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Indian Polity MCQs (English Medium)
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1. The Constitution of India came into force on:
a. 15 August 1947
b. 26 November 1949
c. 26 January 1950
d. 26 January 1951
2. The Preamble declares India to be:
a. Sovereign, Democratic Republic
b. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
c. Socialist, Secular Republic
d. Sovereign, Federal Republic
3. Which Article guarantees Equality before Law?
a. Article 12
b. Article 14
c. Article 19
d. Article 21
4. Untouchability is abolished under:
a. Article 15
b. Article 16
c. Article 17
d. Article 18
5. Which Article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
a. Article 19
b. Article 20
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
6. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under:
a. Article 30
b. Article 31
c. Article 32
d. Article 35
7. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called which Article the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution?
a. Article 14
b. Article 19
c. Article 21
d. Article 32
8. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
a. Part III
b. Part IV
c. Part IVA
d. Part V
9. Fundamental Duties were added by:
a. 24th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 52nd Amendment
10. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:
a. Article 50A
b. Article 51
c. Article 51A
d. Article 52
11. The President of India is elected by:
a. Parliament only
b. Lok Sabha only
c. Electoral College
d. State Legislatures only
12. The minimum age for becoming President of India is:
a. 30 years
b. 35 years
c. 40 years
d. 45 years
13. The Vice-President is elected by:
a. Lok Sabha only
b. Rajya Sabha only
c. Both Houses of Parliament
d. State Legislatures
14. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of:
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. NITI Aayog
d. Inter-State Council
15. Article 74 deals with:
a. Parliament
b. Council of Ministers
c. Supreme Court
d. Election Commission
16. The Prime Minister is appointed by:
a. Chief Justice of India
b. President
c. Lok Sabha
d. Rajya Sabha
17. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is towards:
a. President
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Lok Sabha
d. Parliament
18. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
a. 545
b. 550
c. 552
d. 560
19. Rajya Sabha is a:
a. Temporary House
b. Dissolvable House
c. Permanent House
d. Judicial House
20. One-third members of Rajya Sabha retire after every:
a. One Year
b. Two Years
c. Three Years
d. Six Years
21. Money Bill can be introduced only in:
a. Rajya Sabha
b. Either House
c. Lok Sabha
d. Joint Sitting
22. The Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is:
a. Constitutional Bill
b. Finance Bill
c. Money Bill
d. Ordinary Bill
23. Joint sitting of Parliament is provided under:
a. Article 107
b. Article 108
c. Article 109
d. Article 110
24. The Supreme Court was established on:
a. 26 January 1950
b. 28 January 1950
c. 26 November 1949
d. 15 August 1947
25. Article 124 deals with:
a. High Courts
b. Supreme Court
c. Parliament
d. Election Commission
26. The retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge is:
a. 60 Years
b. 62 Years
c. 65 Years
d. 68 Years
27. The retirement age of a High Court Judge is:
a. 60 Years
b. 62 Years
c. 65 Years
d. 70 Years
28. Judicial Review in India is derived from:
a. UK Constitution
b. USA Constitution
c. Canada Constitution
d. Australia Constitution
29. The Election Commission is mentioned under:
a. Article 324
b. Article 325
c. Article 326
d. Article 327
30. Universal Adult Suffrage is provided under:
a. Article 324
b. Article 325
c. Article 326
d. Article 327
31. Which Article of the Constitution defines the term "State" for Fundamental Rights?
a. Article 10
b. Article 11
c. Article 12
d. Article 13
32. Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are declared void under:
a. Article 12
b. Article 13
c. Article 14
d. Article 15
33. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is provided under:
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Article 17
34. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is guaranteed by:
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 16
d. Article 18
35. Abolition of titles is provided under:
a. Article 16
b. Article 17
c. Article 18
d. Article 19
36. The six freedoms are guaranteed under:
a. Article 18
b. Article 19
c. Article 20
d. Article 21
37. Protection against ex-post facto laws is provided under:
a. Article 19
b. Article 20
c. Article 21
d. Article 22
38. The Right to Education is guaranteed under:
a. Article 21
b. Article 21A
c. Article 22
d. Article 23
39. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is provided under:
a. Article 22
b. Article 23
c. Article 24
d. Article 25
40. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion is guaranteed by:
a. Article 24
b. Article 25
c. Article 26
d. Article 27
41. Cultural and Educational Rights are contained in:
a. Articles 25–28
b. Articles 29–30
c. Articles 32–35
d. Articles 36–51
42. The writ of Habeas Corpus literally means:
a. To Command
b. To Inquire
c. You may have the body
d. By what authority
43. Which writ is issued to prevent an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction?
a. Habeas Corpus
b. Mandamus
c. Prohibition
d. Quo Warranto
44. Which writ means "by what authority"?
a. Certiorari
b. Quo Warranto
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
45. The Directive Principles are borrowed from the Constitution of:
a. USA
b. Canada
c. Ireland
d. Australia
46. Article 40 deals with:
a. Uniform Civil Code
b. Village Panchayats
c. Free Legal Aid
d. Environment Protection
47. Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in:
a. Article 43
b. Article 44
c. Article 45
d. Article 46
48. Free and compulsory education for children was originally provided under:
a. Article 44
b. Article 45
c. Article 46
d. Article 47
49. Separation of Judiciary from Executive is contained in:
a. Article 48
b. Article 49
c. Article 50
d. Article 51
50. Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Constitution of:
a. USSR
b. USA
c. France
d. Canada
51. Citizenship provisions are contained in:
a. Part I
b. Part II
c. Part III
d. Part IV
52. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Chief Justice of India
c. President
d. Parliament
53. The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of:
a. Parliament
b. President
c. Prime Minister
d. Supreme Court
54. Which Schedule deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
a. Third Schedule
b. Fourth Schedule
c. Fifth Schedule
d. Sixth Schedule
55. Oath of office for Union Ministers is contained in:
a. First Schedule
b. Second Schedule
c. Third Schedule
d. Fourth Schedule
56. The Council of States is another name for:
a. Lok Sabha
b. Rajya Sabha
c. Parliament
d. Legislative Council
57. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:
a. One-Tenth of total membership
b. One-Fifth of total membership
c. One-Sixth of total membership
d. Fifty Members
58. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha may be removed by:
a. President
b. Lok Sabha alone
c. Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by majority and agreed by Lok Sabha
d. Supreme Court
59. Which Article provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
a. Article 148
b. Article 149
c. Article 150
d. Article 151
60. The CAG of India is appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. Parliament
c. President
d. Finance Commission
61. Which Article provides for the Finance Commission of India?
a. Article 275
b. Article 280
c. Article 281
d. Article 282
62. The Finance Commission is constituted every:
a. 3 Years
b. 4 Years
c. 5 Years
d. 6 Years
63. The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by:
a. Prime Minister
b. President
c. Parliament
d. Chief Justice of India
64. Which Article provides for the UPSC?
a. Article 315
b. Article 320
c. Article 324
d. Article 326
65. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by:
a. Parliament
b. Prime Minister
c. President
d. Chief Justice of India
66. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 61st Amendment
67. The anti-defection law was inserted by:
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 52nd Amendment
d. 61st Amendment
68. The Tenth Schedule deals with:
a. Panchayats
b. Municipalities
c. Anti-Defection
d. Languages
69. Which Schedule contains the recognized languages of India?
a. Sixth Schedule
b. Seventh Schedule
c. Eighth Schedule
d. Ninth Schedule
70. At present, the Eighth Schedule contains:
a. 18 Languages
b. 20 Languages
c. 22 Languages
d. 24 Languages
71. The distribution of legislative powers between Union and States is contained in:
a. Sixth Schedule
b. Seventh Schedule
c. Eighth Schedule
d. Ninth Schedule
72. The Union List originally contained:
a. 97 Subjects
b. 66 Subjects
c. 47 Subjects
d. 100 Subjects
73. Residuary powers in India belong to:
a. States
b. Concurrent List
c. Parliament
d. President
74. Which Article deals with President's Rule in States?
a. Article 352
b. Article 356
c. Article 360
d. Article 365
75. National Emergency is proclaimed under:
a. Article 352
b. Article 356
c. Article 360
d. Article 368
76. Financial Emergency is provided under:
a. Article 352
b. Article 356
c. Article 360
d. Article 365
77. Which emergency has never been imposed in India so far?
a. National Emergency
b. President's Rule
c. Financial Emergency
d. Internal Emergency
78. Constitutional Amendment procedure is provided under:
a. Article 356
b. Article 360
c. Article 365
d. Article 368
79. The Constitution is described as "a living document" because:
a. It is unwritten
b. It can be amended
c. It is judicially enforced
d. It is federal
80. The Panchayati Raj system was constitutionalized by:
a. 71st Amendment
b. 72nd Amendment
c. 73rd Amendment
d. 74th Amendment
81. Municipalities were constitutionalized by:
a. 72nd Amendment
b. 73rd Amendment
c. 74th Amendment
d. 75th Amendment
82. The Eleventh Schedule relates to:
a. Municipalities
b. Panchayats
c. Languages
d. Tribunals
83. The Twelfth Schedule relates to:
a. Panchayats
b. Municipalities
c. Languages
d. Cooperative Societies
84. Which Article provides for Gram Sabha?
a. Article 243A
b. Article 243B
c. Article 243C
d. Article 243D
85. Reservation for SCs and STs in Panchayats is provided under:
a. Article 243C
b. Article 243D
c. Article 243E
d. Article 243F
86. The Governor of a State is appointed by:
a. State Legislature
b. Chief Minister
c. President
d. High Court
87. The minimum age to become a Governor is:
a. 30 Years
b. 35 Years
c. 40 Years
d. 45 Years
88. The Advocate General of a State is appointed by:
a. Governor
b. Chief Minister
c. High Court Chief Justice
d. President
89. The Legislative Council is a:
a. Temporary House
b. Permanent House
c. Dissolvable House
d. Judicial Body
90. The maximum strength of a Legislative Council cannot exceed:
a. One-half of Legislative Assembly
b. One-third of Legislative Assembly
c. One-fourth of Legislative Assembly
d. Equal to Legislative Assembly
91. The doctrine of Basic Structure was evolved in:
a. Golaknath Case
b. Kesavananda Bharati Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Berubari Case
92. The Kesavananda Bharati judgment was delivered in:
a. 1967
b. 1971
c. 1973
d. 1975
93. The Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights in:
a. Shankari Prasad Case
b. Sajjan Singh Case
c. Golaknath Case
d. Kesavananda Bharati Case
94. The concept of Judicial Review in India is mainly derived from:
a. United Kingdom
b. Canada
c. United States of America
d. Australia
95. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble?
a. 24th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 52nd Amendment
96. The Right to Property is now a:
a. Fundamental Right
b. Constitutional Right
c. Natural Right
d. Legal Right only
97. Right to Property is protected under:
a. Article 31
b. Article 300A
c. Article 32
d. Article 226
98. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue writs?
a. Article 32
b. Article 136
c. Article 226
d. Article 227
99. The writ of Mandamus is issued:
a. To release a detained person
b. To command a public authority to perform a duty
c. To transfer a case
d. To quash a law
100. The writ of Certiorari is issued to:
a. Appoint a public officer
b. Transfer legislative power
c. Quash the order of a subordinate court/tribunal
d. Detain a person
101. Which Article deals with the Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction?
a. Article 131
b. Article 136
c. Article 143
d. Article 145
102. The President seeks the opinion of the Supreme Court under:
a. Original Jurisdiction
b. Appellate Jurisdiction
c. Advisory Jurisdiction
d. Review Jurisdiction
103. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record under:
a. Article 127
b. Article 129
c. Article 131
d. Article 136
104. High Courts are Courts of Record under:
a. Article 214
b. Article 215
c. Article 216
d. Article 217
105. Which Article provides for Special Leave Petition (SLP)?
a. Article 131
b. Article 136
c. Article 141
d. Article 142
106. Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts under:
a. Article 136
b. Article 141
c. Article 142
d. Article 143
107. Complete justice jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is under:
a. Article 139
b. Article 141
c. Article 142
d. Article 144
108. The Election Commission is a:
a. Constitutional Body
b. Statutory Body
c. Executive Body
d. Judicial Body
109. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is removed in the same manner as:
a. Governor
b. Prime Minister
c. Supreme Court Judge
d. Attorney General
110. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed under:
a. Constitution
b. Right to Information Act, 2005
c. Lokpal Act
d. Human Rights Act
111. The National Human Rights Commission was established under:
a. Human Rights Act, 1993
b. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
c. Civil Rights Act, 1955
d. Lokpal Act, 2013
112. The Chairman of NHRC must be:
a. Former President
b. Former Chief Justice of India
c. Former Governor
d. Former Attorney General
113. Which Constitutional Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution?
a. 42nd Amendment
b. 44th Amendment
c. 73rd Amendment
d. 74th Amendment
114. Which Constitutional Amendment added Part IX-A?
a. 52nd Amendment
b. 61st Amendment
c. 73rd Amendment
d. 74th Amendment
115. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was pioneered in India by:
a. Justice M. Hidayatullah
b. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati
c. Justice S.R. Das
d. Justice K. Subba Rao
116. In which case was the "Basic Structure Doctrine" first applied to strike down a constitutional amendment?
a. Golaknath Case
b. Minerva Mills Case
c. A.K. Gopalan Case
d. Berubari Case
117. Which case established that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary?
a. Champakam Dorairajan
b. Minerva Mills
c. Golaknath
d. Shankari Prasad
118. The Constitution of India is described as:
a. Completely Federal
b. Completely Unitary
c. Federal with Unitary Bias
d. Confederation
119. The residuary legislative powers are mentioned in:
a. Union List
b. State List
c. Concurrent List
d. No List, but vested in Parliament
120. Which Article imposes a constitutional duty on the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance?
a. Article 352
b. Article 355
c. Article 356
d. Article 360
121. Which Constitutional Amendment made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
a. 84th Amendment
b. 85th Amendment
c. 86th Amendment
d. 87th Amendment
122. Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to children between:
a. 5–14 years
b. 6–14 years
c. 6–18 years
d. 7–14 years
123. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act was declared unconstitutional in:
a. 2014
b. 2015
c. 2016
d. 2017
124. Which case struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment establishing NJAC?
a. Kesavananda Bharati
b. Minerva Mills
c. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
d. Golaknath
125. The power to amend the Constitution is vested in:
a. President
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court
d. Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
126. Which Amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?
a. 24th Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 52nd Amendment
127. The 44th Constitutional Amendment restored many democratic safeguards after:
a. 1962 Emergency
b. 1965 War
c. 1975 Emergency
d. Kargil War
128. In which case did the Supreme Court expand Article 21 by introducing "procedure established by law must be just, fair and reasonable"?
a. A.K. Gopalan
b. Maneka Gandhi
c. Golaknath
d. Kesavananda Bharati
129. The doctrine of "Prospective Overruling" was adopted in:
a. Golaknath Case
b. Kesavananda Bharati Case
c. Minerva Mills Case
d. Maneka Gandhi Case
130. Which Article provides for impeachment of the President?
a. Article 56
b. Article 61
c. Article 72
d. Article 74
131. The President can promulgate Ordinances under:
a. Article 121
b. Article 123
c. Article 143
d. Article 213
132. The Governor can promulgate Ordinances under:
a. Article 153
b. Article 161
c. Article 213
d. Article 217
133. Which Article grants pardoning power to the President?
a. Article 72
b. Article 74
c. Article 76
d. Article 78
134. The pardoning power of the Governor is contained in:
a. Article 153
b. Article 161
c. Article 163
d. Article 166
135. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
a. 52nd Amendment
b. 61st Amendment
c. 69th Amendment
d. 73rd Amendment
136. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in:
a. Ninth Schedule
b. Tenth Schedule
c. Eleventh Schedule
d. Twelfth Schedule
137. Which case is known for laying down guidelines against sexual harassment at the workplace?
a. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
b. Indra Sawhney
c. Olga Tellis
d. S.R. Bommai
138. Reservation for OBCs in Central Services was upheld in:
a. Kesavananda Bharati
b. Minerva Mills
c. Indra Sawhney
d. Golaknath
139. The "Creamy Layer" concept was evolved in:
a. Vishaka Case
b. Indra Sawhney Case
c. Bommai Case
d. Nagaraj Case
140. Secularism was held to be part of the Basic Structure in:
a. S.R. Bommai Case
b. Golaknath Case
c. Berubari Case
d. A.K. Gopalan Case
141. The Supreme Court described the Constitution as federal with a strong centralizing tendency in:
a. State of West Bengal v. Union of India
b. Kesavananda Bharati
c. Bommai
d. Minerva Mills
142. Which Article provides for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals?
a. Article 323A
b. Article 323B
c. Article 324
d. Article 325
143. Which Article empowers Parliament and State Legislatures to establish other tribunals?
a. Article 323A
b. Article 323B
c. Article 324
d. Article 326
144. The Public Accounts Committee consists of:
a. Members of Lok Sabha only
b. Members of Rajya Sabha only
c. Members from both Houses of Parliament
d. Ministers only
145. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is traditionally:
a. Prime Minister
b. Finance Minister
c. Speaker
d. Member of Opposition
146. Which case recognized the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
a. Maneka Gandhi
b. Puttaswamy
c. Vishaka
d. Bommai
147. Right to Privacy was held to be part of:
a. Article 14 only
b. Article 19 only
c. Article 21 and Part III freedoms
d. Directive Principles only
148. Which Article provides for a Uniform Civil Code?
a. Article 43
b. Article 44
c. Article 45
d. Article 46
149. The Inter-State Council is established under:
a. Article 262
b. Article 263
c. Article 280
d. Article 312
150. Which case is regarded as the most important judgment on the Basic Structure Doctrine?
a. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
b. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
c. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
d. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
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