THE CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION ACT, 2003
ACT NO. 45 OF 2003
1. Who authorises a Vigilance Commissioner to act as the Central Vigilance Commissioner under Section 10?
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Government
c. President by notification
d. Parliament
2. The Vigilance Commissioner acts as CVC until:
a. The next general election
b. A new Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed or the CVC resumes duties
c. Parliament passes a resolution
d. The Prime Minister approves
3. Section 10(1) applies in case of vacancy due to:
a. Death of the CVC
b. Resignation of the CVC
c. Any other reason causing vacancy
d. All of the above
4. Section 10(2) applies when the CVC is:
a. Absent on leave
b. Unable to discharge his functions due to other reasons
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
5. The authorisation of a Vigilance Commissioner to act as CVC is issued:
a. Verbally by the President
b. Through a notification by the President
c. By resolution of the Commission
d. By the Prime Minister’s approval
6. The Vigilance Commissioner authorised under Section 10 has powers:
a. Equal to those of the Central Vigilance Commissioner for the period of acting
b. Limited to administrative matters only
c. Only to supervise staff
d. None, acts as an observer only
7. The period for which the Vigilance Commissioner acts as CVC in case of absence is:
a. Until Parliament approval
b. Until the CVC resumes his duties
c. Fixed at 30 days
d. Fixed at 90 days
8. The purpose of Section 10 is to:
a. Ensure continuity of leadership in the Central Vigilance Commission
b. Allow Parliament to supervise investigations
c. Regulate salaries of Commissioners
d. Empower the President to appoint staff
9. If the CVC dies, the Vigilance Commissioner acting as CVC holds office:
a. Permanently
b. Temporarily, until a new CVC is appointed
c. Only for 30 days
d. Only until the President decides otherwise
10. The President’s notification under Section 10 serves as:
a. Formal authorisation for the Vigilance Commissioner to act as CVC
b. A recommendation to the Prime Minister
c. A parliamentary order
d. A disciplinary action
11. Section 10 ensures that the functions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner:
a. Remain suspended during absence or vacancy
b. Continue without disruption
c. Are performed by the Prime Minister
d. Are transferred to Parliament
12. The CVC may be absent under Section 10(2) due to:
a. Official leave
b. Health reasons
c. Any reason preventing discharge of duties
d. All of the above
13. Section 10 highlights the role of the President in:
a. Appointment and removal of CVC only
b. Authorising Vigilance Commissioners to act as CVC temporarily
c. Supervising departmental proceedings
d. Regulating Commission procedures
14. Section 11 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Proceedings of the Commission
b. Powers relating to inquiries conducted by the Commission
c. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
d. Removal of Central Vigilance Commissioner
15. While conducting any inquiry under Section 11, the Commission has powers equivalent to:
a. A police officer
b. A civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. The Supreme Court
d. Parliament
16. Under Section 11(a), the Commission can summon and enforce the attendance of:
a. Only public servants
b. Any person from any part of India and examine him on oath
c. Only witnesses residing in New Delhi
d. Only members of the Commission
17. Under Section 11(b), the Commission can require:
a. Discovery and production of any document relevant to the inquiry
b. Removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. Appointment of new Vigilance Commissioners
d. Regulation of staff salaries
18. Section 11(c) allows the Commission to:
a. Examine evidence only orally
b. Receive evidence on affidavits
c. Conduct criminal trials
d. Appoint police officers
19. Under Section 11(d), the Commission can requisition:
a. Any public record or copy thereof from any court or office
b. Salaries of officers
c. Private correspondence of citizens
d. Parliamentary documents
20. Section 11(e) empowers the Commission to:
a. Issue commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents
b. Appoint the Prime Minister
c. Enforce laws in states
d. Conduct elections
21. Section 11(f) mentions that the Commission can deal with:
a. Matters prescribed under the Act
b. Only criminal cases
c. Only appointments
d. Budget allocation
22. The powers under Section 11 ensure that the Commission can:
a. Conduct inquiries effectively, like a civil court
b. Appoint the President
c. Remove Supreme Court judges
d. Conduct elections
23. The scope of Section 11 includes:
a. Summoning witnesses
b. Requisitioning public records
c. Receiving evidence on affidavits
d. All of the above
24. Section 11 empowers the Commission to summon witnesses from:
a. Within New Delhi only
b. Any part of India
c. Only central government offices
d. Only Union Territories
25. Issuing commissions under Section 11(e) is meant for:
a. Examination of witnesses or documents
b. Supervising vigilance administration
c. Salary fixation
d. Removal of public servants
26. Section 11 ensures that the Commission’s inquiries have:
a. Same powers as the civil court for relevant matters
b. Only advisory powers
c. No authority over documents
d. Only internal administrative powers
27. Requisitioning public records under Section 11(d) can be done from:
a. Any court or office
b. Only from the President
c. Only from state governments
d. Only from Parliament
28. The purpose of Section 11 is to:
a. Ensure the Commission can conduct inquiries effectively with civil court powers
b. Fix salaries of staff
c. Appoint Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Conduct parliamentary elections
29. Section 11A of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Powers of the Central Vigilance Commission
b. Director of Inquiry for making preliminary inquiry
c. Appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Proceedings of the Commission
