Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 Paper-2

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Bihar Prohibition MCQs Set -1

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Bihar Prohibition MCQs Set -5

Bihar Prohibition MCQs Set -6

Bihar Prohibition MCQs Set -7

1. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in the definition of “premises”?

a. Land

b. Vehicle

c. Aircraft

d. Hotel

2. Under the Act, “rectification” refers to—

a. Dilution of alcohol with water

b. Purification, coloring or flavoring of spirit by mixing materials with it

c. Fermentation of grains

d. Storage of liquor in bonded warehouses

3. Rectification includes processes whereby spirit is—

a. Purified

b. Colored

c. Flavored by mixing materials

d. All of the above

4. “Rectified spirit” under the Act refers to—

a. Denatured alcohol only

b. Un-denatured alcohol including absolute alcohol and extra neutral alcohol

c. Fermented liquor only

d. Industrial alcohol only

5. Rectified spirit includes alcohol derived from—

a. Fruits only

b. Molasses only

c. Malt as specified by BIS standards

d. Sugarcane juice only

6. Under the Act, “Rules” means—

a. Executive orders issued by the State Government

b. Rules made under this Act

c. Circulars issued by the Excise Commissioner

d. Notifications issued by the Collector

7. Which of the following Acts is included under the definition of “relevant laws”?

a. Indian Power Alcohol Act, 1948

b. Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955

c. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

d. All of the above

8. The Indian Power Alcohol Act referred to under “relevant laws” was enacted in—

a. 1945

b. 1948

c. 1952

d. 1955

9. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act mentioned in “relevant laws” is—

a. Act 52 of 1984

b. Act 61 of 1985

c. Act 45 of 1986

d. Act 30 of 1987

10. “Special duty” under the Act refers to—

a. Tax imposed on manufacture of liquor

b. Tax on export of excisable articles

c. Tax on import of an excisable article when countervailing duty cannot be imposed

d. Additional tax on sale of liquor

11. Special duty is imposed when countervailing duty under Entry 51 of List II of the Seventh Schedule cannot be levied because—

a. The article is imported illegally

b. The article is not manufactured or produced in the territory where the Act applies

c. The article is exempt from taxation

d. The article is meant for industrial use only

12. Under the Act, “spirit” means—

a. Any liquor obtained by fermentation only

b. Any liquor containing alcohol obtained by distillation

c. Alcohol obtained only from molasses

d. Industrial alcohol only

13. Spirit under the Act may be—

a. Only denatured

b. Only undenatured

c. Whether denatured or not

d. Only medicinal

14. “Spirituous preparation” includes—

a. Medicinal or toilet preparation containing alcohol

b. Antiseptic preparation containing alcohol

c. Flavoring extract or syrup containing alcohol

d. All of the above

15. Which of the following is an example of spirituous preparation under the Act?

a. Antiseptic solution containing alcohol

b. Flavoring essence containing alcohol

c. Medicinal preparation containing alcohol

d. All of the above

16. “Spurious liquor” means liquor which—

a. Is manufactured legally in a distillery

b. Has been adulterated to cause intoxication and is harmful to consumers

c. Is imported without license

d. Is diluted with water

17. Under the Act, a “still” refers to—

a. A storage container for liquor

b. Any apparatus or part thereof used for distillation or manufacture of spirit

c. A fermentation tank only

d. A bottling machine

18. The term “State Government” under the Act refers to—

a. The Government of India

b. The Government of Bihar

c. The Excise Department

d. The District Administration

19. “Tari” refers to—

a. Distilled alcohol from molasses

b. Fermented or unfermented juice drawn from coconut, palmyra, date or other palm trees

