismiss the case
c. Convert the trial to warrant case procedure
d. Refer the matter to High Court
153. Conversion from summary to warrant trial can occur:
a. Only at the end
b. Only before evidence
c. At commencement or during trial
d. Only after conviction
154. Before converting the trial, the Special Judge must:
a. Obtain Government approval
b. Hear the parties
c. Seek High Court permission
d. Issue notice to Parliament
155. Upon conversion, the Special Judge shall:
a. Continue from same stage
b. Recall witnesses already examined
c. Close evidence
d. Order retrial by Magistrate
156. After conversion, the procedure followed shall be:
a. Summary trial procedure
b. Sessions trial procedure
c. Warrant case procedure by Magistrates
d. Civil procedure
157. Section 6(2) bars appeal when sentence imposed is:
a. Imprisonment up to six months
b. Imprisonment not exceeding one month and fine not exceeding ₹2000
c. Any imprisonment
d. Fine only
158. The bar on appeal applies:
a. Irrespective of sentence
b. Only when both imprisonment and fine are imposed within limits
c. Only when no fine is imposed
d. Only when accused consents
159. Appeal shall lie when:
a. Sentence exceeds prescribed limits
b. Accused demands appeal
c. Case involves public servant
d. Summary trial is converted
160. The bar on appeal applies even if:
a. Property is confiscated
b. Order under Section 452 CrPC is passed
c. Fine is waived
d. Accused is acquitted
161. Section 6 is an exception to:
a. Section 4 of PC Act
b. Section 5(1) of PC Act
c. Section 3 of PC Act
d. Section 7 of PC Act
162. Summary trial under Section 6 aims primarily at:
a. Harsher punishment
b. Speedy disposal of specific corruption cases
c. Removal of sanction requirement
d. Limiting defence rights
163. The expression “shall try the offence in a summary way” indicates:
a. Discretionary power
b. Mandatory duty
c. Advisory guideline
d. Conditional authority
164. Section 6 reflects legislative intent to deal swiftly with:
a. Ordinary corruption cases
b. Election offences
c. Corruption linked with Essential Commodities violations
d. Private sector bribery
165. Even though summary trial is mandated, the Special Judge retains power to:
a. Pass any sentence
b. Transfer the case
c. Convert it into warrant trial if required
d. Dismiss the case summarily
166. The non-obstante clause in Section 6 overrides:
a. CrPC entirely
b. Only Section 260 CrPC
c. Section 5(1) PC Act and Section 260 CrPC
d. IPC provisions
167. Section 6 applies only when offence under PC Act is:
a. Cognizable
b. Non-bailable
c. Connected with Essential Commodities Act orders
d. Punishable with life imprisonment
168. Summary trial under Section 6 does NOT eliminate:
a. Recording of evidence
b. Opportunity of hearing
c. Power to impose sentence
d. Requirement of reasoned order
169. Section 6 creates a balance between:
a. Speed and fairness
b. Punishment and pardon
c. Investigation and trial
d. Rights of State and accused
170. Section 6 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Judges
b. Summary trial, sentence limits and appeal bar
c. Sanction for prosecution
d. Confiscation of property
171. Section 7 applies when the accused is:
a. Any individual
b. A public servant
c. A private intermediary
d. A government contractor
172. The offence under Section 7 revolves around acceptance of:
a. Valuable security
b. Illegal property
c. Undue advantage
d. Government dues
173. Clause (a) of Section 7 requires intention to:
a. Perform public duty lawfully
b. Perform public duty improperly or dishonestly
c. Avoid performance of duty due to incapacity
d. Delegate duty
174. Clause (a) also covers forbearance of duty by:
a. The accused only
b. Any private individual
c. Another public servant
d. Any authority
175. Under Section 7, “attempt to obtain” undue advantage:
a. Is not punishable
b. Is punishable only if money is received
c. Itself constitutes an offence
d. Requires proof of loss
176. Clause (b) relates to undue advantage taken as:
a. Advance consideration
b. Legal remuneration
c. A reward
d. Compensation
177. Reward under clause (b) is connected with:
a. Proper performance of duty
b. Improper or dishonest performance of duty
c. Emergency service
d. Lawful discretion
178. Clause (b) also applies when undue advantage is taken for:
a. Speedy service
b. Forbearing to perform public duty
c. Lawful overtime
d. Official travel
179. Clause (c) criminalises conduct done:
a. Accidentally
b. Negligently
c. In anticipation of accepting undue advantage
d. Under mistake
180. Clause (c) also covers acts done:
a. Only before acceptance
b. Only after acceptance
c. In consequence of accepting undue advantage
d. Only after conviction
181. Inducing another public servant to act improperly falls under:
a. Clause (a) only
b. Clause (b) only
c. Clause (c)
d. Explanation 1
182. Explanation 1 clarifies that offence is complete when:
a. Public duty is improperly performed
b. Loss is caused to Government
c. Undue advantage is obtained, accepted or attempted
d. Complaint is filed
183. As per Explanation 1, actual improper performance of duty is:
a. Mandatory
b. Presumed
c. Not necessary
d. Required to be proved
184. Even if public duty is performed honestly, Section 7:
a. Does not apply
b. Applies only departmentally
c. Still applies if undue advantage is demanded
d. Requires prior sanction
185. The illustration under Section 7 involves demand of money for:
a. Grant of license
b. Processing ration card application
c. Issuance of passport
d. Grant of subsidy
186. Demand of money for performing routine official work amounts to:
a. Legal remuneration
b. Undue advantage
c. Service charge
d. Administrative fee
187. Explanation 2 expands the meaning of “obtains” to include:
a. Receipt of salary
b. Abuse of official position
c. Lawful allowances
d. Pension
188. Using personal influence over another public servant to obtain benefit is:
a. Lawful conduct
b. Outside Section 7
c. Covered under Section 7
d. Mere misconduct
189. “Any other corrupt or illegal means” indicates:
a. Narrow interpretation
b. Procedural nature
c. Broad scope of offence
d. Limitation to money
190. Acceptance of undue advantage through a middleman:
a. Is not covered
b. Requires separate charge
c. Is immaterial under Section 7
d. Is a defence
191. Section 7 applies even if undue advantage is taken:
a. Only for self
b. Only for family
c. For self or any other person
d. Only for Government
192. Essential mens rea under Section 7 is:
a. Negligence
b. Knowledge only
c. Dishonest or improper intention
d. Accident
193. Which stage of bribery is punishable under Section 7?
a. Acceptance only
b. Demand only
c. Demand, acceptance and attempt
d. Conviction stage
194. Failure to actually receive money will:
a. Negate offence
b. Bar prosecution
c. Not affect liability
d. Reduce punishment automatically
195. Minimum punishment prescribed under Section 7 is:
a. One year imprisonment
b. Two years imprisonment
c. Three years imprisonment
d. Five years imprisonment
196. Maximum punishment under Section 7 may extend to:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Life imprisonment
197. Apart from imprisonment, punishment under Section 7 includes:
a. Confiscation only
b. Departmental dismissal only
c. Fine
d. Warning
198. Section 7 is primarily concerned with:
a. Result of corruption
b. Public loss
c. Conduct of public servant
d. Recovery of money
199. Returning the undue advantage later:
a. Cancels offence
b. Bars prosecution
c. Does not wipe out offence
d. Is a statutory defence
200. Section 7 is a:
a. Procedural provision
b. Substantive penal provision
c. Civil liability provision
d. Administrative guideline
201. Section 7A primarily deals with:
a. Public servant taking bribe
b. Influencing a public servant
c. Criminal misconduct
d. Departmental corruption
202. The offender under Section 7A may be:
a. Only a public servant
b. Only a private individual
c. Any person
d. Only a middleman
203. Section 7A criminalises acceptance of:
a. Valuable security
b. Illegal gratification
c. Undue advantage
d. Public funds
204. Undue advantage under Section 7A may be taken:
a. Only for oneself
b. Only for a public servant
c. For oneself or for any other person
d. Only for Government
205. Section 7A applies even when undue advantage is:
a. Fully received
b. Demanded
c. Attempted to be obtained
d. All of the above
206. Undue advantage under Section 7A must be taken as:
a. Compensation
b. Loan
c. Motive or reward
d. Legal remuneration
207. The motive or reward under Section 7A is to:
a. Obtain promotion
b. Influence a public servant
c. Gain public sympathy
d. Avoid departmental action
208. Influence under Section 7A may be exercised by:
a. Legal persuasion only
b. Corrupt or illegal means
c. Written representation
d. Administrative appeal
209. Apart from corrupt or illegal means, influence may be exercised by:
a. Official authority
b. Legal mandate
c. Personal influence
d. Judicial direction
210. Exercise of personal influence refers to:
a. Official control
b. Statutory power
c. Informal influence arising from relationship or position
d. Lawful supervision
211. Section 7A aims at inducing:
a. Any person
b. A private individual
c. A public servant
d. A complainant
212. The induced public servant may be:
a. The same public servant
b. Another public servant
c. Both a and b
d. Only the concerned officer
213. Influence under Section 7A must relate to performance of:
a. Private work
b. Official work
c. Public duty
d. Judicial duty only
214. The public duty under Section 7A must be performed:
a. Speedily
b. Lawfully
c. Improperly or dishonestly
d. Administratively
215. Section 7A also covers inducement to:
a. Delay lawful duty
b. Forbear performance of public duty
c. Transfer files
d. Assign work
216. Under Section 7A, mere attempt to obtain undue advantage:
a. Is not punishable
b. Is punishable only on completion
c. Itself constitutes an offence
d. Requires loss to Government
217. Actual influencing of public servant is:
a. Mandatory to prove offence
b. Irrelevant if undue advantage is taken
c. Required for conviction
d. Presumed
218. Section 7A differs from Section 7 because Section 7A targets:
a. Public servants only
b. Middlemen or influence-peddlers
c. Judges exclusively
d. Government departments
219. Section 7A applies even if the offender:
a. Is not a public servant
b. Is retired
c. Is a private individual
d. All of the above
220. The essential mental element under Section 7A is:
a. Negligence
b. Knowledge only
c. Intention to induce improper or dishonest performance
d. Accident
221. Influence under Section 7A may be:
a. Only direct
b. Only indirect
c. Direct or indirect
d. Only official
222. Receiving undue advantage through a third person:
a. Is excluded
b. Is a defence
c. Is covered under Section 7A
d. Requires separate offence
223. Minimum imprisonment under Section 7A is:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
224. Maximum imprisonment under Section 7A may extend to:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Life imprisonment
225. In addition to imprisonment, the offender is also liable to:
a. Confiscation only
b. Departmental action
c. Fine
d. Warning