MP Excise Act MCQs Set-6

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Download MP Excise Act Set-6 MCQs PDF

 

1. Under Section 62(2)(d), the State Government may regulate:

a. Import, export, transport and manufacture of intoxicants

b. Civil marriages only

c. Forest conservation exclusively

d. Election procedures

 

2. Section 62(2)(d) also includes regulation of:

a. Cultivation of hemp plant

b. Cotton cultivation

c. Wheat procurement

d. Mining leases

 

3. Under Section 62(2)(d)(i), rules may regulate tapping of:

a. Rubber trees

b. Tari-producing trees

c. Sandalwood trees

d. Bamboo plants

 

4. Section 62(2)(d)(i) also permits rules regarding:

a. Drawing and marking of tari

b. Registration of vehicles

c. Export duty on petrol

d. Municipal records

 

5. Under Section 62(2)(d)(ii), rules may declare:

a. Method of trial

b. Process by which spirit shall be denatured

c. Procedure for arrest

d. Method of taxation

 

6. Denaturisation of spirit under Section 62(2)(d)(ii) refers to:

a. Fermentation process only

b. Process of rendering spirit unfit for drinking

c. Import licensing

d. Chemical taxation

 

7. Under Section 62(2)(d)(iii), spirit may be denatured:

a. Only by private contractors

b. Through agency or supervision of government officers

c. Only by courts

d. Exclusively by Gram Sabha

 

8. Which of the following correctly reflects the nature of Section 62 powers?

a. Judicial powers

b. Rule-making or delegated legislative powers

c. Constitutional powers

d. Emergency powers

 

9. The rules framed under Section 62 are intended to:

a. Supplement and implement the Act

b. Replace the Constitution

c. Abolish excise administration

d. Override judicial decisions

 

10. Which of the following subjects is specifically covered under Section 62?

a. Appointment of Governors

b. Maintenance of marks on tari-producing trees

c. Conduct of elections

d. Criminal appeals before Supreme Court

 

11. Section 62(2)(f) empowers the State Government to prescribe:

a. Procedure for constitutional amendment

b. Procedure before grant of licence for vend

c. Criminal trial procedure only

d. Election process

 

12. Under Section 62(2)(f), rules may prescribe matters to be ascertained before:

a. Arrest of accused

b. Grant of licence for vend in any locality

c. Registration of FIR

d. Imposition of sentence

 

13. The term “vend” in excise law generally relates to:

a. Transportation of goods

b. Sale of intoxicants

c. Judicial proceedings

d. Cultivation of crops

 

14. Under Section 62(2)(g), the State Government may regulate:

a. Appointment of judges

b. Amount, time, place and manner of payment of duty, fee, tax or penalty

c. Parliamentary sessions

d. Municipal elections

 

15. Which of the following is specifically included under Section 62(2)(g)?

a. Court procedure

b. Customs tariff only

c. Manner of payment of duty or fee

d. Constitutional remedies

 

16. Section 62(2)(h) relates to rules regarding:

a. Criminal appeals

b. Licences, permits and passes

c. Panchayat elections

d. Judicial review

 

17. Under Section 62(2)(h), rules may prescribe:

a. Authority by which licence, permit or pass shall be granted

b. Salary of Excise Officers

c. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

d. Procedure for constitutional amendment

 

18. Rules under Section 62(2)(h) may prescribe:

a. Form and conditions of licences, permits and passes

b. Procedure for impeachment

c. Police uniforms

d. Land acquisition procedure

 

19. Under Section 62(2)(h)(i), rules may fix:

a. Territorial jurisdiction of courts

b. Period for which licence, permit or pass shall continue in force

c. Retirement age of officers

d. Duration of legislative assembly

 

20. Section 62(2)(h)(ii) authorizes rules regarding:

a. Criminal punishment only

b. Scale or manner of fixing fees payable for licence, permit or pass

c. Civil court jurisdiction

d. Election expenditure

 

21. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iii), rules may prescribe:

a. Bail amount only

b. Amount of security to be deposited by licence holders

c. Fine under IPC

d. Compensation under tort law

 