c. Wine prepared from fruits

d. Alcohol derived from grains

20. Tari may be obtained from which of the following trees?

a. Coconut tree

b. Palmyra tree

c. Date palm

d. All of the above

21. Under the Act, a “temporary structure” refers to—

a. A structure permanently fixed to the ground

b. A structure requiring deep foundation

c. A structure that does not require foundation and is easy to dismantle

d. A government building used for storage

22. A temporary structure under the Act is characterized by—

a. Permanent construction

b. Easy dismantling and change in configuration

c. Mandatory sealing facility

d. Permanent licensing requirement

23. One of the features of a temporary structure under the Act is that it—

a. Can be completely sealed

b. Cannot be sealed completely for the purpose of the Act

c. Must be constructed with cement foundation

d. Must be attached to a warehouse

24. “Transit” under the Act refers to movement—

a. Within a district

b. From one place to another within Bihar

c. From one State to another through the State of Bihar

d. From Bihar to a foreign country

25. “Transport” under the Act means—

a. Movement of liquor across customs frontiers

b. Removal from one place to another within the State of Bihar

c. Movement from Bihar to another country

d. Export of liquor outside India

26. The term “warehouse” under the Act refers to—

a. A place where liquor is manufactured

b. A place where storage of liquor or intoxicant is permitted

c. A place where liquor is sold to consumers

d. A police storage facility

27. The definition of warehouse under the Act also includes—

a. Retail shops

b. Bars and restaurants

c. Relevant part of the manufactory used for storage

d. Police stations

28. “Wine” under the Act refers to—

a. Distilled spirit made from molasses

b. Fermented juice of grapes or other fruits

c. Synthetic alcohol used in beverages

d. Alcohol derived from grains only

29. Wine under the Act may contain alcohol that is—

a. Artificially added only

b. Self-generated through fermentation

c. Produced by distillation

d. Chemically synthesized

30. Wine may be prepared from—

a. Grapes only

b. Grapes or other fruits with or without addition of sugar or jaggery

c. Only apples

d. Molasses only

31. The definition of wine under the Act also includes—

a. Distilled wine

b. Fortified wine

c. Industrial wine

d. Synthetic wine

32. “Winery” under the Act refers to—

a. A retail shop selling wine

b. Premises where wine is manufactured

c. A place where wine is consumed

d. A place where grapes are stored

33. The definition of winery includes—

a. Only the manufacturing unit

b. Only fermentation chambers

c. Every place within the premises where wine is stored or issued

d. Only bottling units

34. Section 3 of the Act deals with—

a. Grant of licenses

b. Power to declare intoxicant

c. Manufacture of liquor

d. Storage of excisable articles

35. The power to declare any item or commodity as an intoxicant under Section 3 is vested in—

a. The Excise Commissioner

b. The Collector

c. The State Government

d. The Board of Revenue

36. The State Government may declare certain items or commodities as intoxicants by issuing—

a. A circular

b. A notification in the Official Gazette

c. An executive order

d. A departmental memorandum

37. Section 3 begins with the expression “Notwithstanding anything mentioned under subsection (40) of section 2,” which implies that—

a. Section 3 overrides the provisions of Section 2(40) if necessary

b. Section 2(40) overrides Section 3

c. Both provisions apply simultaneously without priority

d. Section 3 applies only after approval of Section 2

38. Under Section 3, the State Government may declare which of the following as intoxicants?

a. Items or commodities that can be used as substitutes for alcohol

b. Only fermented liquor

c. Only country liquor

d. Only imported liquor

39. Chemical ingredients capable of being used as substitutes for alcohol may be declared intoxicants under Section 3—

a. By order of the District Magistrate

b. By notification issued by the State Government

c. By recommendation of the Excise Commissioner only

d. By resolution of the State Legislature

40. The declaration of intoxicants under Section 3 may apply to—

a. The entire Act

b. Any portion of the Act

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Only excise revenue provisions