30. The rank of the Director of Inquiry under Section 11A shall be:
a. Not below the rank of Under Secretary to the Government of India
b. Not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India
c. Not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India
d. Any officer of the Commission
31. Who appoints the Director of Inquiry under Section 11A?
a. Prime Minister
b. Central Government
c. Central Vigilance Commission
d. President of India
32. The Director of Inquiry is responsible for:
a. Conducting preliminary inquiries referred to the Commission by the Lokpal
b. Supervising vigilance administration of Ministries
c. Appointing Vigilance Commissioners
d. Fixing salaries of CVC staff
33. Section 11A(2) provides that the Central Government shall:
a. Provide the Director of Inquiry such officers and employees as may be required
b. Direct the Lokpal to conduct investigations
c. Approve the salary of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Remove Vigilance Commissioners
34. The Director of Inquiry under Section 11A is appointed to assist in:
a. Final investigations by the Supreme Court
b. Preliminary inquiries referred by the Lokpal
c. Conducting parliamentary proceedings
d. Appointment of CVC staff
35. The officers and employees provided to the Director of Inquiry are meant for:
a. Assisting in discharge of his functions under the Act
b. Supervising vigilance administration
c. Filing reports directly to Parliament
d. Salary administration
36. Section 11A ensures that preliminary inquiries have:
a. Dedicated authority in the form of the Director of Inquiry
b. Only advisory powers
c. No administrative support
d. Only Central Vigilance Commissioner oversight
37. The Director of Inquiry reports to:
a. The President of India
b. The Prime Minister
c. The Central Vigilance Commission, through inquiries referred by the Lokpal
d. The Supreme Court
38. The minimum rank requirement for the Director of Inquiry ensures:
a. Adequate authority and experience to conduct preliminary inquiries
b. Authority to appoint Central Vigilance Commissioners
c. Control over the entire CVC staff
d. Legislative powers
39. The appointment of the Director of Inquiry under Section 11A is done by:
a. A Parliamentary resolution
b. Notification by the Central Government
c. Resolution of the Central Vigilance Commission
d. Recommendation of the Prime Minister
40. The role of the Director of Inquiry is specifically linked to:
a. Inquiries against members of Parliament
b. Preliminary inquiries related to corruption under the Lokpal Act
c. Removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Supervision of state governments
41. Section 11A(2) empowers the Central Government to provide:
a. Financial grants to the Lokpal
b. Officers and employees to assist the Director of Inquiry
c. Advisory powers to the Prime Minister
d. Administrative powers to Parliament
42. The Director of Inquiry serves to ensure that:
a. Preliminary inquiries are conducted efficiently and independently
b. Vigilance Commissioners are appointed
c. The Central Government controls CVC proceedings
d. All complaints are forwarded to Parliament
43. The creation of the Director of Inquiry post under Section 11A primarily enhances:
a. Accountability and effectiveness of preliminary inquiries
b. Control of the Prime Minister over the Commission
c. Salary regulation for CVC staff
d. Supervision over parliamentary proceedings
44. Section 12 of the CVC Act, 2003 declares that proceedings before the Commission shall be:
a. Advisory proceedings
b. Judicial proceedings
c. Legislative proceedings
d. Administrative proceedings
45. For the purposes of Section 12, the Commission is deemed to be:
a. A police authority
b. A civil court
c. The Supreme Court
d. A parliamentary committee
46. Section 12 aligns the Commission with which provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a. Section 197 only
b. Chapter XXV only
c. Section 195 and Chapter XXVI
d. Section 144 only
47. Every proceeding before the Commission is deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of which IPC sections?