22. The security deposit under Section 62(2)(h)(iii) is intended for:

a. Election purposes

b. Performance of conditions of licence, permit or pass

c. Constitutional litigation

d. Judicial appointments

 

23. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iv), rules may prescribe:

a. Accounts to be maintained and returns to be submitted by licence holders

b. Criminal appeals procedure

c. Municipal taxation

d. Recruitment rules for judiciary

 

24. The returns referred to in Section 62(2)(h)(iv) are to be submitted by:

a. Gram Sabha

b. Licence holders

c. High Court

d. Parliament

 

25. Section 62(2)(h)(v) empowers the State Government to:

a. Abolish licences completely

b. Prohibit or regulate partnership in licences

c. Transfer judicial powers

d. Suspend constitutional rights

 

26. Under Section 62(2)(h)(v), rules may regulate:

a. Transfer of licences

b. Criminal investigations

c. Election petitions

d. Civil decrees

 

27. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 62(2)(h)?

a. Security deposit

b. Accounts and returns

c. Partnership in licences

d. Appointment of Magistrates

 

28. The powers under Section 62(2)(f) to (h) are examples of:

a. Judicial powers

b. Delegated legislation

c. Constitutional amendments

d. Emergency powers

 

29. Section 62 enables the State Government to make detailed rules for:

a. Effective administration of excise regulation

b. Abolishing excise duties

c. Criminal law codification

d. Amendment of Constitution

 

30. Which of the following subjects is covered under Section 62(2)(h)?

a. Period of validity of licence

b. Conduct of elections

c. Criminal revision before High Court

d. Appointment of Governor

 

31. Section 62(2)(i) of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act relates to:

a. Criminal appeals

b. Local public opinion regarding intoxicant shops

c. Appointment of Excise Officers

d. Bail procedure

 

32. Under Section 62(2)(i), rules may prescribe measures for:

a. Recovery of excise duty

b. Ascertaining local public opinion

c. Conducting elections

d. Arrest without warrant

 

33. The local public opinion referred to in Section 62(2)(i) concerns:

a. Forest produce

b. Criminal trials

c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops

d. Panchayat taxation

 

34. The District Planning Committee referred to in Section 62(2)(i) is constituted under:

a. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993

b. Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam, 1995

c. CrPC, 1973

d. Indian Evidence Act

 

35. The Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam mentioned in Section 62(2)(i) is:

a. Act No. 1 of 1994

b. Act No. 19 of 1995

c. Act No. 2 of 1974

d. Act No. 5 of 1961

 

36. Under Section 62(2)(i), the District Planning Committee advises regarding:

a. Appointment of judges

b. Excise prosecution

c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops

d. Confiscation proceedings

 

37. Section 62(2)(j) empowers the State Government to make rules regarding:

a. Destruction or disposal of intoxicants unfit for use

b. Criminal sentencing

c. Judicial review

d. Police recruitment

 

38. Intoxicants deemed unfit for use under Section 62(2)(j) may be:

a. Distributed freely

b. Destroyed or otherwise disposed of

c. Exported compulsorily

d. Converted into denatured spirit only

 

39. Section 62(2)(k) relates to:

a. Bail of offenders

b. Disposal of confiscated articles

c. Search warrants

d. Constitution of Gram Sabha

 

40. The articles referred to in Section 62(2)(k) are:

a. Agricultural produce

b. Confiscated articles

c. Court records

d. Election documents

 

41. Under Section 62(2)(l), rules may regulate grant of expenses to:

a. Police officers only

b. Witnesses

c. Judges

d. Excise contractors only

 

42. Section 62(2)(l) also provides for compensation to persons:

a. Convicted under the Act

b. Charged with offences and subsequently released, discharged or acquitted

c. Detained preventively only

d. Holding excise licences

 

43. Compensation under Section 62(2)(l) may be granted when the accused is:

a. Convicted

b. Released, discharged or acquitted

c. Sentenced to imprisonment

d. Declared absconder

 

44. Section 62(2)(m) empowers rules regulating:

a. Excise taxation

b. Power of Excise Officers to summon witnesses from a distance

c. Judicial transfer

d. Licensing appeals

 

45. The power to summon witnesses under Section 62(2)(m) belongs to:

a. Gram Sabha

b. Excise Officers

c. High Court exclusively

d. District Panchayat

 

46. Which clause specifically concerns confiscated property?

a. Clause (i)

b. Clause (j)

c. Clause (k)

d. Clause (m)

 

47. Which clause specifically concerns witnesses?

a. Clause (j)

b. Clause (k)

c. Clause (l)

d. Clause (m)

 

48. Section 62(2)(i) reflects:

a. Community participation in excise administration

b. Judicial supremacy

c. Parliamentary sovereignty

d. Police autonomy

 

49. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a. Clause (j) — Disposal of confiscated articles

b. Clause (k) — Destruction of unfit intoxicants

c. Clause (l) — Compensation to acquitted persons

d. Clause (m) — Public opinion survey

 

50. Clauses (i) to (m) of Section 62 mainly deal with:

a. Administrative and regulatory matters under excise law

b. Constitutional remedies

c. Civil procedure

d. Electoral reforms

 

51. Section 63 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Recovery of dues

b. Publication of rules and notifications

c. Bail provisions

d. Confiscation proceedings

 

52. Under Section 63, all rules made under the Act shall be published in:

a. Local newspaper

b. Official Gazette

c. Police diary

d. Court notice board

 

53. Notifications issued under the Act take effect:

a. Immediately upon drafting

b. From the date of publication or such other specified date

c. Only after court approval

d. After one year

 

54. Section 63 applies to:

a. Judicial decrees only

b. Rules and notifications under the Act

c. Private agreements only

d. Excise licences exclusively

 

55. Publication in the Official Gazette under Section 63 gives:

a. Private effect only

b. Legal enforceability to rules and notifications

c. Temporary operation only

d. Judicial immunity

 

56. Section 64 deals with:

a. Appeals

b. Recovery of Government dues

c. Search warrants

d. Grant of pardon

 

57. Under Section 64(1)(a), which of the following may be recovered?

a. Civil damages only

b. Excise revenue

c. Election expenses

d. Court fees only

 

58. Section 64(1)(b) covers losses accruing when:

a. Criminal appeal is dismissed

b. Grant has been taken under management or resold due to default

c. Licence is renewed

d. Bail is cancelled

 

59. Under Section 64(1)(c), amounts due to Government may arise from:

a. Constitutional litigation

b. Contracts relating to excise revenue

c. Matrimonial disputes

d. Service matters only

 

60. Section 64(1)(c) specifically overrides:

a. Section 9 CPC

b. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Section 154 CrPC

d. Article 14 of the Constitution

 

61. The Contract Act referred to in Section 64(1)(c) is:

a. Act No. 2 of 1974

b. Act No. 9 of 1872

c. Act No. 1 of 1994

d. Act No. 19 of 1995

 

62. Amounts payable on breach of conditions of a bond under Section 64(1)(c):

a. Cannot be recovered

b. May be recovered as Government dues

c. Require civil suit only

d. Are automatically waived

 

63. Recovery under Section 64(1) may be made from:

a. Person primarily liable or his surety

b. High Court only

c. Gram Sabha only

d. Witnesses to contract

 

64. One mode of recovery under Section 64(1) is:

a. Constitutional amendment

b. Distress and sale of movable property

c. Impeachment proceedings

d. Habeas corpus petition

 

65. Section 64(1) also permits recovery through:

a. Process for recovery of land revenue

b. Criminal appeal only

c. Writ proceedings exclusively

d. Arbitration only

 

66. The process for recovery under Section 64 treats Government dues similarly to:

a. Compensation claims

b. Land revenue dues

c. Election liabilities

d. Criminal fines only

 

67. Under Section 64(2), when a grant is taken under management or resold, the Collector may recover:

a. Judicial costs only

b. Money due to the defaulter by any lessee

c. Pension arrears

d. Tax refunds only

 

68. Which authority is empowered under Section 64(2)?

a. Sessions Court

b. Collector

c. Gram Sabha

d. Excise Commissioner exclusively

 

69. Section 64 primarily provides:

a. Criminal procedure

b. Mechanism for realization of Government excise dues

c. Constitutional safeguards

d. Bail conditions

 

70. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a. Section 63 — Recovery of excise revenue

b. Section 64 — Publication of rules

c. Section 63 — Official Gazette publication of rules and notifications

d. Section 64 — Grant of pardon to approver

 

71. Section 62(2)(f) empowers the State Government to prescribe:

a. Procedure for constitutional amendment

b. Procedure before grant of licence for vend

c. Criminal trial procedure only

d. Election process

 

72. Under Section 62(2)(f), rules may prescribe matters to be ascertained before:

a. Arrest of accused

b. Grant of licence for vend in any locality

c. Registration of FIR

d. Imposition of sentence

 

73. The term “vend” in excise law generally relates to:

a. Transportation of goods

b. Sale of intoxicants

c. Judicial proceedings

d. Cultivation of crops

 

74. Under Section 62(2)(g), the State Government may regulate:

a. Appointment of judges

b. Amount, time, place and manner of payment of duty, fee, tax or penalty

c. Parliamentary sessions

d. Municipal elections

 

75. Which of the following is specifically included under Section 62(2)(g)?

a. Court procedure

b. Customs tariff only

c. Manner of payment of duty or fee

d. Constitutional remedies

 

76. Section 62(2)(h) relates to rules regarding:

a. Criminal appeals

b. Licences, permits and passes

c. Panchayat elections

d. Judicial review

 

77. Under Section 62(2)(h), rules may prescribe:

a. Authority by which licence, permit or pass shall be granted

b. Salary of Excise Officers

c. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

d. Procedure for constitutional amendment

 

78. Rules under Section 62(2)(h) may prescribe:

a. Form and conditions of licences, permits and passes

b. Procedure for impeachment

c. Police uniforms

d. Land acquisition procedure

 

79. Under Section 62(2)(h)(i), rules may fix:

a. Territorial jurisdiction of courts

b. Period for which licence, permit or pass shall continue in force

c. Retirement age of officers

d. Duration of legislative assembly

 

80. Section 62(2)(h)(ii) authorizes rules regarding:

a. Criminal punishment only

b. Scale or manner of fixing fees payable for licence, permit or pass

c. Civil court jurisdiction

d. Election expenditure

 

81. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iii), rules may prescribe:

a. Bail amount only

b. Amount of security to be deposited by licence holders

c. Fine under IPC

d. Compensation under tort law

 

82. The security deposit under Section 62(2)(h)(iii) is intended for:

a. Election purposes

b. Performance of conditions of licence, permit or pass

c. Constitutional litigation

d. Judicial appointments

 

83. Under Section 62(2)(h)(iv), rules may prescribe:

a. Accounts to be maintained and returns to be submitted by licence holders

b. Criminal appeals procedure

c. Municipal taxation

d. Recruitment rules for judiciary

 

84. The returns referred to in Section 62(2)(h)(iv) are to be submitted by:

a. Gram Sabha

b. Licence holders

c. High Court

d. Parliament

 

85. Section 62(2)(h)(v) empowers the State Government to:

a. Abolish licences completely

b. Prohibit or regulate partnership in licences

c. Transfer judicial powers

d. Suspend constitutional rights

 

86. Under Section 62(2)(h)(v), rules may regulate:

a. Transfer of licences

b. Criminal investigations

c. Election petitions

d. Civil decrees

 

87. Which of the following is NOT specifically mentioned in Section 62(2)(h)?

a. Security deposit

b. Accounts and returns

c. Partnership in licences

d. Appointment of Magistrates

 

88. The powers under Section 62(2)(f) to (h) are examples of:

a. Judicial powers

b. Delegated legislation

c. Constitutional amendments

d. Emergency powers

 

89. Section 62 enables the State Government to make detailed rules for:

a. Effective administration of excise regulation

b. Abolishing excise duties

c. Criminal law codification

d. Amendment of Constitution

 

90. Which of the following subjects is covered under Section 62(2)(h)?

a. Period of validity of licence

b. Conduct of elections

c. Criminal revision before High Court

d. Appointment of Governor

 

91. Section 62(2)(i) of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act relates to:

a. Criminal appeals

b. Local public opinion regarding intoxicant shops

c. Appointment of Excise Officers

d. Bail procedure

 

92. Under Section 62(2)(i), rules may prescribe measures for:

a. Recovery of excise duty

b. Ascertaining local public opinion

c. Conducting elections

d. Arrest without warrant

 

93. The local public opinion referred to in Section 62(2)(i) concerns:

a. Forest produce

b. Criminal trials

c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops

d. Panchayat taxation

 

94. The District Planning Committee referred to in Section 62(2)(i) is constituted under:

a. Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993

b. Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam, 1995

c. CrPC, 1973

d. Indian Evidence Act

 

95. The Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam mentioned in Section 62(2)(i) is:

a. Act No. 1 of 1994

b. Act No. 19 of 1995

c. Act No. 2 of 1974

d. Act No. 5 of 1961

 

96. Under Section 62(2)(i), the District Planning Committee advises regarding:

a. Appointment of judges

b. Excise prosecution

c. Opening, closing or shifting of retail intoxicant shops

d. Confiscation proceedings

 

97. Section 62(2)(j) empowers the State Government to make rules regarding:

a. Destruction or disposal of intoxicants unfit for use

b. Criminal sentencing

c. Judicial review

d. Police recruitment

 

98. Intoxicants deemed unfit for use under Section 62(2)(j) may be:

a. Distributed freely

b. Destroyed or otherwise disposed of

c. Exported compulsorily

d. Converted into denatured spirit only

 

99. Section 62(2)(k) relates to:

a. Bail of offenders

b. Disposal of confiscated articles

c. Search warrants

d. Constitution of Gram Sabha

 

100. The articles referred to in Section 62(2)(k) are:

a. Agricultural produce

b. Confiscated articles

c. Court records

d. Election documents

 

101. Under Section 62(2)(l), rules may regulate grant of expenses to:

a. Police officers only

b. Witnesses

c. Judges

d. Excise contractors only

 

102. Section 62(2)(l) also provides for compensation to persons:

a. Convicted under the Act

b. Charged with offences and subsequently released, discharged or acquitted

c. Detained preventively only

d. Holding excise licences

 

103. Compensation under Section 62(2)(l) may be granted when the accused is:

a. Convicted

b. Released, discharged or acquitted

c. Sentenced to imprisonment

d. Declared absconder

 

104. Section 62(2)(m) empowers rules regulating:

a. Excise taxation

b. Power of Excise Officers to summon witnesses from a distance

c. Judicial transfer

d. Licensing appeals

 

105. The power to summon witnesses under Section 62(2)(m) belongs to:

a. Gram Sabha

b. Excise Officers

c. High Court exclusively

d. District Panchayat

 

106. Section 63 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Recovery of dues

b. Publication of rules and notifications

c. Bail provisions

d. Confiscation proceedings

 

107. Under Section 63, all rules made under the Act shall be published in:

a. Local newspaper

b. Official Gazette

c. Police diary

d. Court notice board

 

108. Notifications issued under the Act take effect:

a. Immediately upon drafting

b. From the date of publication or such other specified date

c. Only after court approval

d. After one year

 

109. Section 63 applies to:

a. Judicial decrees only

b. Rules and notifications under the Act

c. Private agreements only

d. Excise licences exclusively

 

110. Publication in the Official Gazette under Section 63 gives:

a. Private effect only

b. Legal enforceability to rules and notifications

c. Temporary operation only

d. Judicial immunity

 

111. Section 64 deals with:

a. Appeals

b. Recovery of Government dues

c. Search warrants

d. Grant of pardon

 

112. Under Section 64(1)(a), which of the following may be recovered?

a. Civil damages only

b. Excise revenue

c. Election expenses

d. Court fees only

 

113. Section 64(1)(b) covers losses accruing when:

a. Criminal appeal is dismissed

b. Grant has been taken under management or resold due to default

c. Licence is renewed

d. Bail is cancelled

 

114. Under Section 64(1)(c), amounts due to Government may arise from:

a. Constitutional litigation

b. Contracts relating to excise revenue

c. Matrimonial disputes

d. Service matters only

 

115. Section 64(1)(c) specifically overrides:

a. Section 9 CPC

b. Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

c. Section 154 CrPC

d. Article 14 of the Constitution

 

116. The Contract Act referred to in Section 64(1)(c) is:

a. Act No. 2 of 1974

b. Act No. 9 of 1872

c. Act No. 1 of 1994

d. Act No. 19 of 1995

 

117. Amounts payable on breach of conditions of a bond under Section 64(1)(c):

a. Cannot be recovered

b. May be recovered as Government dues

c. Require civil suit only

d. Are automatically waived

 

118. Recovery under Section 64(1) may be made from:

a. Person primarily liable or his surety

b. High Court only

c. Gram Sabha only

d. Witnesses to contract

 

119. One mode of recovery under Section 64(1) is:

a. Constitutional amendment

b. Distress and sale of movable property

c. Impeachment proceedings

d. Habeas corpus petition

 

120. Section 64(1) also permits recovery through:

a. Process for recovery of land revenue

b. Criminal appeal only

c. Writ proceedings exclusively

d. Arbitration only

 

121. The process for recovery under Section 64 treats Government dues similarly to:

a. Compensation claims

b. Land revenue dues

c. Election liabilities

d. Criminal fines only

 

122. Under Section 64(2), when a grant is taken under management or resold, the Collector may recover:

a. Judicial costs only

b. Money due to the defaulter by any lessee

c. Pension arrears

d. Tax refunds only

 

123. Which authority is empowered under Section 64(2)?

a. Sessions Court

b. Collector

c. Gram Sabha

d. Excise Commissioner exclusively

 

124. Section 64 primarily provides:

a. Criminal procedure

b. Mechanism for realization of Government excise dues

c. Constitutional safeguards

d. Bail conditions

 

125. Section 65 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Bail provisions

b. Government lien on property of defaulters

c. Publication of rules

d. Appeals

 

126. Section 65 becomes applicable in the event of:

a. Acquittal of accused

b. Default by a person licensed or holding a lease under the Act

c. Constitutional amendment

d. Election dispute

 

127. Under Section 65, the person in default may be:

a. Any citizen only

b. Person licensed or holding a lease under the Act

c. Judicial officer only

d. Gram Sabha member only

 

128. Which of the following properties may be attached under Section 65?

a. Distillery, brewery or warehouse

b. Shop buildings and fittings

c. Stocks of intoxicants or manufacturing materials

d. All of the above

 

129. Under Section 65, attachment may be made for satisfaction of:

a. Election expenses

b. Claims for excise revenue or losses incurred by Government

c. Civil court decrees only

d. Compensation under tort law

 

130. Section 69 of the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act deals with:

a. Recovery of Government dues

b. Repeal of enactments

c. Bail provisions

d. Excise licences

 

131. Under Section 69, the enactments mentioned in the Schedule are:

a. Amended

b. Repealed

c. Consolidated

d. Suspended temporarily

 

132. The extent of repeal under Section 69 is specified in:

a. First column of the Schedule

b. Second column of the Schedule

c. Third column of the Schedule

d. Fourth column of the Schedule

 

133. Section 69 refers specifically to:

a. Rules framed under the Act

b. Enactments mentioned in the Schedule

c. Constitutional provisions only

d. Judicial precedents

 

134. The repeal under Section 69 operates:

a. Automatically beyond the Schedule

b. Only to the extent specified in the Schedule

c. Only after court approval

d. For one year only

 

135. Section 69 is an example of:

a. Procedural provision

b. Repealing provision

c. Penal provision

d. Evidentiary provision

 

136. The Schedule referred to in Section 69 forms:

a. No part of the Act

b. An integral part of the Act

c. A judicial appendix only

d. A temporary notification

 

137. Section 69 primarily serves the purpose of:

a. Imposing penalties

b. Removing earlier inconsistent enactments

c. Granting bail

d. Regulating appeals

 

138. Repeal of enactments under Section 69 indicates:

a. Continuation of old law unchanged

b. Abrogation of earlier specified laws

c. Delegation to courts

d. Suspension of Constitution

 

139. The main object of Section 69 is:

a. Grant of exemptions

b. Identification and repeal of prior enactments covered by the new legislation

c. Regulation of intoxicants

d. Recovery of land revenue

 

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