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MP Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam MCQs Set-2
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1. Under Section 17, cause against payment of penalty must be shown to the satisfaction of the:
a. Police Officer
b. District Magistrate
c. Court
d. State Government
2. Section 18 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Delegation of powers and duties of District Magistrate
b. Temporary permission
c. Presumption in prosecutions
d. Penalty provisions
3. Section 18 begins with the expression:
a. Subject to the Constitution
b. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. Save as otherwise provided
d. Without prejudice to appeal
4. Under Section 18, the State Government may direct that powers of the District Magistrate be exercised by:
a. Village Panchayat
b. Additional District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate
c. High Court Judge
d. Superintendent of Jail
5. Delegation under Section 18 may be made for:
a. Entire India only
b. Such areas as may be specified in the order
c. Foreign territories
d. Parliament constituencies only
6. Section 19 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Sources of information not to be disclosed
c. Temporary permission
d. Penalties
7. Under Section 19, disclosure of sources of information is not required from:
a. Private individuals only
b. State Government and specified authorities
c. Courts only
d. Police constables only
8. Section 19 applies in relation to orders made under:
a. Sections 1 and 2 only
b. Sections 3, 4, 5, 6 and 13
c. Section 9 only
d. Section 18 only
9. Under Section 19, the State Government is not required to disclose information to:
a. Media only
b. Parliament only
c. Person against whom order is made or any Court of law
d. Police authorities only
10. Section 19 specifically mentions officers specially empowered under:
a. Section 8
b. Section 10
c. Section 13
d. Section 17
11. Section 19 also applies to Additional District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate empowered under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 12
c. Section 18
d. Section 20
12. The protection under Section 19 extends to facts whose communication may lead to disclosure of:
a. Government policy
b. Court proceedings
c. Identity or name of any informant
d. Revenue records
13. Disclosure may be withheld where, in the opinion of the authority, communication of facts might:
a. Delay investigation
b. Lead to disclosure of informant’s identity
c. Increase court fees
d. Affect election process
14. Section 19 begins with the expression:
a. Without prejudice to appeal
b. Subject to CrPC
c. Nothing in this Act shall be deemed to require
d. Save as otherwise provided
15. Under Section 19, the authorities protected from disclosure include:
a. District Magistrate and empowered magistrates
b. Gram Panchayat members only
c. Civil Courts only
d. Public prosecutors only
16. Section 20 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Collective fine
b. Appeal
c. Punishment for unlawful possession of corrosive substance
d. Delegation of powers
17. Under Section 20, punishment may be imposed on a person carrying:
a. Agricultural tools only
b. Corrosive substance or liquid under suspicious circumstances
c. Licensed firearms only
d. Household articles only
18. Section 20 applies where the circumstances give rise to reasonable suspicion that the corrosive substance is not possessed for:
a. Commercial object
b. Religious object
c. Lawful object
d. Scientific object
19. Under Section 20, the burden to show lawful possession lies on:
a. State Government
b. Police Officer
c. Court
d. Accused person
20. The maximum imprisonment prescribed under Section 20 is:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Three years
d. Five years
21. In addition to imprisonment under Section 20, the offender shall also be liable to:
a. Deportation
b. Fine
c. Community service only
d. Property confiscation only
22. Section 21 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Restriction order
b. Imposition of collective fine on inhabitants of area
c. Temporary permission
d. Presumption in prosecutions
23. Under Section 21(1)(a), collective fine may be imposed by:
a. High Court
b. District Magistrate
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police
24. Collective fine under Section 21 may be imposed where inhabitants are concerned in or abetting offences likely to result in:
a. Breach of contract only
b. Death or grievous hurt
c. Tax evasion only
d. Matrimonial disputes
25. Section 21(1)(a) specifically includes offences relating to:
a. Kidnapping for ransom
b. Civil defamation
c. Breach of trust by public servant only
d. Adoption disputes
26. Under Section 21(1), an order imposing collective fine shall also be published in:
a. Supreme Court reports only
b. At least one newspaper having circulation in the concerned area
c. National television only
d. Police diary only
27. The order imposing collective fine shall also be published in:
a. Any manner chosen by private persons
b. Such manner as the State Government considers best to notify inhabitants
c. Parliament proceedings only
d. Court notice board only
28. Under Section 21(2), exemption from liability to pay collective fine may be granted by:
a. High Court only
b. District Court only
c. State Government or empowered officer
d. Village Panchayat only
29. The exemption under Section 21(2) may relate to:
a. Entire fine or portion thereof
b. Imprisonment only
c. Court fees only
d. Civil damages only
30. Under Section 21(3), apportionment of collective fine is made by:
a. State Legislature
b. District Magistrate
c. Sessions Court
d. Revenue Inspector
31. Before apportioning collective fine, the District Magistrate may:
a. Conduct such inquiry as deemed necessary
b. Refer the matter compulsorily to High Court
c. Obtain consent of every inhabitant
d. Suspend the notification
32. The apportionment of collective fine shall be according to:
a. Equal distribution among all inhabitants
b. Direction of police authorities
c. District Magistrate’s judgment of the respective means of inhabitants
d. Electoral strength of inhabitants
33. Under Section 21(3), collective fine is apportioned among inhabitants who are:
a. Exempted from payment
b. Liable collectively to pay it
c. Below poverty line only
d. Government servants only
34. Section 21(4) authorizes the District Magistrate to fix the portion of fine payable by:
a. Public companies only
b. Joint or undivided family
c. Government departments only
d. Foreign nationals only
35. The power under Section 21(4) relates to:
a. Cancellation of collective fine
b. Apportionment of collective fine
c. Arrest of offenders
d. Grant of bail
36. Under Section 21, the portion of collective fine payable by an inhabitant may be recovered:
a. Only through civil suit
b. Only through attachment of salary
c. In the manner provided under CrPC or as arrears of land revenue
d. Only through imprisonment
37. Clause (a) of Section 21(5) provides recovery in the manner prescribed under:
a. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
b. Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
38. Under Section 21(5)(a), the recoverable portion of fine is treated as:
a. Tax arrear
b. Civil liability
c. Fine imposed by a Court
d. Compensation decree
39. The proviso to Section 21(5)(a) empowers the State Government to make rules under:
a. Indian Penal Code
b. This Act
c. Constitution of India
d. Evidence Act
40. The rules under the proviso relate to execution of warrants under:
a. Section 42(1)(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
b. Section 144 CrPC
c. Section 125 CrPC
d. Section 320 CrPC
41. The proviso also provides for summary determination of claims regarding:
a. Government property only
b. Attached property in execution of warrant
c. Agricultural disputes
d. Electoral rolls
42. Under Section 21(5)(b), collective fine may also be recovered as:
a. Arrears of electricity dues
b. Arrears of land revenue
c. Civil damages
d. Stamp duty
43. Section 21(5) applies to the portion of fine payable by:
a. Courts only
b. Inhabitants or joint or undivided families
c. State Government officers only
d. Police personnel only
44. Under Section 21(6), an order imposing collective fine may be:
a. Reviewed only by High Court
b. Revoked or modified by the State Government
c. Cancelled only after one year
d. Altered only by District Magistrate
45. The power to revoke or modify an order imposing collective fine may be exercised:
a. Only once
b. Only before recovery begins
c. At any time
d. Only after appeal
46. Section 22 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Collective fine
b. Control of camps, drills and parades
c. Appeals
d. Temporary permission
47. Under Section 22(1), the power to prohibit or restrict camps or drills is exercised by:
a. District Magistrate only
b. Sessions Court
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police
48. The State Government may act under Section 22(1) in the interest of:
a. Commercial development
b. Public security or maintenance of public order
c. Election campaigning
d. Tax recovery
49. Section 22(1) empowers the State Government to prohibit or restrict:
a. Civil court proceedings
b. Camps or exercises of military nature
c. Agricultural activities
d. Trade licences
50. Under Section 22(1), the prohibition or restriction may be imposed by:
a. Oral directions only
b. General or special order
c. Court decree only
d. Police notification only
51. Section 22(2) seeks to ensure that no unauthorized:
a. Election rally is held
b. Exercise, movement, evolution or drill of military nature is performed
c. Religious gathering occurs
d. Civil suit is filed
52. Under Section 22(2), the State Government may impose conditions on:
a. Sale of immovable property
b. Camps, parades, meetings, assemblies or processions
c. Judicial proceedings
d. Recruitment examinations
53. The restrictions under Section 22(2) may apply to:
a. Judges only
b. Any class of persons or organisations specified in the order
c. Government servants only
d. Foreign nationals only
54. Contravention of an order under Section 22 is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
55. Under Section 22(3), contravention may also be punishable with:
a. Fine or both imprisonment and fine
b. Deportation only
c. Property confiscation only
d. Civil compensation only
56. Section 23 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Control of uniforms
b. Collective fine
c. Temporary permission
d. Appeals
57. Under Section 23(1), the power to prohibit or restrict uniforms is exercised by:
a. District Magistrate
b. Sessions Court
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police
58. The State Government may act under Section 23 if wearing or display of certain uniforms is likely to prejudice:
a. Commercial activities
b. Public safety, maintenance of order or peace and tranquility
c. Educational institutions
d. Election process only
59. Section 23(1) refers to uniforms resembling those of:
a. Private security guards only
b. Armed Forces or police or forces constituted under law
c. School students only
d. Industrial workers only
60. Under Section 23(1), the State Government may prohibit or restrict:
a. Only military medals
b. Dress, article of apparel or emblem resembling official uniform
c. Religious symbols only
d. Government identity cards only
61. The prohibition or restriction under Section 23 may be imposed through:
a. Oral instructions
b. Judicial decree only
c. General or special order
d. Police diary entry
62. Under Section 23(2), a dress or emblem is deemed to be displayed in public if:
a. It is worn inside a private house only
b. It is visible to a person in a place accessible to the public
c. It is shown only to family members
d. It is kept in a closed container
63. Section 23(2) defines public display with reference to:
a. Visibility to a person in any place to which public have access
b. Publication in newspaper only
c. Exhibition before government officers only
d. Sale in market only
64. Contravention of an order under Section 23 is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
65. Under Section 23(3), punishment may include:
a. Fine or both imprisonment and fine
b. Death penalty
c. Deportation only
d. Property attachment only
66. Section 24 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Control of uniforms
b. Power to prohibit or restrict use of pathway, road, etc.
c. Collective fine
d. Appeals
67. Under Section 24(1), the power to prohibit or restrict use of roads or pathways is exercised by:
a. District Magistrate only
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police
68. The State Government may exercise powers under Section 24 for:
a. Commercial development only
b. Maintenance of public order or interest of general public
c. Election campaigning
d. Revenue collection
69. Under Section 24(1)(a), the State Government may prohibit or restrict the use of:
a. Railway stations only
b. Roads, pathways or waterways
c. Airports only
d. Private buildings only
70. Section 24(1)(b) empowers the State Government to prohibit or restrict:
a. Sale of vehicles
b. Passage of persons, animals or vehicles over land
c. Registration of land
d. Import of goods
71. The order under Section 24(1) may remain in force for a period not exceeding:
a. One month
b. Six months
c. Three months
d. One year
72. The restriction under Section 24 may be imposed by:
a. Oral direction
b. Judicial decree only
c. Order of the State Government
d. Police notice only
73. If any person contravenes an order under Section 24(1), he shall be punishable under:
a. Section 24(2)
b. Section 18
c. Section 9
d. Section 5
74. The maximum imprisonment for contravention under Section 24(2) may extend to:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
75. Under Section 24(2), punishment may include:
a. Fine or both imprisonment and fine
b. Deportation only
c. Civil attachment only
d. Community service only
76. Section 25 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Restriction orders
b. Protected place
c. Collective fine
d. Appeals
77. Under Section 25(1), a place may be declared a protected place by:
a. District Court
b. State Government
c. Superintendent of Police
d. Gram Panchayat
78. A place may be declared protected if the State Government considers it necessary in the interest of:
a. Trade and commerce
b. General public
c. Revenue administration
d. Election management
79. The purpose of declaring a protected place under Section 25(1) is to:
a. Promote tourism
b. Prevent entry of unauthorized persons
c. Encourage public meetings
d. Regulate taxation
80. Under Section 25(2), entry into a protected place without permission is prohibited from:
a. State Government or authorized authority
b. Family members only
c. Local Panchayat only
d. Private security agencies only
81. Section 25(2) also prohibits a person from:
a. Filing appeals
b. Loitering in the vicinity of a protected place
c. Carrying identity cards
d. Owning private property nearby
82. Permission under Section 25(2) may be granted by:
a. State Government, District Magistrate or authorized officer
b. Any police constable
c. Civil Court only
d. Municipal Corporation only
83. Under Section 25(3), a person entering a protected place with permission must:
a. Ignore official directions
b. Comply with directions regulating his conduct
c. Remain permanently at the place
d. Obtain court approval daily
84. Under Section 25(4), a person unlawfully remaining in a protected place may be removed by:
a. Any police officer or authorized person
b. Private citizen only
c. Civil Judge only
d. Revenue Inspector only
85. Contravention of Section 25 is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
86. Section 26 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Protected place
b. Protected area
c. Collective fine
d. Appeals
87. Under Section 26(1), a protected area may be declared by:
a. District Magistrate only
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Superintendent of Police
88. A protected area may be declared when the State Government considers it necessary in the interest of:
a. Commercial activities
b. General public
c. Tax collection
d. Electoral reforms
89. The object of declaring a protected area under Section 26(1) is to:
a. Regulate entry of persons into the area
b. Encourage migration
c. Promote tourism
d. Establish courts
90. Under Section 26(2), a person who was not immediately before the specified date resident in the protected area:
a. May freely enter without restriction
b. Can enter or remain only according to written permission
c. Automatically becomes resident
d. Needs oral permission only
91. The permission under Section 26(2) must be:
a. Oral
b. By newspaper notice
c. In writing
d. By village resolution
92. The authority granting permission under Section 26(2) shall be:
a. Any private individual
b. Authority or person specified in the order
c. Civil Court only
d. Media authority
93. Under Section 26(3), a person entering or remaining unlawfully in a protected area may be removed by:
a. Any police officer on duty or authorized person
b. Private citizen only
c. Revenue officer only
d. Civil Judge only
94. Removal under Section 26(3) is:
a. Prejudicial to other proceedings
b. Without prejudice to other proceedings that may be taken
c. Final acquittal of the person
d. Subject to civil decree only
95. Contravention of Section 26 is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
96. Section 27 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Protected area
b. Forcing or evading guard
c. Collective fine
d. Appeal
97. Section 27 applies to a person who effects or attempts to effect entry into:
a. Court premises only
b. Protected place or protected area
c. Government office only
d. Educational institution only
98. Under Section 27(a), the offence may be committed by:
a. Filing false affidavit
b. Using or threatening to use criminal force
c. Refusing to pay fine
d. Violating traffic rules
99. The criminal force under Section 27(a) must be directed against:
a. Any private citizen
b. Person posted for protecting or controlling access
c. Family members only
d. Revenue authorities only
100. Section 27(b) punishes a person who attempts entry:
a. After obtaining permission
b. After concealing his entry or attempted entry
c. By public announcement
d. Through written application
101. The maximum imprisonment under Section 27 may extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
102. Under Section 27, punishment may also include:
a. Fine or both imprisonment and fine
b. Deportation only
c. Civil compensation only
d. Property attachment only
103. Section 28 empowers the State Government to make orders regarding:
a. Election disputes
b. Certain places and areas
c. Civil decrees
d. Tax assessments
104. Under Section 28(b), special precautions may be taken for preventing or suppressing:
a. Revenue loss
b. Subversive acts
c. Matrimonial disputes
d. Breach of contract
105. Under Section 28, the State Government may control or regulate:
a. Admission and conduct of persons in or near such place or area
b. Judicial appointments
c. Transfer of immovable property
d. Educational curriculum
106. Under Section 28(2)(a), orders may provide for:
a. Collection of land revenue
b. Restricting admission of persons to a place or area
c. Conducting elections
d. Granting bail
107. Section 28(2)(a) also authorizes removal of a person who:
a. Files appeal against the order
b. Is present in contravention of the order
c. Pays prescribed fees
d. Holds government office
108. Under Section 28(2)(b), presence of persons in a specified place or area may be required to be notified to:
a. High Court
b. Prescribed Authority
c. Gram Panchayat
d. Revenue Court
109. Section 28(2)(b) may require a convicted person to:
a. Leave the State permanently
b. Report his movements
c. Surrender citizenship
d. Pay compensation immediately
110. Under Section 28(2)(c), persons in a specified area may be required to carry:
a. Property documents
b. Documentary evidence of identity
c. Court decrees
d. Educational certificates only
111. Section 28(2)(d) authorizes prohibition on possession or control of:
a. Agricultural land
b. Specified articles
c. Educational books
d. Household utensils
112. Under Section 28(3), an order relating to a protected place or protected area may:
a. Repeal the Act
b. Exempt such place or area from provisions of the Act
c. Amend the Constitution
d. Dissolve local bodies
113. Section 28(3) also permits application of provisions:
a. Only without modification
b. Subject to modifications specified in the order
c. Only after judicial approval
d. Only for one month
114. Under Section 28(4), provisions applicable to protected places or areas may also be applied to:
a. Places or areas not declared protected
b. Foreign territories only
c. Parliament buildings only
d. Private factories only
115. Contravention of an order under Section 28 is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
116. Section 29 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Appeals
b. Delegation of powers and duties of State Government
c. Protected places
d. Collective fine
117. Under Section 29, the State Government may delegate its powers by:
a. Judicial order only
b. Gazette notification only
c. Order
d. Legislative amendment
118. Section 29 permits delegation of powers to an officer:
a. Of any rank
b. Not below the rank of District Magistrate
c. Not below the rank of Police Constable
d. Not below the rank of Village Secretary
119. Under Section 29, the State Government cannot delegate the power of:
a. Declaring protected area
b. Imposing collective fines under Section 21
c. Granting temporary permission
d. Removing persons from district
120. Section 29 also excludes delegation of the power of:
a. Framing rules under Section 30
b. Arresting offenders
c. Hearing appeals
d. Issuing notices
121. Delegation under Section 29 may be made:
a. Without any conditions
b. Subject to conditions specified in the direction
c. Only for one month
d. Only during emergency
122. Section 30 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 relates to:
a. Appeals
b. Rules
c. Penalties
d. Protected areas
123. Under Section 30(1), the State Government may make rules:
a. Without publication
b. After previous publication
c. Only after court approval
d. Only through ordinance
124. The rules under Section 30 are made to:
a. Amend the Constitution
b. Carry out the purposes of the Act
c. Regulate elections
d. Create civil courts
125. Under Section 31, a person who abets or attempts to commit an offence under the Act shall be punishable:
a. With fine only
b. With half of the prescribed punishment
c. With the punishment provided for the offence
d. Only with warning
126. Section 32 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Indemnity
b. Penalty for harbouring offenders
c. Rule-making power
d. Appeals
127. Under Section 32, a person is punishable if he knowingly:
a. Files an appeal
b. Aids, abets, harbours or conceals an offender
c. Reports an offence
d. Assists police investigation
128. The punishment under Section 32 shall be:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment up to one year only
c. Punishment provided for such offence
d. Civil liability only
129. The Explanation to Section 32 states that “harbour” includes supplying:
a. Educational certificates
b. Shelter, food, drink or money
c. Judicial records only
d. Election materials only
130. Under the Explanation to Section 32, “harbour” also includes supplying:
a. Arms, ammunition or means of conveyance
b. Agricultural land only
c. Government employment
d. Court decrees
131. The Explanation to Section 32 further includes assisting a person:
a. To secure promotion
b. To evade apprehension
c. To obtain licence
d. To file civil suit
132. Section 33 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Indemnity
b. Collective fine
c. Appeals
d. Protected places
133. Under Section 33(1), no suit or prosecution shall lie for anything done:
a. Negligently
b. In good faith under the Act or rules/orders made thereunder
c. Without authority
d. Contrary to court order
134. Section 33(1) protects:
a. Only the State Government
b. Any person acting in good faith under the Act
c. Only police officers
d. Only District Magistrates
135. Under Section 33(2), no suit or legal proceeding shall lie against the Government for damage caused by anything done:
a. Mala fide
b. In good faith under the Act, rules or orders
c. Without jurisdiction
d. Contrary to statutory provisions
136. Section 34 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Search powers
b. Application of other laws not barred
c. Collective fine
d. Appeals
137. Under Section 34, the provisions of the Act are:
a. In derogation of all other laws
b. In substitution of CrPC
c. In addition to and not in derogation of other laws
d. Applicable only during emergency
138. Section 34 specifically refers to:
a. Constitution only
b. Any other Act, Ordinance or Regulation in force
c. Judicial precedents only
d. Municipal by-laws only
139. The expression “not in derogation of” in Section 34 means:
a. Repealing other laws
b. Superseding other laws
c. Not detracting from other laws
d. Invalidating all prior laws
140. Section 35 of the M.P. Rajya Suraksha Adhiniyam, 1990 deals with:
a. Search powers of police officers
b. Temporary permission
c. Rule-making power
d. Indemnity
141. Under Section 35, search may be conducted by:
a. Any police officer or authorized person
b. Any private citizen
c. Civil Judge only
d. Gram Panchayat only
142. Section 35 authorizes search of persons:
a. Entering, seeking to enter, being in, or leaving a protected place or area
b. Only residing permanently in the State
c. Appearing before court
d. Filing appeals
143. Under Section 35, search may also extend to:
a. Vehicles, vessels, animals or articles
b. Court buildings only
c. Government treasury only
d. Agricultural produce only
144. For the purpose of search under Section 35, the officer may:
a. Confiscate all property permanently
b. Detain the person or article concerned
c. Impose collective fine
d. Grant bail
145. The proviso to Section 35 provides that no woman shall be searched except by:
a. Any police officer
b. District Magistrate
c. A woman, with due regard to decency
d. Revenue officer
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