41. While declaring any item as an intoxicant under Section 3, the State Government may impose—

a. Only tax conditions

b. No conditions or restrictions

c. Restrictions or conditions specified in the notification

d. Only criminal penalties

42. The purpose of Section 3 is primarily to regulate—

a. Sale of liquor

b. Substances that can act as substitutes for alcohol

c. Manufacturing units of liquor

d. Licensing authorities

43. Section 4 of the Act deals with—

a. Power to declare intoxicants

b. Saving of certain Acts

c. Manufacture of liquor

d. Licensing of premises

44. Section 4 provides that nothing in this Act shall affect the provisions of—

a. Certain specified Central Acts

b. Only State Excise laws

c. Municipal laws only

d. Police regulations only

45. Which of the following Acts is specifically protected under Section 4 of this Act?

a. Customs Act, 1962

b. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988

c. Income Tax Act, 1961

d. Companies Act, 2013

46. The Customs Act mentioned in Section 4 was enacted in—

a. 1956

b. 1960

c. 1962

d. 1972

47. The Customs Act referred to in Section 4 is—

a. Act 51 of 1962

b. Act 52 of 1962

c. Act 53 of 1962

d. Act 54 of 1962

48. Which of the following Acts is also saved from the operation of this Act under Section 4?

a. The Cantonments Act, 2006

b. The Police Act, 1861

c. The Army Act, 1950

d. The Forest Act, 1927

49. The Cantonments Act referred to in Section 4 was enacted in—

a. 1999

b. 2004

c. 2006

d. 2008

50. The Cantonments Act mentioned in Section 4 is—

a. Act 39 of 2006

b. Act 40 of 2006

c. Act 41 of 2006

d. Act 42 of 2006

51. The effect of Section 4 is that—

a. The provisions of this Act override the Customs Act

b. The provisions of this Act override the Cantonments Act

c. The provisions of this Act do not affect the Customs Act and Cantonments Act

d. Both Acts become subordinate to this Act

52. Section 5 of the Act deals with—

a. Powers of Excise Officers

b. Appointment of Excise Commissioner

c. Licensing of liquor shops

d. Manufacture of intoxicants

53. The authority empowered to appoint the Excise Commissioner under Section 5 is—

a. The Governor of Bihar

b. The State Government

c. The Board of Revenue

d. The District Magistrate

54. The appointment of the Excise Commissioner under Section 5 is made by—

a. Executive order

b. Notification

c. Government circular

d. Legislative resolution

55. The Excise Commissioner appointed under Section 5 is responsible for—

a. Collection of customs duty

b. Administration of this Act

c. Judicial proceedings under the Act

d. Issuance of passports

56. The appointment of the Excise Commissioner must be notified—

a. Through departmental notice

b. Through a notification issued by the State Government

c. Through district administration orders

d. Through police headquarters

57. The Excise Commissioner under this Act functions primarily as—

a. A judicial authority

b. An administrative authority responsible for implementing the Act

c. A taxation authority under the Income Tax Act

d. A municipal authority

58. Section 6 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Power to declare intoxicants

c. Licensing of liquor shops

d. Export of liquor

59. The authority empowered to confer the powers of an Excise Officer under Section 6 is—

a. The Excise Commissioner

b. The Board of Revenue

c. The State Government

d. The District Magistrate

60. The State Government may confer the powers of Excise Officer on which of the following officers?

a. Excise Commissioner

b. Additional Commissioner

c. Joint Commissioner

d. All of the above

61. Which of the following officers may be granted the powers of an Excise Officer under Section 6?

a. Deputy Commissioner

b. Assistant Commissioner

c. Excise Superintendent

d. All of the above

62. Under Section 6, the State Government may also confer the powers of Excise Officer on—

a. Excise Deputy Superintendents and Inspectors

b. Only District Magistrates

c. Only police officers

d. Only customs officers

63. Besides specified officers, the State Government may confer powers of Excise Officer on—

a. Any officer or staff it deems fit

b. Only judicial officers

c. Only officers of the Revenue Department

d. Only police officers

64. The officers on whom powers are conferred under Section 6 perform functions—

a. Under the Indian Penal Code

b. Under this Act

c. Under the Customs Act

d. Under the Motor Vehicles Act

65. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 6 as an officer who may be given powers of an Excise Officer?

a. Joint Commissioner

b. Excise Inspector

c. Excise Superintendent

d. District Judge

66. Section 7 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Delegation and withdrawal of powers

c. Licensing of warehouses

d. Manufacture of liquor

67. Under Section 7(1), the State Government may delegate its powers to—

a. The Board

b. The Excise Commissioner

c. The Collector

d. All of the above

68. Delegation of powers by the State Government under Section 7 must be made through—

a. A circular

b. An order of delegation

c. A government memorandum

d. A police notification

69. Delegation of powers under Section 7 may be subject to—

a. No restrictions

b. Limitations and conditions specified in the order

c. Only financial conditions

d. Only procedural conditions

70. The State Government may withdraw delegated powers—

a. Only from the Excise Commissioner

b. Only from the Collector

c. From any officer or person to whom such powers were delegated

d. Only from the Board

71. Withdrawal of delegated powers by the State Government is done through—

a. A legislative amendment

b. A court order

c. An order issued by the State Government

d. A police notification

72. Under Section 7(2), the State Government may withdraw—

a. Only financial powers

b. Only administrative powers

c. Any or all of the powers delegated

d. Only licensing powers

73. Delegation of powers under Section 7 is primarily intended to—

a. Transfer legislative authority

b. Facilitate administrative functioning under the Act

c. Replace the authority of the State Government

d. Establish judicial tribunals

74. Section 8 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Role of the Collector

c. Licensing of warehouses

d. Manufacture of liquor

75. Under Section 8(1), the Collector of the district is responsible for—

a. Licensing of liquor shops only

b. Complete prohibition in accordance with the provisions of the Act

c. Export of liquor

d. Customs enforcement

76. The Collector shall ensure the administration of this Act—

a. Throughout India

b. Within the State only through the Excise Commissioner

c. In the area of his jurisdiction

d. Only within municipal areas

77. Under Section 8(2), the Collector is responsible for matters connected with—

a. Licensing of warehouses

b. Effective prosecution of cases filed under the Act

c. Import of liquor

d. Customs duty collection

78. The Collector is competent to exercise which of the following powers under the Act?

a. Powers of the Excise Officer

b. Powers of the High Court

c. Powers of the Police Commissioner

d. Powers of the Customs Authority

79. The State Government may confer the powers of the Collector on—

a. Any police officer

b. Any excise officer not below the rank of Inspector

c. Only the District Magistrate

d. Only the Excise Commissioner

80. The State Government may also confer the powers of the Collector on an officer of the revenue department not below the rank of—

a. Tehsildar

b. Inspector

c. Deputy Collector

d. Commissioner

81. Conferment of the powers of the Collector under Section 8(4) is done by—

a. Administrative order of the Collector

b. Notification issued by the State Government

c. Court order

d. Police order

82. Officers empowered with the powers of the Collector may be assigned—

a. Only financial duties

b. Only investigative powers

c. Such designations, powers and duties as the State Government thinks fit

d. Only licensing authority

83. Section 9 of the Act deals with—

a. Powers of Excise Commissioner

b. Role of the Superintendent of Police

c. Duties of the Collector

d. Licensing of liquor

84. Under Section 9, the Superintendent of Police shall assist whom in ensuring complete prohibition?

a. Excise Commissioner

b. Collector

c. State Government

d. Board of Revenue

85. The Superintendent of Police works under the direct control and superintendence of—

a. The Excise Commissioner

b. The State Government

c. The Collector

d. The Board of Revenue

86. Under Section 9, the Superintendent of Police is required to enforce lawful directions issued by—

a. The Collector

b. The Excise Commissioner

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. The District Court

87. The directions to be enforced by the Superintendent of Police must be—

a. Oral orders only

b. Administrative instructions only

c. Lawful directions issued under the Act

d. Orders issued by any police officer

88. The Superintendent of Police is required to submit reports as desired by—

a. Only the Collector

b. Only the Excise Commissioner

c. Both the Collector and the Excise Commissioner

d. The State Legislature

89. The reports submitted by the Superintendent of Police must be—

a. Submitted annually only

b. Submitted orally

c. Submitted in such manner as required by the Collector or the Excise Commissioner

d. Submitted only to the police headquarters

90. The primary purpose of assigning duties to the Superintendent of Police under Section 9 is to—

a. Assist in the enforcement of prohibition under the Act

b. Conduct revenue collection

c. Issue liquor licenses

d. Manage bonded warehouses

91. Section 10 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Powers and functions of the Excise Commissioner

c. Licensing of liquor shops

d. Export of intoxicants

92. Under Section 10, the Excise Commissioner is responsible for enforcing—

a. Excise taxation only

b. Complete prohibition in the State in accordance with the provisions of the Act