a. Sections 193, 228, and 196
b. Sections 420, 467, and 468
c. Sections 302, 304, and 307
d. Sections 120A, 120B, and 121
48. The term “judicial proceeding” in Section 12 implies that:
a. False statements before the Commission may attract penalties under IPC
b. The Commission can conduct elections
c. The Commission can pass laws
d. The Commission can supervise Parliament
49. Being deemed a civil court under Section 12, the Commission has the powers to:
a. Try suits under the Code of Civil Procedure
b. Investigate and take cognizance under criminal law provisions
c. Both a and b, as per provisions specified
d. Only provide advice to the Central Government
50. Section 12 ensures that proceedings before the Commission are protected under law similar to:
a. Administrative actions
b. Parliamentary immunity
c. Judicial proceedings for contempt and false evidence
d. Executive orders
51. The effect of Section 12 is to:
a. Grant the Commission status equivalent to a civil court for certain legal purposes
b. Make the Commission independent of all laws
c. Allow the Commission to amend IPC sections
d. Limit the Commission’s powers to advisory role only
51. Section 12 applies for proceedings related to:
a. Only preliminary inquiries
b. Every proceeding before the Commission
c. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
d. Salary determination
53. If a person gives false evidence before the Commission, Section 12 provides that:
a. No action can be taken
b. He may be penalised under sections 193 and 228 of IPC
c. Only a warning will be issued
d. The matter is referred to Parliament
54. Section 12(1) enables the Commission to act judicially in respect of:
a. Civil proceedings only
b. Criminal provisions as specified under IPC and CrPC
c. Administrative orders only
d. Parliamentary functions
55. For purposes of Section 12, the Commission is deemed a civil court specifically in relation to:
a. Sections 195 and Chapter XXVI of CrPC, 1973
b. Sections 302 and 307 of IPC
c. Chapter X of CPC
d. Article 124 of Constitution
56. The designation of proceedings as judicial under Section 12 ensures:
a. Legal protection for officers and witnesses appearing before the Commission
b. Authority to supervise state governments
c. Power to fix salaries of government employees
d. Authority to appoint ministers
57. Section 12 links the Commission’s proceedings to:
a. Preventive vigilance only
b. Civil and criminal procedural law for enforcement
c. Taxation law only
d. Parliamentary procedures only
58. The primary purpose of Section 12 is to:
a. Grant legal sanctity to the Commission’s proceedings as judicial proceedings
b. Enable the Commission to conduct elections
c. Allow the Commission to amend laws
d. Give administrative control over central government
59. Section 13 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
b. Expenses of the Commission
c. Powers of inquiry of the Commission
d. Proceedings before the Commission
60. The expenses of the Commission under Section 13 include:
a. Only salaries of the staff
b. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff
c. Only office rent
d. Only travel allowances
61. Section 13 specifies that the Commission’s expenses shall be charged on:
a. State government funds
b. Contingency fund of India
c. Consolidated Fund of India
d. Salaries fund of CVC
62. Charging the expenses on the Consolidated Fund of India ensures that:
a. The Commission is financially independent of the government
b. The Commission cannot spend money
c. Only salaries are paid from the fund
d. The Commission requires parliamentary approval for each expense
63. The expenses under Section 13 include pensions payable to:
a. Only retired Central Vigilance Commissioners
b. Only staff of the Commission
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff
d. Only officers of state governments
64. Section 13 ensures financial autonomy of the Commission by:
a. Charging its expenses on the Consolidated Fund of India
b. Requiring approval from the Prime Minister for each payment
c. Charging expenses to state governments
d. Limiting salaries to below the Union Public Service Commission
65. Which of the following is not explicitly covered under Section 13 as part of expenses?
a. Salaries of staff
b. Travel allowances of Commissioners
c. Administrative costs
d. Powers of inquiry
66. Section 13 provides that the Commission’s expenses are:
a. Part of the general administrative budget of the Ministry of Personnel
b. Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and not subject to state government control
c. Subject to approval by the Parliament every month
d. Paid by the Lokpal
67. The phrase “charged on the Consolidated Fund of India” in Section 13 implies:
a. Automatic provision of funds without requiring annual appropriation
b. Annual approval is needed from Parliament
c. Payment requires Presidential discretion only
d. Only salaries are covered, not pensions
68. Section 13 ensures that financial matters of the Commission:
a. Do not depend on annual grants or the executive’s discretion
b. Are directly controlled by the Prime Minister
c. Are decided by the Lokpal
d. Require Supreme Court approval
69. The Consolidated Fund of India, as mentioned in Section 13, is:
a. A special fund maintained only for CVC
b. The main government account from which expenses of central authorities are met
c. A state government fund
d. A fund used only for salaries of civil servants
70. Section 13 includes which of the following as part of expenses:
a. Salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to staff
b. Salaries of Lokpal members
c. Salaries of private companies
d. State government expenditure
71. The legal effect of Section 13 is that:
a. The Commission cannot be financially influenced by the government
b. The Commission depends on the executive for funds
c. The Commission is subject to state government approval
d. The Commission can charge citizens directly
72. Who benefits from the provisions of Section 13 regarding salaries and pensions?
a. Only the Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Only the staff of the Commission
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff
d. Only the Prime Minister
73. Section 13 ensures that the Commission’s financial requirements:
a. Are met from the Consolidated Fund of India without dependence on yearly budgetary sanctions
b. Require state government sanction
c. Require the approval of the Lokpal
d. Are determined by the Supreme Court
74. Section 14 of the CVC Act, 2003 deals with:
a. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
b. Annual report of the Commission
c. Proceedings before the Commission
d. Expenses of the Commission
75. According to Section 14(1), the Commission is required to present the annual report to:
a. Prime Minister
b. President of India
c. Parliament directly
d. Central Vigilance Commissioner
76. Section 14(1) requires the report to be submitted:
a. Within three months of the end of the year
b. Within six months of the close of the year under report
c. Only at the end of the five-year term
d. Whenever the Commission desires
77. The annual report under Section 14 shall contain a separate part on:
a. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
b. Functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment
c. Salaries and allowances of the staff
d. Parliamentary proceedings
78. Section 14(2) specifies that the report on the Delhi Special Police Establishment should relate to:
a. Its investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act
b. Its administrative structure only
c. Its financial expenditure
d. Its staff recruitment
79. After receiving the annual report, the President shall:
a. Publish it in the Official Gazette
b. Cause it to be laid before each House of Parliament
c. Send it to the Prime Minister only
d. Keep it confidential
80. Section 14 ensures accountability of the Commission by:
a. Submitting a report annually to the President and Parliament
b. Allowing public access to internal communications
c. Approving salaries of staff
d. Supervising state governments
81. The timeline for submitting the report ensures that:
a. Parliament receives regular updates on vigilance activities
b. The Commission can delay the report indefinitely
c. Only the Delhi Special Police Establishment is monitored
d. Annual budgets are approved by the Commission
82. Section 14 links the Commission’s work with:
a. Legislative functions of Parliament
b. The functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment and central vigilance oversight
c. Judicial review of state governments
d. Appointment of the President
83. The report under Section 14 provides Parliament with:
a. Information on the work done by the Commission during the year
b. Authority to appoint Vigilance Commissioners
c. Control over salaries of the Commission staff
d. Powers to remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner
84. Section 14 ensures that the annual report:
a. Is presented to the President and laid before Parliament
b. Is presented only to the Prime Minister
c. Can be withheld for confidentiality
d. Only contains financial statements
85. The separate part of the report regarding the Delhi Special Police Establishment ensures:
a. Transparency in vigilance investigations
b. Authority to appoint police officers
c. Review of salaries only
d. Supervision of state police
86. The annual report serves as a mechanism for:
a. Parliamentary oversight of the Commission
b. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
c. Fixing salaries of the staff
d. Removal of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
87. Which of the following is explicitly required in the annual report under Section 14?
a. Work of the Commission
b. Salaries and pensions of staff
c. Travel expenses of the Commissioners
d. Vacancies in Parliament
88. The primary purpose of Section 14 is to:
a. Ensure annual reporting and accountability of the Commission to the President and Parliament
b. Fix salaries of staff
c. Control the Delhi Special Police Establishment directly
d. Appoint Vigilance Commissioners
89. Section 15 of the CVC Act, 2003 provides protection against:
a. Civil service rules
b. Suit, prosecution, or other legal proceedings
c. Appointment of Vigilance Commissioners
d. Parliamentary scrutiny
90. The protection under Section 15 applies to:
a. Only the Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. The Commission, Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff
c. Only the staff of the Commission
d. Only government ministries
91. Section 15 protects actions that are:
a. Done in bad faith
b. Done or intended to be done in good faith under this Act
c. Done without legal authority
d. Done outside the country
92. The legal protection under Section 15 ensures that:
a. Officers are immune from any legal consequences for official acts done in good faith
b. Officers can act against the law freely
c. Officers are only protected in criminal cases
d. Officers are protected only from departmental action
93. Section 15 encourages vigilance officers to:
a. Avoid performing duties
b. Act independently without fear of litigation when performing functions in good faith
c. Delay inquiries
d. Seek approval from the Supreme Court for every action
94. Which of the following is not protected under Section 15?
a. Acts done in good faith under the CVC Act
b. Intended acts in good faith under the CVC Act
c. Acts done in bad faith or for personal gain
d. Actions by staff under proper regulations
95. The protection in Section 15 applies to:
a. Only civil proceedings
b. Both civil and criminal proceedings
c. Only disciplinary actions
d. Only administrative directions
96. Section 15 ensures that legal proceedings cannot be initiated against officers for:
a. Anything done in good faith under the CVC Act
b. Personal disputes unrelated to work
c. Acts of negligence
d. Criminal offenses outside the scope of the Act
97. The term “good faith” in Section 15 implies:
a. Honest intention and absence of malice while performing duties under this Act
b. Any action, whether malicious or not
c. Actions outside the powers of the Commission
d. Illegal financial transactions
98. Section 15 protects the Secretary of the Commission against:
a. Criminal prosecution for malafide acts
b. Legal proceedings for acts done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act
c. Actions outside India
d. Civil suits only for salary disputes
99. The primary purpose of Section 15 is to:
a. Ensure accountability of officers to the government
b. Provide immunity to the Commission and its officers acting in good faith
c. Regulate the salaries of the Commission staff
d. Empower the Commission to override courts
100. Section 15 protection applies to actions:
a. Mandated by other laws
b. Undertaken under the powers of the CVC Act
c. Done for personal financial gain
d. Only if approved by the President
101. By Section 15, the Commission and its officers can perform their duties:
a. Without fear of legal consequences, if done in good faith
b. Only under judicial supervision
c. Only after prior approval of Parliament
d. Only after notifying the Prime Minister
102. Section 15 is similar in spirit to protections in other vigilance and regulatory laws because it:
a. Encourages honest and fearless discharge of duties
b. Grants arbitrary powers to officers
c. Removes all accountability
d. Allows officers to act outside the law
103. Which of the following best summarizes Section 15?
a. Legal protection in good faith actions under the Act for Commission, officers, and staff
b. Appointment procedure for Vigilance Commissioners
c. Annual reporting obligations of the Commission
d. Powers to summon documents
104. Section 16 of the CVC Act, 2003 declares that the Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff of the Commission shall be deemed to be:
a. Government contractors
b. Public servants within the meaning of IPC Section 21
c. Members of Parliament
d. Judges of courts
105. The purpose of Section 16 is to:
a. Give powers to CVC officers to act like ministers
b. Categorize the Commission and its officers as public servants under the Indian Penal Code
c. Exempt the staff from legal action
d. Define salaries of the Commission staff
106. The term “public servant” in Section 16 refers to the meaning provided in:
a. Constitution of India
b. Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
c. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Companies Act, 1956
107. Section 16 ensures that any misconduct by the Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, or staff can be:
a. Ignored under the law
b. Prosecuted as an offence committed by a public servant
c. Only handled internally
d. Punished by the Prime Minister
108. By deeming CVC officers as public servants under Section 16, the Act ensures:
a. Their actions fall under the purview of laws relating to public servants, including IPC provisions
b. They are immune from prosecution
c. They cannot be investigated
d. They have judicial powers
109. Section 16 applies to:
a. Only the Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Only Vigilance Commissioners
c. Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and all staff of the Commission
d. Only staff of the Commission
110. Under Section 16, the staff of the Commission is treated as public servants to:
a. Allow them to perform judicial functions
b. Ensure accountability and applicability of criminal laws to their actions
c. Grant immunity from prosecution
d. Enable direct reporting to Parliament
111. Which of the following is a correct implication of Section 16?
a. CVC officers can be tried for offences under IPC relating to public servants
b. CVC officers are exempt from criminal liability
c. Only civil actions apply to CVC officers
d. CVC officers can override government decisions
112. The Section 16 declaration is important because:
a. It makes CVC officers accountable under anti-corruption laws
b. It defines their salaries
c. It allows them to make laws
d. It provides immunity for investigations
113. Section 16 ensures that all actions of the Commission and its officers are:
a. Covered under public servant provisions of IPC, including criminal liability for misconduct
b. Exempt from legal review
c. Confidential and unreviewable
d. Only subject to administrative orders
114. Section 16 contributes to:
a. Legal recognition of CVC officers as public servants for enforcing accountability and vigilance
b. Granting them immunity from investigation
c. Making them legislative authorities
d. Approving their salaries and pensions
115. Section 16 is closely linked with:
a. Section 15 (protection of action taken in good faith)
b. Section 14 (annual report)
c. Section 3 (constitution of CVC)
d. Section 20 (Power to inquire into complaints)
116. The IPC Section 21 referred to in Section 16 defines:
a. Who is a public servant
b. Powers of the Prime Minister
c. Duties of government officers
d. Rules of parliamentary procedure
117. Section 16 makes the Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary, and staff accountable under:
a. Criminal law of India for misconduct
b. International law
c. Only civil administrative law
d. Judicial discretion of courts
118. The practical effect of Section 16 is that:
a. CVC officers can be charged for corruption or abuse of office as public servants
b. CVC officers cannot be prosecuted
c. CVC officers are above all laws
d. CVC officers can legislate rules
119. Under Section 17, the report of an inquiry undertaken by any agency on a reference made by the Commission shall be:
a. Submitted to the Prime Minister
b. Forwarded to the Commission
c. Placed in Parliament
d. Kept confidential by the agency
120. After receiving the report under Section 17, the Commission shall:
a. Conduct the inquiry again
b. Advise the Central Government and corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities as to the further course of action
c. Publish the report immediately in the Gazette
d. Take no action
121. The advice of the Commission under Section 17 must be considered by:
a. Only the Central Government
b. Central Government, corporations established by or under any Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government
c. Only the Prime Minister
d. Only the Parliament
122. If the Central Government or a corporation does not agree with the advice of the Commission under Section 17, it must:
a. Ignore the advice
b. Communicate its disagreement along with reasons in writing to the Commission
c. Refer the matter to the Supreme Court
d. Take unilateral action without informing the Commission
123. The primary purpose of Section 17 is to:
a. Ensure that all inquiry reports are confidential
b. Provide a mechanism for the Commission to advise the Central Government and related bodies based on inquiry reports
c. Delegate powers of investigation to the agencies
d. Appoint new Vigilance Commissioners
124 Under Section 17, the Commission may consider:
a. Only the inquiry report submitted by the agency
b. The inquiry report and any other factors relevant to the matter
c. Only prior directives of the President
d. Only recommendations of the Prime Minister
125. Section 17 ensures that agencies conducting inquiries:
a. Act independently without reporting to the Commission
b. Forward the inquiry report to the Commission for further guidance
c. Publish their findings in newspapers
d. Decide the action to be taken without the Commission
126. Which of the following is true under Section 17?
a. The Commission has the final authority to enforce its advice
b. The Central Government and other bodies must consider the Commission’s advice but can reject it with reasons
c. Agencies can ignore the Commission’s reference
d. The advice is optional and need not be recorded
127. Section 17 creates a system of:
a. Inquiry, advice, and accountability between the Commission and the Government/organizations
b. Judicial review of Commission actions
c. Independent decision-making by agencies without oversight
d. Appointment of officers
128. If a report is received under Section 17, the Commission can:
a. Issue orders directly to government employees
b. Advise the concerned authorities on the further course of action
c. Override the decisions of the Central Government
d. Take disciplinary action independently
129. Section 17 emphasizes:
a. Forwarding inquiry reports, giving advice, and ensuring accountability
b. Publishing reports in newspapers
c. Immediate termination of public servants
d. Direct legislative powers for the Commission
130. The reporting mechanism under Section 17 ensures:
a. That the Commission can monitor inquiries and provide guidance
b. That agencies act without any oversight
c. That the Central Government does not have to consider the Commission’s advice
d. That the public is notified of every investigation
131. Which authorities are explicitly required to act on the Commission’s advice under Section 17?
a. Only Central Government ministries
b. Central Government, corporations under Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities controlled by the Central Government
c. State Governments only
d. Parliament
132. The requirement to communicate disagreement in writing under Section 17 ensures:
a. Transparency and accountability in the decision-making process
b. That the Commission’s advice is always binding
c. That agencies can ignore advice informally
d. That only oral instructions are necessary
133. The role of Section 17 in the CVC framework is:
a. To strengthen oversight and coordination between the Commission and agencies conducting inquiries
b. To make the Commission a judicial authority
c. To exempt officers from accountability
d. To define salaries of Commission staff
134. Under Section 18, the Central Vigilance Commission may call for:
a. Only personal information of public servants
b. Reports, returns, and statements from the Central Government and related organizations
c. Legislative approval from Parliament
d. Court orders for every inquiry
135. The purpose of Section 18 is to:
a. Enable the Commission to supervise vigilance and anti-corruption work
b. Appoint new Vigilance Commissioners
c. Decide salaries of Government employees
d. Issue binding judgments in corruption cases
136. Which entities can the Commission call information from under Section 18?
a. Only Central Government ministries
b. Central Government, corporations under Central Act, Government companies, societies, and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government
c. Only the President of India
d. Private companies
137. Section 18 empowers the Commission to exercise:
a. Legislative powers
b. General supervision over vigilance and anti-corruption work
c. Judicial powers over public servants
d. Financial powers over corporations
138. The information called for under Section 18 helps the Commission to:
a. Ensure transparency, accountability, and effective anti-corruption measures
b. Approve appointments in corporations
c. Issue salaries and allowances
d. Conduct parliamentary proceedings
139. Section 18 allows the Commission to supervise:
a. Only the Delhi Special Police Establishment
b. Vigilance and anti-corruption work in the Central Government, corporations, companies, societies, and local authorities under Central control
c. State Government departments
d. International organizations
140. Which of the following is true under Section 18?
a. The Commission can call for information without any restriction from government-controlled entities
b. The Commission’s supervision is limited to internal administrative matters
c. The Commission cannot access any reports from Government companies
d. The Commission can only advise but not call for information
141. Section 18 ensures that the Commission has the authority to:
a. Monitor and oversee vigilance functions effectively
b. Overrule the Parliament
c. Control the finances of Government companies
d. Appoint judicial officers
142. Calling for information under Section 18 is aimed at:
a. Centralizing all governmental power in the Commission
b. Assisting the Commission in general supervision and strengthening anti-corruption measures
c. Bypassing administrative procedures
d. Replacing disciplinary authorities
143. Section 18 makes it mandatory for:
a. Private companies to report to the Commission
b. Central Government and specified entities to provide information for vigilance oversight
c. Only the Prime Minister to supervise the Commission
d. Parliament to approve each inquiry
144. The general supervision exercised by the Commission under Section 18 covers:
a. Only financial transactions
b. Vigilance and anti-corruption work in government and government-controlled entities
c. Private businesses
d. International agreements
145. Section 18 enables the Commission to:
a. Collect information proactively to prevent corruption
b. Issue punishments directly
c. Modify laws
d. Conduct elections
146. The entities under Section 18 include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Central Government ministries
b. Government companies
c. Societies owned or controlled by the Central Government
d. Private corporations not under government control
147. The power under Section 18 is essential for the Commission to:
a. Function effectively as the apex vigilance authority
b. Replace state governments
c. Control financial markets
d. Legislate new anti-corruption laws
148. The reports, returns, and statements requested under Section 18 are used by the Commission to:
a. Evaluate the efficiency of vigilance machinery and advise on corrective action
b. Make appointments in companies
c. Draft the annual budget
d. Grant exemptions from anti-corruption laws
149. Under Section 19, the Central Government is required to consult the Commission while:
a. Making rules or regulations governing vigilance or disciplinary matters of public servants
b. Approving budgets for Ministries
c. Conducting elections to the Parliament
d. Appointing the President
150. Section 19 applies to rules and regulations concerning:
a. Only financial matters
b. Vigilance and disciplinary matters of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with Union affairs
c. Only foreign policy
d. Only private sector employees
151. Which category of personnel is explicitly mentioned under Section 19 for consultation with the Commission?
a. State Government employees
b. Members of the All-India Services and persons appointed to public services under the Union
c. Private company employees
d. Local municipal employees not under Central Government control
152. The primary purpose of Section 19 is to:
a. Ensure the Commission’s involvement in vigilance and disciplinary rule-making for Union services
b. Allow the Commission to draft legislation independently
c. Permit the Commission to appoint public servants
d. Control salaries and pensions
153. Section 19 makes consultation with the Commission:
a. Mandatory before making rules or regulations on vigilance and disciplinary matters for Union public services
b. Optional for all governmental matters
c. Applicable only to State Governments
d. Limited to financial decisions
154. Which of the following best describes the function of the Commission under Section 19?
a. Advisory role in rule-making for vigilance and disciplinary matters
b. Judicial authority to try public servants
c. Legislative power to enact laws
d. Executive authority to enforce laws
155. Consultation under Section 19 is required for:
a. All rules and regulations relating to public services and All-India Services concerning vigilance and discipline
b. Only financial policies of corporations
c. Local municipal taxation rules
d. International treaties
156. Section 19 ensures:
a. Transparency and accountability in making vigilance and disciplinary rules for Union services
b. Centralization of all powers in the President
c. Direct judicial control over public servants
d. Mandatory disciplinary action without investigation
157. The term “consult” under Section 19 implies:
a. Seeking advice from the Commission before finalizing rules or regulations
b. Allowing the Commission to approve rules independently
c. Ignoring the Commission’s recommendations
d. Delegating legislative powers to the Commission
158. Section 19 strengthens:
a. The role of the Commission in preventive vigilance and oversight of disciplinary matters
b. The power of State Governments in Union services
c. The autonomy of corporations to bypass vigilance rules
d. Judicial control over legislative affairs
159. Under Section 19, which body must the Central Government consult?
a. Supreme Court
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Parliament
d. Election Commission of India
160. Section 19 is applicable to:
a. Only All-India Services
b. All public services and posts in connection with Union affairs and members of the All-India Services
c. Private sector employees
d. Local NGOs
161. The Commission’s consultation under Section 19 ensures that vigilance and disciplinary rules:
a. Are consistent with anti-corruption policies
b. Favor certain public servants
c. Replace executive authority
d. Are approved by Parliament
162.The advisory role under Section 19 is primarily:
a. Preventive and supervisory regarding vigilance and discipline
b. Punitive and judicial
c. Legislative
d. Financial
163. The importance of Section 19 in the CVC framework is to:
a. Integrate the Commission’s expertise into rule-making for public servants to prevent corruption and ensure proper discipline
b. Allow the Commission to enforce penalties
c. Control the budgets of corporations
d. Appoint public servants
164. Under Section 20(1), the Central Government may:
a. Make rules by notification in the Official Gazette for carrying out the provisions of the CVC Act
b. Amend the Constitution of India
c. Appoint the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. Conduct disciplinary proceedings
165. Section 20(2)(a) allows rules to be made regarding:
a. The number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service under section 7
b. The powers of the Supreme Court
c. Salaries of Members of Parliament
d. Taxation rules for corporations
166. Section 20(2)(b) allows rules to be made regarding:
a. Powers of civil courts to be prescribed under clause (f) of section 11
b. Appointment of public servants
c. Penalties under the Indian Penal Code
d. Parliamentary procedures
167. Section 20(2)(c) allows the Central Government to make rules regarding:
a. Any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed under the Act
b. Election of the President
c. State legislation
d. Criminal trials in High Courts
168. Rules made under Section 20 must be:
a. Notified in the Official Gazette
b. Approved by the Supreme Court
c. Reviewed by Parliament before notification
d. Published only internally within Ministries
169. Section 20 ensures that rules under the Act can provide for:
a. The functioning and administration of the Commission
b. Appointment of judges
c. State taxation powers
d. Military regulations
170. The rules under Section 20 help in:
a. Carrying out the provisions of the CVC Act effectively
b. Granting immunity from prosecution to public servants
c. Appointing private company directors
d. Conducting elections
171. The rules under Section 20 may be made without prejudice to the generality of the Act, which means:
a. They do not limit the overall powers of the Central Government to make additional rules
b. They can override the Act itself
c. They only apply to Delhi Special Police Establishment
d. They are optional for the Commission
172. The power to make rules under Section 20 is exercised by:
a. The Central Government
b. The President of India directly
c. The Supreme Court
d. Parliament only
173. Section 20 provides rule-making power specifically for:
a. Staff conditions, civil court powers, and any other matters required under the Act
b. Private sector vigilance
c. State legislation
d. International agreements
174. The notification of rules under Section 20 ensures:
a. Transparency and official publication for public knowledge
b. Secret implementation within Ministries
c. Direct enforcement by police
d. Automatic approval of new laws
175. Section 20 empowers the Central Government to make rules regarding:
a. Administrative, procedural, and functional matters under the CVC Act
b. Appointment of judges to High Courts
c. Tax collection procedures
d. Foreign policy decisions
176. The rules under Section 20 are essential to:
a. Operationalize the Act and empower the Commission to function effectively
b. Remove the Commission’s powers
c. Replace Parliament in legislative matters
d. Control private businesses
177. Section 20(2) highlights that rules may provide for:
a. Specific matters mentioned in the Act as well as any other matters that may be prescribed
b. Election of the President
c. State legislative procedures
d. International treaties
178. The significance of Section 20 is:
a. It gives the Central Government the authority to frame detailed rules for implementation of the CVC Act
b. It allows the Commission to bypass laws
c. It empowers the Supreme Court to make rules
d. It regulates elections
179. Under Section 21(1), the Commission may make regulations:
a. With the previous approval of the Central Government and by notification in the Official Gazette
b. Without any approval and privately
c. Only for State Government employees
d. To amend the Constitution
180. Regulations made under Section 21 must be:
a. Not inconsistent with the CVC Act and the rules made thereunder
b. Independent of the Act
c. Applicable only to private companies
d. Approved by the Supreme Court
181. The main purpose of regulations under Section 21 is:
a. To provide for all matters expedient for giving effect to the provisions of the CVC Act
b. To appoint public servants directly
c. To control the budget of Parliament
d. To regulate international treaties
182. Section 21(2)(a) allows regulations to provide for:
a. The duties and powers of the Secretary under sub-section (4) of section 3
b. Salaries of Members of Parliament
c. Election procedures
d. Military administration
183. Section 21(2)(b) allows regulations to provide for:
a. The procedure to be followed by the Commission under sub-section (2) of section 9
b. Appointment of the President
c. State taxation rules
d. Judicial powers of High Courts
184. Regulations made under Section 21 require:
a. Previous approval of the Central Government
b. Approval of Parliament
c. Approval of State Governments
d. Approval of the Supreme Court
185. Section 21 ensures that regulations are:
a. Consistent with the Act and rules while providing operational clarity to the Commission
b. Independent and can override the Act
c. Applicable to private companies only
d. Judicial in nature
186. The notification of regulations under Section 21 in the Official Gazette ensures:
a. Transparency and public accessibility
b. Secret implementation within the Commission
c. Automatic legislative approval
d. Enforcement without publication
187. The power under Section 21 complements:
a. The rule-making power of the Central Government under Section 20
b. Judicial powers of the Supreme Court
c. State legislative powers
d. Election procedures
188. Regulations under Section 21 may deal with:
a. Duties of the Secretary and the procedural matters of the Commission
b. Salaries of State Government employees
c. Tax laws
d. Foreign policy
189. The significance of Section 21 is to:
a. Empower the Commission to operationalize its functions through regulations approved by the Central Government
b. Give the Commission legislative powers
c. Regulate elections
d. Control private sector functioning
190. Section 21(1) provides that regulations are made:
a. To give effect to the provisions of the CVC Act
b. To change constitutional provisions
c. To regulate state policies
d. To bypass the Act
191. The phrase “without prejudice to the generality” in Section 21(2) implies:
a. Regulations may cover specific matters listed as well as other expedient matters
b. Regulations are limited to financial matters only
c. Regulations can override the Act
d. Regulations only apply to Delhi
192. Section 21 ensures:
a. The Commission can detail procedures and responsibilities within the framework of the Act
b. The Commission can amend laws
c. State Governments can bypass the Commission
d. Private companies can create their own regulations
193. The regulations made under Section 21 must always be:
a. Consistent with the Act and the rules made thereunder
b. Independent of the Act
c. Applicable to Parliament
d. Approved by the judiciary
194. Under Section 22, every notification, rule, or regulation made under the Act must be:
a. Laid before each House of Parliament
b. Sent only to the President
c. Published only within the Commission
d. Sent to the Supreme Court
195. Section 22 requires notifications, rules, or regulations to be laid as soon as may be after:
a. They are issued or made
b. The financial year ends
c. Approval of the Supreme Court
d. The Central Government grants funds
196. The total period for which a notification, rule, or regulation must be laid before Parliament is:
a. Thirty days, which may be in one session or two or more successive sessions
b. Sixty days in a single session
c. One year continuously
d. Ten days in one session
197. If both Houses of Parliament agree before the expiry of the next session, they can:
a. Modify or annul the notification, rule, or regulation
b. Increase the salary of the Commissioners
c. Appoint a new Secretary
d. Amend the Constitution
198. Any modification or annulment under Section 22:
a. Does not affect the validity of anything previously done under that notification, rule, or regulation
b. Invalidates all actions previously taken
c. Requires Presidential assent
d. Needs approval of the Supreme Court
199. Section 22 applies to:
a. Every notification under clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 8, every rule made by the Central Government, and every regulation made by the Commission
b. Only regulations made by the Commission
c. Only rules made by the State Government
d. Only notifications issued by the President
200. The period of thirty days for laying before Parliament can be:
a. Comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions
b. Only in a single continuous session
c. Only after the approval of the President
d. Ignored if Parliament is dissolved
201. Section 22 ensures:
a. Parliamentary oversight over notifications, rules, and regulations made under the CVC Act
b. Supreme Court approval for rules
c. State Government involvement
d. Automatic implementation without scrutiny
202. If Parliament modifies a rule, regulation, or notification, the modified version:
a. Only then has effect
b. Is void retrospectively
c. Cannot take effect until next financial year
d. Requires Supreme Court ratification
203. Section 22 safeguards:
a. Actions taken previously under the original notification, rule, or regulation
b. