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Provident Funds Act, 1925 (English Medium)
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1. The Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 primarily declares that the Act is enacted:
a. To amend and consolidate the law relating to Government provident funds, Railway provident funds and Deposits in Government Savings Banks
b. To regulate pension schemes of Government servants
c. To establish a compulsory provident fund for all employees
d. To regulate banking institutions
2. According to the Preamble, the principal legislative object of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 is:
a. Regulation of retirement benefits
b. Amendment and consolidation of the law relating to specified provident funds and deposits
c. Establishment of provident fund authorities
d. Protection of employee pensions
3. Which of the following funds is expressly referred to in the Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. Employees' Provident Fund
b. Public Provident Fund
c. Government Provident Fund
d. General Insurance Fund
4. Besides Government Provident Funds, which other category of provident fund is expressly mentioned in the Preamble?
a. Coal Mines Provident Fund
b. Railway Provident Fund
c. Employees' Provident Fund
d. Public Provident Fund
5. The Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 also refers to:
a. Deposits in Post Office Savings Banks
b. Deposits in Government Savings Banks
c. Deposits in Scheduled Banks
d. Deposits in Cooperative Banks
6. Which of the following is NOT expressly mentioned in the Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. Government Provident Funds
b. Railway Provident Funds
c. Deposits in Government Savings Banks
d. Pension Funds
7. A court seeks to ascertain the legislative purpose of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 solely from its Preamble. Which conclusion is correct?
a. The Act is intended to establish a universal provident fund scheme.
b. The Act is intended to amend and consolidate the law relating to Government Provident Funds, Railway Provident Funds and Deposits in Government Savings Banks.
c. The Act is intended to regulate all employee welfare schemes.
d. The Act is intended to regulate banking companies.
8. Which of the following expressions is expressly used in the Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. To amend and consolidate the law
b. To establish a provident fund authority
c. To provide social security benefits
d. To regulate retirement pensions
9. Which of the following best reproduces the legislative object stated in the Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. To regulate Government servants' pensions
b. To amend and consolidate the law relating to Government Provident Funds, Railway Provident Funds and Deposits in Government Savings Banks
c. To establish compulsory savings schemes
d. To regulate all banking deposits
10. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the Preamble of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. The Act is enacted to regulate all provident funds in India.
b. The Act is enacted to amend and consolidate the law relating to Government Provident Funds, Railway Provident Funds and Deposits in Government Savings Banks.
c. The Act is enacted exclusively for Government employees.
d. The Act is enacted to establish a national pension system.
11. An issue arises regarding the official name by which the statute may be cited. Which aspect is expressly governed by Section 1 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. Short title
b. Definitions
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Power to make rules
12. A court is required to determine the geographical operation of the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which aspect of Section 1 would be directly relevant?
a. Commencement
b. Extent
c. Short title
d. Definitions
13. Which of the following statutory matters is expressly covered under Section 1 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. Extent of the Act
b. Definitions of provident fund
c. Nomination of subscribers
d. Protection from attachment
14. If a dispute concerns the date on which the Provident Funds Act, 1925 became enforceable, it would primarily relate to:
a. Extent
b. Commencement
c. Definitions
d. Application
15. Which of the following combinations correctly represents the subjects dealt with under Section 1?
a. Short title, extent and commencement
b. Short title, application and repeal
c. Extent, definitions and rule-making power
d. Commencement, definitions and interpretation
16. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 1?
a. Section 1 deals with the short title, extent and commencement of the Provident Funds Act, 1925.
b. Section 1 deals with definitions under the Act.
c. Section 1 deals with compulsory deposits.
d. Section 1 deals with protection of Government Provident Funds.
17. Section 2 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Compulsory deposits
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Nominations
18. A dispute concerns the meaning of an expression used in the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
19. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 2?
a. Definitions
b. Short title, extent and commencement
c. Protection of Government Provident Funds
d. Compulsory deposits
20. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 2?
a. Meaning of expressions used in the Act
b. Interpretation of defined terms
c. Definitions
d. Protection of compulsory deposits
21. A legal issue concerning the interpretation of a statutory expression occurring in the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
d. Section 4
22. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 2?
a. Section 2 deals with definitions.
b. Section 2 deals with short title, extent and commencement.
c. Section 2 deals with compulsory deposits.
d. Section 2 deals with protection of compulsory deposits.
23. Section 3 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Protection of compulsory deposits
b. Definitions
c. Government Provident Funds
d. Repayment of deposits
24. A dispute concerns whether a compulsory deposit enjoys statutory protection under the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
25. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 3?
a. Protection of compulsory deposits
b. Definitions
c. Nomination of subscribers
d. Government Savings Banks
26. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 3?
a. Protection of compulsory deposits
b. Statutory protection relating to compulsory deposits
c. Definitions
d. Protection available to compulsory deposits
27. A legal issue concerning the statutory safeguard available to compulsory deposits under the Act would primarily arise under:
a. Section 2
b. Section 3
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
28. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 3?
a. Section 3 deals with protection of compulsory deposits.
b. Section 3 deals with definitions.
c. Section 3 deals with Government Provident Funds.
d. Section 3 deals with repayment of deposits.
29. Section 4 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Provisions regarding re-payments
b. Protection of compulsory deposits
c. Definitions
d. Government Provident Funds
30. A dispute concerns the statutory provisions governing the repayment of an amount covered under the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
31. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 4?
a. Provisions regarding re-payments
b. Protection of compulsory deposits
c. Definitions
d. Nomination by subscriber
32. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 4?
a. Re-payments
b. Statutory provisions regarding re-payments
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Repayment under the Act
33. A legal issue concerning the statutory mechanism governing repayment under the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 7
34. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 4?
a. Section 4 deals with provisions regarding re-payments.
b. Section 4 deals with protection of compulsory deposits.
c. Section 4 deals with definitions.
d. Section 4 deals with Government Provident Funds.
35. Section 5 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Rights of nominees
b. Provisions regarding re-payments
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Definitions
36. A dispute concerns the entitlement of a person nominated under the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 7
37. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 5?
a. Rights of nominees
b. Repayment of deposits
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Government Provident Funds
38. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 5?
a. Rights of nominees
b. Statutory rights of nominees
c. Provisions regarding re-payments
d. Rights accruing to nominees under the Act
39. A legal issue concerning the statutory rights available to a nominee under the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 8
40. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 5?
a. Section 5 deals with rights of nominees.
b. Section 5 deals with provisions regarding re-payments.
c. Section 5 deals with protection of compulsory deposits.
d. Section 5 deals with definitions.
41. Section 6 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Power to make deductions
b. Rights of nominees
c. Provisions regarding re-payments
d. Protection of compulsory deposits
42. A dispute concerns whether deductions may lawfully be made from an amount payable under the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
43. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 6?
a. Power to make deductions
b. Rights of nominees
c. Protection of compulsory deposits
d. Re-payments
44. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 6?
a. Power to make deductions
b. Statutory deductions
c. Rights of nominees
d. Deductions under the Act
45. A legal issue concerning the authority to deduct an amount from a payment governed by the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 9
46. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6?
a. Section 6 deals with the power to make deductions.
b. Section 6 deals with the rights of nominees.
c. Section 6 deals with provisions regarding re-payments.
d. Section 6 deals with protection of compulsory deposits.
47. Section 6A of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Withholding or recovery of Government contributions in case of Central Government officers taking up, without prior permission, commercial employment within two years of their retirement
b. Power to make deductions
c. Rights of nominees
d. Provisions regarding re-payments
48. A retired Central Government officer accepts commercial employment within two years of retirement without obtaining prior permission. Which provision would primarily govern the withholding or recovery of Government contributions?
a. Section 6
b. Section 6A
c. Section 7
d. Section 8
49. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 6A?
a. Withholding or recovery of Government contributions where a retired Central Government officer takes up commercial employment without prior permission within two years of retirement
b. Recovery of compulsory deposits
c. Rights of nominees
d. Power to make deductions
50. Which of the following is NOT an express statutory requirement under Section 6A?
a. The person must be a Central Government officer.
b. The commercial employment must be taken up within two years of retirement.
c. Prior permission must not have been obtained.
d. The employment must necessarily be outside India.
51. A retired Central Government officer joins a private commercial enterprise one year after retirement after obtaining prior permission. Based solely on the subject-matter of Section 6A, which conclusion is most appropriate?
a. Section 6A concerns such cases only where commercial employment is taken without prior permission.
b. Government contributions must invariably be recovered.
c. The officer automatically forfeits all provident fund benefits.
d. The officer becomes ineligible for repayment under the Act.
52. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 6A?
a. Section 6A deals with withholding or recovery of Government contributions where a Central Government officer takes up commercial employment, without prior permission, within two years of retirement.
b. Section 6A deals with the power to make deductions from compulsory deposits.
c. Section 6A deals with rights of nominees.
d. Section 6A deals with provisions regarding re-payments.
53. Section 7 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Protection for acts done in good faith
b. Withholding or recovery of Government contributions
c. Power to make deductions
d. Rights of nominees
54. A public authority claims statutory immunity for an act honestly performed while exercising powers under the Provident Funds Act, 1925. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 6A
b. Section 7
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
55. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 7?
a. Protection for acts done in good faith
b. Recovery of Government contributions
c. Rights of nominees
d. Re-payments
56. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 7?
a. Protection for acts done in good faith
b. Statutory protection for bona fide acts
c. Withholding or recovery of Government contributions
d. Good faith protection
57. A legal issue concerning whether statutory protection is available for an act performed in good faith under the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 6A
b. Section 7
c. Section 8
d. Section 10
58. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 7?
a. Section 7 deals with protection for acts done in good faith.
b. Section 7 deals with withholding or recovery of Government contributions.
c. Section 7 deals with the power to make deductions.
d. Section 7 deals with the rights of nominees.
59. Section 8 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds
b. Protection for acts done in good faith
c. Power to make deductions
d. Rights of nominees
60. A question arises whether the provisions of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 can be extended to a provident fund not originally covered by the Act. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 6A
d. Section 5
61. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 8?
a. Power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds
b. Protection for acts done in good faith
c. Rights of nominees
d. Provisions regarding re-payments
62. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 8?
a. Application of the Act to other Provident Funds
b. Extension of the Act to other Provident Funds
c. Protection for acts done in good faith
d. Statutory power relating to other Provident Funds
63. A legal issue concerning the statutory authority to extend the operation of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 to another Provident Fund would primarily arise under:
a. Section 6A
b. Section 7
c. Section 8
d. Section 9
64. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 8?
a. Section 8 deals with the power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds.
b. Section 8 deals with protection for acts done in good faith.
c. Section 8 deals with the power to make deductions.
d. Section 8 deals with the rights of nominees.
65. Section 9 of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 deals with:
a. Savings as to estates of soldiers
b. Power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds
c. Protection for acts done in good faith
d. Power to make deductions
66. A dispute concerns whether the provisions of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 affect the estates of soldiers. Which provision would primarily govern the issue?
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 7
67. Which statutory concept is expressly covered under Section 9?
a. Savings as to estates of soldiers
b. Protection for acts done in good faith
c. Rights of nominees
d. Repayment of compulsory deposits
68. Which of the following is NOT expressly dealt with under Section 9?
a. Savings relating to estates of soldiers
b. Estates of soldiers
c. Power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds
d. Saving concerning soldiers' estates
69. A legal issue concerning the preservation of legal provisions relating to the estates of soldiers under the Provident Funds Act, 1925 would primarily arise under:
a. Section 8
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 6A
70. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 9?
a. Section 9 deals with savings as to estates of soldiers.
b. Section 9 deals with the power to apply the Act to other Provident Funds.
c. Section 9 deals with protection for acts done in good faith.
d. Section 9 deals with the power to make deductions.
71. The repealed provision of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 is:
a. Still operative unless separately notified
b. Repealed
c. Applicable only to Government Provident Funds
d. Applicable only to Railway Provident Funds
72. A question is framed on a provision of the Provident Funds Act, 1925 which is expressly marked "[Repealed.]". Which statement is correct?
a. It continues to operate in its original form.
b. It is applicable only to pending proceedings.
c. It stands repealed.
d. It applies only with the Central Government's approval.
73. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the provision marked "[Repealed.]" in the Provident Funds Act, 1925?
a. It remains part of the operative law.
b. It has been omitted by implication.
c. It has been expressly repealed.
d. It is applicable only to Government employees.
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