c. Import duties on liquor

d. Customs regulations

93. The Excise Commissioner shall promote the culture of non-drinking by—

a. Increasing taxation on liquor

b. Conducting police raids

c. Creating social awareness and making prohibition a voluntary effort

d. Restricting import of liquor

94. The Excise Commissioner is empowered to regulate and monitor which of the following activities relating to intoxicants?

a. Manufacture

b. Possession

c. Import, export and transport

d. All of the above

95. One of the functions of the Excise Commissioner is to curb—

a. Legal sale of liquor

b. Illegal trade in liquor and illicit distillation

c. Import of beverages

d. Retail licensing

96. The Excise Commissioner is responsible for protecting—

a. Customs revenue

b. Excise revenue

c. Income tax revenue

d. Sales tax revenue

97. The Excise Commissioner must ensure—

a. Delay in recovery of revenue

b. Prompt recovery of excise revenue

c. Waiver of taxes

d. Judicial review of revenue

98. Under Section 10, the Excise Commissioner is required to submit returns and information to—

a. The Collector

b. The Board of Revenue

c. The State Government

d. The High Court

99. The returns and information submitted by the Excise Commissioner relate to—

a. Only licensing matters

b. Only enforcement actions

c. All matters concerning excise under the Act or the rules

d. Only revenue collection

100. The Excise Commissioner may also perform—

a. Only the functions expressly written in the Act

b. Only judicial functions

c. Such other functions and powers as may be entrusted or delegated from time to time

d. Only taxation powers

101. Section 11 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Excise Intelligence Bureau

c. Licensing of warehouses

d. Excise revenue collection

102. Under Section 11(1), there shall be established a—

a. State Excise Tribunal

b. Excise Intelligence Bureau

c. Revenue Intelligence Unit

d. Prohibition Monitoring Authority

103. The Excise Intelligence Bureau is headed by—

a. The Collector

b. The Superintendent of Police

c. The Excise Commissioner

d. The Board of Revenue

104.The Excise Intelligence Bureau shall consist of—

a. Only police officers

b. Excise officers and staff appointed by the State Government

c. Only revenue officers

d. Officers appointed by the High Court

105. Apart from officers appointed by the State Government, additional officers and staff for the Bureau may be appointed by—

a. The Collector

b. The Superintendent of Police

c. The Excise Commissioner with prior approval of the State Government

d. The Board of Revenue

106. One of the primary objectives of the Excise Intelligence Bureau is to—

a. Promote foreign trade in liquor

b. Work towards the success of complete prohibition of liquor and intoxicants

c. Grant liquor licenses

d. Fix taxation on alcohol

107. The Excise Intelligence Bureau is responsible for—

a. Collecting intelligence related to excise offences

b. Maintaining surveillance over excise offences

c. Maintaining records and details of excise offences

d. All of the above

108. The Bureau is tasked with collecting and disseminating information regarding—

a. Licensed liquor manufacturers

b. Habitual or notorious excise offenders

c. Government officers

d. Import-export traders

109. The Excise Intelligence Bureau monitors which of the following in relation to offences under the Act?

a. Detection of offences

b. Investigation of offences

c. Trial of offences

d. All of the above

110. The primary role of the Excise Intelligence Bureau under the Act is to strengthen—

a. Revenue administration

b. Judicial administration

c. Enforcement and intelligence related to prohibition and excise offences

d. Customs regulation

111. Section 12 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Persons with special powers

c. Licensing of liquor premises

d. Export of intoxicants

112. Under Section 12, the authority empowered to grant special powers to persons is—

a. The Excise Commissioner

b. The Collector

c. The State Government

d. The Board of Revenue

113. The State Government may grant special powers under Section 12 by issuing—

a. A circular

b. A notification

c. An executive order

d. A police directive

114. The special powers under Section 12 may be granted to—

a. Only excise officers

b. Any government functionary not being an excise officer

c. Only police officers

d. Only revenue officers

115. The purpose of granting special powers under Section 12 is to—

a. Increase excise revenue

b. Strengthen the regime of prohibition

c. Promote liquor trade

d. Facilitate export of liquor

116. A government functionary empowered under Section 12 may perform—

a. Only administrative duties

b. All or any of the functions of an excise officer

c. Only investigative duties

d. Only revenue collection

117. A person empowered under Section 12 shall, while exercising such powers, be deemed to be—

a. A police officer

b. A judicial officer

c. An excise officer

d. A revenue officer

118. The powers granted under Section 12 may include—

a. All functions of an excise officer

b. Any specific functions of an excise officer as specified

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. Only licensing functions

119. Section 13 of the Act deals with—

a. Appointment of Excise Officers

b. Prohibition of liquor or intoxicants

c. Export of liquor

d. Regulation of warehouses

120. Under Section 13, which of the following activities relating to liquor or intoxicants is prohibited?

a. Manufacture

b. Possession

c. Sale or consumption

d. All of the above

121. Under the Act, no person shall bottle or distribute intoxicants unless—

a. Authorized under the provisions of the Act

b. Permitted by local authorities

c. Permitted by police officers

d. Permitted by municipal authorities

122. Which of the following activities concerning intoxicants is specifically prohibited under Section 13?

a. Transport

b. Storage

c. Purchase

d. All of the above

123. The State Government may allow renewal of licenses relating to intoxicants by issuing—

a. A circular

b. A notification

c. A departmental order

d. A judicial order

124. Renewal of existing licenses under the proviso to Section 13 may relate to—

a. Manufacturing

b. Blending and compounding

c. Bottling, storage, import and export

d. All of the above

125. The renewal of licenses under Section 13 is subject to—

a. Provisions of this Act

b. Approval of the Collector only

c. Approval of the police department

d. Municipal regulations

126. The State Government may allow which of the following entities to undertake activities related to liquor under the Act?

a. Private traders only

b. State-owned companies

c. Municipal corporations

d. Police departments

127. Under the explanation to Section 13, the term “existing licensee” refers to—

a. Persons holding licenses issued after the Act

b. Persons or firms holding a valid license on the day the Act came into force

c. Any licensed trader in India

d. Only government companies

128. The prohibition under Section 13 applies to—

a. Only individuals

b. Only firms

c. Every person unless permitted under the Act

d. Only licensed manufacturers

129. Section 14 of the Act deals with—

a. Licensing of liquor shops

b. Movement of intoxicants

c. Manufacture of liquor

d. Excise revenue recovery

130. Under Section 14(1), liquor, intoxicants, or final products may be imported, exported, transported, or transited only with—

a. Police permission

b. Valid permit

c. Municipal authorization

d. Court order

131. Movement of liquor or intoxicants under Section 14 is subject to—

a. Payment of customs duty only

b. Payment of such duty as may be payable

c. Approval of local authorities

d. Permission of the police department

132. When liquor or intoxicants are transported from a place outside Bihar to another place outside Bihar through Bihar by road, the driver must obtain—

a. Import license

b. Transit permission

c. Export permit

d. Warehouse permit

133. Transit permission for such transportation must be obtained from—

a. The District Magistrate

b. The authority at the first check-post after entry into the State

c. The Excise Commissioner

d. The nearest police station

134. The transit permission obtained must be surrendered to—

a. The authority of the first check-post

b. The Collector

c. The authority of the last check-post before leaving the State

d. The police headquarters

135. If transit permission is not surrendered within the stipulated time after leaving the first check-post, it shall be deemed that—

a. The consignment has been seized by the government

b. The liquor or intoxicants have been sold or disposed of within the State of Bihar

c. The goods have been returned to the origin

d. The consignment has been confiscated automatically

136. Failure to comply with the provisions relating to transit permission may result in—

a. Only a warning

b. Levy of penalty by the State Government

c. Prosecution under Section 30 of the Act

d. Both (b) and (c)

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