Free MCQs
Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam MCQs
32 min read
MP Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam MCQs PDF
1. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam was enacted for which primary purpose?
a. Regulation of industries
b. Speedy trial of certain class of offences
c. Promotion of education
d. Land reforms
2. The Act also provides for confiscation of:
a. Agricultural land only
b. Government vehicles
c. Properties involved in offences
d. Foreign investments
3. Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011 is also known as:
a. M.P. Act No. 5 of 2011
b. M.P. Act No. 8 of 2012
c. M.P. Act No. 10 of 2010
d. M.P. Act No. 12 of 2013
4. The assent to this Act was received from:
a. Governor of Madhya Pradesh
b. Chief Minister
c. President of India
d. Chief Justice of India
5. The President gave assent to the Act on:
a. 10th February, 2012
b. 7th February, 2012
c. 1st January, 2012
d. 15th March, 2012
6. The assent was first published in the Madhya Pradesh Gazette on:
a. 7th February, 2012
b. 8th February, 2012
c. 10th February, 2012
d. 12th February, 2012
7. The Act was enacted by the Madhya Pradesh Legislature in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Sixtieth year
b. Sixty-first year
c. Sixty-second year
d. Sixty-third year
8. The Act mainly deals with constitution of:
a. Family Courts
b. Special Courts
c. Civil Courts
d. Revenue Courts
9. Which of the following is included in the scope of the Act?
a. Speedy trial
b. Confiscation of properties
c. Matters connected therewith
d. All of the above
10. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam relates mainly to:
a. Civil disputes
b. Certain class of offences
c. Election disputes
d. Environmental protection
11. What is the short title of the Act?
a. Madhya Pradesh Special Court Act, 2010
b. Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011
c. Madhya Pradesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2012
d. Madhya Pradesh Anti-Corruption Act, 2011
12. The Act extends to:
a. Whole of India
b. Only Bhopal Division
c. Whole of the State of Madhya Pradesh
d. Selected districts of Madhya Pradesh
13. The Act shall come into force on:
a. Date of enactment
b. Date of Presidential assent
c. Such date as the State Government may appoint by notification
d. Date of Gazette publication automatically
14. Who has the power to appoint the date of commencement of the Act?
a. President of India
b. Governor
c. State Government
d. High Court
15. The commencement of the Act is notified through:
a. Circular
b. Ordinance
c. Notification
d. Resolution
16. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam was enacted in:
a. 2010
b. 2011
c. 2012
d. 2013
17. Which subsection deals with the extent of the Act?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. None of these
18. Which subsection deals with commencement of the Act?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. Section 2
19. The Act applies to:
a. Central Government employees only
b. Private institutions only
c. Entire State of Madhya Pradesh
d. Urban areas only
20. The short title clause is mentioned under:
a. Section 1(1)
b. Section 1(2)
c. Section 1(3)
d. Section 2
21. Under the Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011, the term “Act” means:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
22. “Authorised Officer” means:
a. Any police officer
b. Any civil judge
c. Any serving officer of Higher Judicial Service who is or has been Sessions Judge/Additional Sessions Judge
d. Any advocate appointed by the State Government
23. The term “Code” refers to:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Constitution of India
24. “Declaration” in relation to an offence means a declaration made under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 5
c. Section 10
d. Section 14
25. Under the Act, “offence” means:
a. Any offence under IPC
b. Any civil wrong
c. An offence of criminal misconduct attracting Section 13(1)(e) of the Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Any offence committed by a public servant
26. Section 13(1)(e) of the Prevention of Corruption Act relates to:
a. Theft
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Possession of disproportionate assets by a public servant
d. Election offences
27. “Special Court” means:
a. A court established under Section 5
b. A Sessions Court notified by the Government
c. A court constituted by the High Court
d. A Special Court established under Section 3
28. Words and expressions not defined in this Act but defined in the Code or the Act shall have:
a. Meanings assigned by the High Court
b. Meanings assigned by the State Government
c. Meanings respectively assigned in the Code or the Act
d. Meanings assigned under the Constitution
29. The State Government establishes Special Courts for the purpose of:
a. Civil trials
b. Family disputes
c. Speedy trial of offences
d. Revenue matters
30. Special Courts are established by the State Government through:
a. Ordinance
b. Executive order
c. Notification
d. Gazette resolution of High Court
31. The number of Special Courts to be established shall be:
a. Fixed by the High Court
b. Determined by Parliament
c. As considered adequate by the State Government
d. One in each district compulsorily
32. A Special Court shall be presided over by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Judge nominated by the State Government with concurrence of the High Court
d. Lokayukta
33. The nomination of Judge of a Special Court requires concurrence of:
a. Governor
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. Advocate General
34. A person is qualified for nomination as Judge of a Special Court if he:
a. Is an advocate with 10 years practice
b. Is a member of Higher Judicial Service
c. Is a police officer of SP rank
d. Is a retired civil servant
35. Under the Act, the Judge of a Special Court must be or have been:
a. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
b. Civil Judge
c. Sessions Judge/Additional Sessions Judge
d. District Collector
36. Which service membership is mandatory for nomination as Judge of a Special Court?
a. Indian Administrative Service
b. Higher Judicial Service
c. Police Service
d. Revenue Service
37. A Special Court shall take cognizance of:
a. Only civil cases
b. Cases instituted before it or transferred under Section 10
c. Only appeals
d. Revenue disputes
38. Cases may be transferred to the Special Court under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 10
39. Under Section 5, declaration of cases to be dealt with under the Act is made by:
a. High Court
b. Governor
c. State Government
d. Lokayukta
40. The State Government may make a declaration when it has:
a. Final proof of guilt
b. Prima facie evidence and reason to believe commission of offence
c. Recommendation of police only
d. Order of High Court
41. The declaration under Section 5 relates to offences alleged against:
a. Any private individual
b. Only retired judges
c. Persons holding or having held public office and being public servants
d. Advocates only
42. “Public servant” under Section 5 has the meaning assigned under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Constitution of India
c. Section 2(c) of the Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Code of Criminal Procedure
43. The declaration under Section 5 is made in relation to offences committed in:
a. Entire India
b. State of Madhya Pradesh
c. Union Territories only
d. Delhi only
44. A declaration made under Section 5:
a. Can be challenged before Sessions Court
b. Can be revised by District Court
c. Shall not be called in question in any Court
d. Requires approval of High Court
45. On a declaration being made under Section 5, prosecution in respect of the offence shall be instituted only in:
a. District Court
b. High Court
c. Special Court
d. Civil Court
46. Section 6 begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Constitution only
b. Code or any other law for the time being in force
c. High Court Rules only
d. Police Manual
47. After declaration under Section 5, prosecution of the offence:
a. May be instituted in any criminal court
b. Shall be instituted only in a Special Court
c. Requires Governor’s permission
d. Can be filed before Magistrate only
48. Where prosecution relating to the offence is already pending in another court:
a. It shall abate
b. It shall continue in the same court
c. It shall stand transferred to the Special Court
d. It shall be withdrawn by the State Government
49. Proceedings pending before a court other than the Special Court shall stand transferred:
a. For investigation
b. For appeal
c. For trial of the offence in accordance with the Act
d. For review by High Court
50. Transfer of pending proceedings to the Special Court operates:
a. Only with consent of accused
b. Subject to High Court approval
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
d. Only after fresh FIR
51. Section 6 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Judges
b. Effect of declaration
c. Bail provisions
d. Appeals
52. The prosecution after declaration under Section 5 can be instituted:
a. Only in Sessions Court
b. Only in Magistrate Court
c. Only in Special Court
d. In any court having jurisdiction
53. A Special Court shall have jurisdiction to try a person alleged to have committed:
a. Any civil wrong
b. Only IPC offences
c. An offence in respect of which declaration has been made under Section 5
d. Only bailable offences
54. Under Section 7, a Special Court may try a person as:
a. Principal only
b. Abettor only
c. Conspirator only
d. Principal, conspirator or abettor
55. Persons accused as principal, conspirator or abettor:
a. Cannot be jointly tried
b. May be jointly tried at one trial
c. Require separate proceedings
d. Must be tried by Sessions Court
56. Joint trial under Section 7 shall be conducted in accordance with:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Constitution of India
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Indian Evidence Act
57. Under Section 8(1), the Special Court shall follow the procedure prescribed for:
a. Sessions trials
b. Summary trials
c. Trial of summons cases before Magistrate
d. Trial of warrant cases before a Magistrate
58. The provisions of the Code and the Act shall apply to proceedings before the Special Court:
a. In all circumstances without exception
b. Only when directed by High Court
c. In so far as they are not inconsistent with this Act
d. Only with consent of accused
59. Persons conducting prosecution before a Special Court shall be deemed to be:
a. Advocate General
b. Public Prosecutor
c. Government Pleader
d. Investigating Officer
60. A Special Court may pass:
a. Only fine
b. Only imprisonment up to 3 years
c. Any sentence authorized by law for the offence
d. Only sentence recommended by State Government
61. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam was enacted for which primary purpose?
a. Regulation of industries
b. Speedy trial of certain class of offences
c. Promotion of education
d. Land reforms
62. The Act also provides for confiscation of:
a. Agricultural land only
b. Government vehicles
c. Properties involved in offences
d. Foreign investments
63. Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011 is also known as:
a. M.P. Act No. 5 of 2011
b. M.P. Act No. 8 of 2012
c. M.P. Act No. 10 of 2010
d. M.P. Act No. 12 of 2013
64. The assent to this Act was received from:
a. Governor of Madhya Pradesh
b. Chief Minister
c. President of India
d. Chief Justice of India
65. The President gave assent to the Act on:
a. 10th February, 2012
b. 7th February, 2012
c. 1st January, 2012
d. 15th March, 2012
66. The assent was first published in the Madhya Pradesh Gazette on:
a. 7th February, 2012
b. 8th February, 2012
c. 10th February, 2012
d. 12th February, 2012
67. The Act was enacted by the Madhya Pradesh Legislature in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Sixtieth year
b. Sixty-first year
c. Sixty-second year
d. Sixty-third year
68. The Act mainly deals with constitution of:
a. Family Courts
b. Special Courts
c. Civil Courts
d. Revenue Courts
69. Which of the following is included in the scope of the Act?
a. Speedy trial
b. Confiscation of properties
c. Matters connected therewith
d. All of the above
70. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam relates mainly to:
a. Civil disputes
b. Certain class of offences
c. Election disputes
d. Environmental protection
71. What is the short title of the Act?
a. Madhya Pradesh Special Court Act, 2010
b. Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011
c. Madhya Pradesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2012
d. Madhya Pradesh Anti-Corruption Act, 2011
72. The Act extends to:
a. Whole of India
b. Only Bhopal Division
c. Whole of the State of Madhya Pradesh
d. Selected districts of Madhya Pradesh
73. The Act shall come into force on:
a. Date of enactment
b. Date of Presidential assent
c. Such date as the State Government may appoint by notification
d. Date of Gazette publication automatically
74. Who has the power to appoint the date of commencement of the Act?
a. President of India
b. Governor
c. State Government
d. High Court
75. The commencement of the Act is notified through:
a. Circular
b. Ordinance
c. Notification
d. Resolution
76. The Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam was enacted in:
a. 2010
b. 2011
c. 2012
d. 2013
77. Which subsection deals with the extent of the Act?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. None of these
78. Which subsection deals with commencement of the Act?
a. Subsection (1)
b. Subsection (2)
c. Subsection (3)
d. Section 2
79. The Act applies to:
a. Central Government employees only
b. Private institutions only
c. Entire State of Madhya Pradesh
d. Urban areas only
80. The short title clause is mentioned under:
a. Section 1(1)
b. Section 1(2)
c. Section 1(3)
d. Section 2
81. Under the Madhya Pradesh Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 2011, the term “Act” means:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
82. “Authorised Officer” means:
a. Any police officer
b. Any civil judge
c. Any serving officer of Higher Judicial Service who is or has been Sessions Judge/Additional Sessions Judge
d. Any advocate appointed by the State Government
83. The term “Code” refers to:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d. Constitution of India
84. “Declaration” in relation to an offence means a declaration made under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 5
c. Section 10
d. Section 14
85. Under the Act, “offence” means:
a. Any offence under IPC
b. Any civil wrong
c. An offence of criminal misconduct attracting Section 13(1)(e) of the Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Any offence committed by a public servant
86. Section 13(1)(e) of the Prevention of Corruption Act relates to:
a. Theft
b. Criminal breach of trust
c. Possession of disproportionate assets by a public servant
d. Election offences
87. “Special Court” means:
a. A court established under Section 5
b. A Sessions Court notified by the Government
c. A court constituted by the High Court
d. A Special Court established under Section 3
88. Words and expressions not defined in this Act but defined in the Code or the Act shall have:
a. Meanings assigned by the High Court
b. Meanings assigned by the State Government
c. Meanings respectively assigned in the Code or the Act
d. Meanings assigned under the Constitution
89. The State Government establishes Special Courts for the purpose of:
a. Civil trials
b. Family disputes
c. Speedy trial of offences
d. Revenue matters
90. Special Courts are established by the State Government through:
a. Ordinance
b. Executive order
c. Notification
d. Gazette resolution of High Court
91. The number of Special Courts to be established shall be:
a. Fixed by the High Court
b. Determined by Parliament
c. As considered adequate by the State Government
d. One in each district compulsorily
92. A Special Court shall be presided over by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Chief Judicial Magistrate
c. Judge nominated by the State Government with concurrence of the High Court
d. Lokayukta
93. The nomination of Judge of a Special Court requires concurrence of:
a. Governor
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. Advocate General
94. A person is qualified for nomination as Judge of a Special Court if he:
a. Is an advocate with 10 years practice
b. Is a member of Higher Judicial Service
c. Is a police officer of SP rank
d. Is a retired civil servant
95. Under the Act, the Judge of a Special Court must be or have been:
a. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
b. Civil Judge
c. Sessions Judge/Additional Sessions Judge
d. District Collector
96. Which service membership is mandatory for nomination as Judge of a Special Court?
a. Indian Administrative Service
b. Higher Judicial Service
c. Police Service
d. Revenue Service
97. A Special Court shall take cognizance of:
a. Only civil cases
b. Cases instituted before it or transferred under Section 10
c. Only appeals
d. Revenue disputes
98. Cases may be transferred to the Special Court under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 10
99. Under Section 5, declaration of cases to be dealt with under the Act is made by:
a. High Court
b. Governor
c. State Government
d. Lokayukta
100. The State Government may make a declaration when it has:
a. Final proof of guilt
b. Prima facie evidence and reason to believe commission of offence
c. Recommendation of police only
d. Order of High Court
101. The declaration under Section 5 relates to offences alleged against:
a. Any private individual
b. Only retired judges
c. Persons holding or having held public office and being public servants
d. Advocates only
102. “Public servant” under Section 5 has the meaning assigned under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Constitution of India
c. Section 2(c) of the Prevention of Corruption Act
d. Code of Criminal Procedure
103. The declaration under Section 5 is made in relation to offences committed in:
a. Entire India
b. State of Madhya Pradesh
c. Union Territories only
d. Delhi only
104. A declaration made under Section 5:
a. Can be challenged before Sessions Court
b. Can be revised by District Court
c. Shall not be called in question in any Court
d. Requires approval of High Court
105. On a declaration being made under Section 5, prosecution in respect of the offence shall be instituted only in:
a. District Court
b. High Court
c. Special Court
d. Civil Court
106. Section 6 begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Constitution only
b. Code or any other law for the time being in force
c. High Court Rules only
d. Police Manual
107. After declaration under Section 5, prosecution of the offence:
a. May be instituted in any criminal court
b. Shall be instituted only in a Special Court
c. Requires Governor’s permission
d. Can be filed before Magistrate only
108. Where prosecution relating to the offence is already pending in another court:
a. It shall abate
b. It shall continue in the same court
c. It shall stand transferred to the Special Court
d. It shall be withdrawn by the State Government
109. Proceedings pending before a court other than the Special Court shall stand transferred:
a. For investigation
b. For appeal
c. For trial of the offence in accordance with the Act
d. For review by High Court
110. Transfer of pending proceedings to the Special Court operates:
a. Only with consent of accused
b. Subject to High Court approval
c. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
d. Only after fresh FIR
111. Section 6 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of Judges
b. Effect of declaration
c. Bail provisions
d. Appeals
112. The prosecution after declaration under Section 5 can be instituted:
a. Only in Sessions Court
b. Only in Magistrate Court
c. Only in Special Court
d. In any court having jurisdiction
113. A Special Court shall have jurisdiction to try a person alleged to have committed:
a. Any civil wrong
b. Only IPC offences
c. An offence in respect of which declaration has been made under Section 5
d. Only bailable offences
114. Under Section 7, a Special Court may try a person as:
a. Principal only
b. Abettor only
c. Conspirator only
d. Principal, conspirator or abettor
115. Persons accused as principal, conspirator or abettor:
a. Cannot be jointly tried
b. May be jointly tried at one trial
c. Require separate proceedings
d. Must be tried by Sessions Court
116. Joint trial under Section 7 shall be conducted in accordance with:
a. Civil Procedure Code
b. Constitution of India
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Indian Evidence Act
117. Under Section 8(1), the Special Court shall follow the procedure prescribed for:
a. Sessions trials
b. Summary trials
c. Trial of summons cases before Magistrate
d. Trial of warrant cases before a Magistrate
118. The provisions of the Code and the Act shall apply to proceedings before the Special Court:
a. In all circumstances without exception
b. Only when directed by High Court
c. In so far as they are not inconsistent with this Act
d. Only with consent of accused
119. Persons conducting prosecution before a Special Court shall be deemed to be:
a. Advocate General
b. Public Prosecutor
c. Government Pleader
d. Investigating Officer
120. A Special Court may pass:
a. Only fine
b. Only imprisonment up to 3 years
c. Any sentence authorized by law for the offence
d. Only sentence recommended by State Government
121. An appeal against any judgment and sentence of a Special Court shall lie to:
a. Sessions Court
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court
d. District Court
122. Appeal against the judgment of a Special Court lies on:
a. Facts only
b. Law only
c. Both facts and law
d. Constitutional grounds only
123. Section 9 begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. Constitution of India
c. Code of Criminal Procedure
d. Civil Procedure Code
124. Except as provided under Section 9, no appeal or revision shall lie from:
a. Orders of Magistrate Court
b. Judgments, sentences or orders of Special Court
c. Orders of High Court
d. Police investigation reports
125. Every appeal under Section 9 shall be preferred within:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
126. The limitation period for appeal is counted from the date of:
a. Filing of FIR
b. Arrest of accused
c. Judgment and sentence of the Special Court
d. Order of investigation
127. The High Court may entertain an appeal after expiry of limitation if:
a. State Government permits
b. Accused admits guilt
c. Sufficient cause is shown for delay
d. Trial Court recommends
128. While condoning delay, the High Court must:
a. Obtain police report
b. Record reasons in writing
c. Take approval of State Government
d. Issue public notice
129. Under Section 10, the power to transfer cases from one Special Court to another lies with:
a. State Government
b. Sessions Court
c. High Court
d. District Magistrate
130. Section 10 begins with a non-obstante clause overriding:
a. Constitution of India
b. Other provisions of the Act
c. Civil Procedure Code
d. Indian Penal Code
131. A Special Court shall adjourn a trial only when:
a. Parties mutually agree
b. Advocate seeks time
c. Necessary in the interest of justice
d. Police request adjournment
132. Reasons for adjournment by the Special Court must be:
a. Oral only
b. Approved by High Court
c. Recorded in writing
d. Published in Gazette
133. The Special Court shall endeavour to dispose of the trial within:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
134. The period of one year for disposal is counted from the date of:
a. FIR registration
b. Arrest of accused
c. Institution or transfer of the case
d. Framing of charges
135. Under Section 12, a Judge of the Special Court may act on:
a. Fresh evidence only
b. Evidence recorded by his predecessor
c. Police diary only
d. Evidence recorded by Magistrate only
136. Section 12 primarily relates to:
a. Transfer of cases
b. Adjournment of trial
c. Use of predecessor’s recorded evidence by succeeding Judge
d. Appeal procedure
137. Under Section 13(1), confiscation of property may be initiated when the State Government has:
a. Final conviction of the accused
b. Prima facie evidence and reasons to believe commission of offence
c. Only FIR registration
d. Only court order
138. Confiscation proceedings under Section 13 may be initiated:
a. Only after conviction by Special Court
b. Only after appeal
c. Whether or not the Special Court has taken cognizance
d. Only after investigation is complete and charge sheet filed
139. Under Section 13(1), the State Government authorizes:
a. Police Inspector
b. District Magistrate
c. Public Prosecutor
d. High Court Registrar
140. Application for confiscation is made to:
a. Special Court
b. High Court
c. Authorized Officer
d. District Magistrate
141. Confiscation is sought for money and property believed to be:
a. Inherited legally
b. Procured by means of offence
c. Purchased through loan only
d. Gifted by relatives only
142. An application under Section 13 must be accompanied by:
a. FIR copy only
b. Oral statement
c. Affidavits stating grounds of belief
d. Police diary only
143. The affidavits must state:
a. Only name of accused
b. Grounds of belief and estimated value of property
c. Only criminal history
d. Only arrest details
144. The application must also include information regarding:
a. Political affiliation of accused
b. Location of money and property
c. Court hearing dates
d. Witness statements only
145. Under Section 14(1), the Authorized Officer shall serve notice upon:
a. Police officer
b. Person affected by confiscation application
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court Registrar
146. The time specified in the notice under Section 14(1) shall ordinarily not be less than:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
147. The notice under Section 14(1) requires the person affected to disclose:
a. Only family details
b. Source of income and assets
c. Only bank account number
d. Only criminal history
148. The person affected must also show cause why the property should not be:
a. Auctioned
b. Attached by police
c. Declared acquired by offence and confiscated
d. Sold by court
149. If property is held on behalf of the person affected by another person, notice shall also be served to:
a. Only police officer
b. Such other person
c. State Government only
d. Witnesses only
150. Section 14 notice may include information regarding:
a. Political opinion
b. Income, earnings or assets and their source
c. Only arrest details
d. Only FIR number
151. Under Section 14(3), evidence brought before Authorized Officer may be:
a. Used only for appeal
b. Rebutted in trial before Special Court
c. Ignored completely
d. Used only for civil proceedings
152. The rebuttal of evidence under Section 14(3) is confined to:
a. Investigation stage only
b. Trial for determination of guilt before Special Court
c. Appeal stage only
d. Confiscation stage only
153. Under Section 15(1), the Authorized Officer passes an order after considering:
a. Only FIR report
b. Explanation to show cause notice and materials available
c. Only police investigation report
d. Only Special Court judgment
154. Before passing an order under Section 15(1), the person affected must be given:
a. No hearing
b. Only written notice
c. Reasonable opportunity of being heard
d. Hearing only before police
155. Under Section 15(1), the Authorized Officer records finding whether property is:
a. Lawfully acquired
b. Acquired illegally
c. Inherited property
d. Government property
156. If specific identification of illegal property is not possible, the Authorized Officer may:
a. Drop the proceedings
b. Transfer case to police
c. Specify property based on best judgment
d. Send matter to High Court
157. Property found to be acquired by offence shall:
a. Be returned to accused
b. Be auctioned immediately
c. Stand confiscated to the State Government free from encumbrances
d. Be kept in police custody only
158. If market price of property is deposited with Authorized Officer, then:
a. Property is always confiscated
b. Property is not confiscated
c. Property is transferred to complainant
d. Property is auctioned compulsorily
159. Where shares in a company are confiscated, the company must register:
a. Police as owner
b. High Court as owner
c. State Government as transferee
d. Authorized Officer as shareholder
160. Confiscation proceedings under Section 15 must be completed within:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
161. The order of confiscation becomes final subject to:
a. Review by police
b. Approval of State Government
c. Appeal under Section 17
d. Revision by Magistrate
162. An order of confiscation under Section 15 cannot be:
a. Challenged in any court except appeal
b. Challenged in any Court of law except appeal
c. Reviewed by police
d. Modified by Authorized Officer
163. Under Section 16, any transfer of money or property after issuance of notice under Section 14 shall be:
a. Valid transfer
b. Registered transfer
c. Void for the purposes of proceedings under the Act
d. Subject to approval of State Government
164. If property is later confiscated under Section 15, such transfer shall be deemed:
a. Valid and enforceable
b. Null and void
c. Conditional transfer
d. Transfer to Government only
165. Section 16 applies when transfer takes place after:
a. FIR registration
b. Arrest of accused
c. Issue of notice under Section 14
d. Filing of appeal
166. Appeal against order of Authorized Officer under Section 17 lies to:
a. Supreme Court
b. High Court
c. Sessions Court
d. District Court
167. The limitation period for appeal under Section 17 is:
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
168. The High Court while hearing appeal under Section 17 may:
a. Only confirm order
b. Only reject appeal
c. Pass such order as it thinks fit after hearing parties
d. Only remand case
169. Appeal under Section 17 should preferably be disposed within:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
170. Any stay order granted in appeal shall not remain in force beyond:
a. 30 days
b. 3 months
c. prescribed period of disposal of appeal
d. 1 year
171. Section 16 declares transfer of property after notice under Section 14 as:
a. Valid in all cases
b. Relevant only for civil law
c. Void for proceedings under the Act
d. Subject to criminal trial only
172. The appellate power under Section 17 is exercised by:
a. Administrative discretion only
b. Judicial discretion after hearing parties
c. State Government approval
d. Police authority
173. Under Section 18(1), after confiscation of property, the Authorized Officer shall direct the person affected to surrender possession within:
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
174. The order to surrender possession under Section 18(1) may be served upon:
a. Only the accused
b. Only police officer
c. Person affected and any other person in possession
d. Only State Government
175. Under the proviso to Section 18(1), the Authorized Officer may permit occupation of the property for a limited period on payment of:
a. Penalty
b. Market rent to the State Government
c. Stamp duty
d. Compensation to police
176. The permission to occupy confiscated property is granted when:
a. Property is vacant
b. Person affected is residing in the property
c. Property is already sold
d. Appeal is pending
177. After the permitted period, the person must:
a. Continue occupation
b. Sell the property
c. Deliver vacant possession
d. File fresh application
178. If a person fails to comply with the order under Section 18(1), the Authorized Officer may:
a. Close proceedings
b. Take possession using necessary force
c. Transfer case to police
d. Cancel confiscation order
179. For taking possession under Section 18, the Authorized Officer may:
a. Request income tax officer
b. Requisition services of police officer
c. Seek approval of High Court
d. Ask complainant for assistance
180. It is the duty of the police officer when requisitioned under Section 18(3) to:
a. Refuse assistance
b. Comply with requisition
c. Seek court permission
d. Act only if directed by State Government
181. Section 18 deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Confiscation notice
c. Power to take possession of confiscated property
d. Trial procedure
182. Possession under Section 18 must be surrendered within:
a. 15 days of order
b. 30 days of service of order
c. 60 days of judgment
d. 90 days of notice
183. Under Section 19, confiscated money or property is returned when:
a. Only appeal is filed
b. Order of Authorized Officer is passed
c. Confiscation is modified or annulled in appeal or accused is acquitted
d. FIR is quashed
184. Refund under Section 19 is applicable when:
a. Only investigation is pending
b. Special Court has framed charges
c. Person affected is acquitted by Special Court
d. Police report is filed
185. If return of confiscated property is not possible, the person affected shall be paid:
a. Only principal amount
b. Market value without interest
c. Price of property along with interest
d. Only interest amount
186. The rate of interest payable under Section 19 is:
a. 3% per annum
b. 5% per annum
c. 6% per annum
d. 10% per annum
187. Interest under Section 19 is calculated from:
a. Date of FIR
b. Date of judgment of Special Court
c. Date of confiscation
d. Date of appeal filing
188. Refund under Section 19 is triggered when:
a. Only police closes investigation
b. Confiscation order is modified or annulled in appeal or acquittal occurs
c. Only bail is granted
d. Only notice under Section 14 is issued
189. Section 19 ensures return of:
a. Only property
b. Only money
c. Money or property or both
d. Only movable property
190. If property cannot be returned under Section 19, compensation includes:
a. Only depreciated value
b. Only penalty amount
c. Price of property with 5% annual interest
d. Only fixed compensation without interest
191. Under Section 20, a notice or order under the Act shall not be invalid due to error in description if:
a. The error is intentional
b. The property or person is not mentioned at all
c. The property or person is identifiable from the description
d. The order is passed without jurisdiction
192. Section 20 protects validity of notice/order when:
a. There is no investigation
b. There is minor error in description but identification is possible
c. There is no FIR
d. There is delay in trial
193. Section 21 provides that the Act is:
a. In derogation of all other laws
b. In addition to other laws
c. Replacement of CrPC
d. Only applicable to IPC offences
194. Under Section 21, provisions of the Act are:
a. Exclusive and overriding all laws
b. In addition to and not in derogation of other laws
c. Applicable only in civil matters
d. Subject to High Court Rules only
195. Section 21 states that a public servant is not exempt from:
a. Civil proceedings only
b. Criminal proceedings only
c. Any proceeding which might otherwise be instituted against him
d. Only departmental enquiry
196. Section 22 creates a bar on:
a. Criminal trials
b. Appeal to High Court
c. Suits or legal proceedings regarding confiscated property
d. Investigation by police
197. No suit or legal proceeding shall be maintainable in respect of property:
a. Only under Section 14
b. Ordered to be confiscated under Section 15
c. Under investigation stage
d. Seized by police
198. The bar under Section 22 is subject to:
a. Sections 3 and 5 only
b. Sections 9 and 17
c. Section 14 only
d. No exceptions at all
199. Section 22 operates:
a. Only before trial
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law
c. Only with State Government permission
d. Only in civil courts
200. Section 20 deals with:
a. Appeal procedure
b. Invalidity due to error in description
c. Confiscation appeal
d. Trial procedure
201. Under Section 23, protection is given for acts done:
a. In negligence
b. In good faith
c. In mala fide intention
d. Without authority
202. Section 23 bars:
a. Only civil suits
b. Only appeals
c. Suits, prosecution or other legal proceedings for acts done in good faith
d. Only departmental inquiry
203. Under Section 24, rules under the Act may be made by:
a. High Court
b. State Government
c. Parliament
d. District Collector
204. Rules under Section 24 are made by:
a. Ordinance
b. Notification
c. Judgment
d. Gazette notification by Supreme Court
205. Rules made under Section 24 must be laid before:
a. Parliament
b. State Legislative Assembly
c. Supreme Court
d. High Court
206. Section 25 provides that in case of inconsistency, the Act shall:
a. Yield to IPC
b. Be suspended
c. Prevail over other laws
d. Be referred to President
207. Section 25 contains:
a. No overriding clause
b. A non-obstante clause giving overriding effect
c. Only procedural rules
d. Only appeal provisions
208. Under Section 26, power to remove difficulties can be exercised by:
a. High Court
b. Supreme Court
c. State Government
d. Parliament
209. Orders under Section 26 must be:
a. Contrary to Constitution
b. Inconsistent with Act provisions
c. Not inconsistent with provisions of the Act
d. Approved by Parliament
210. Power to remove difficulties under Section 26 is available up to:
a. 1 year from commencement
b. 2 years from commencement
c. 3 years from commencement
d. 5 years from commencement
MP Vishesh Nyayalaya Adhiniyam MCQs PDF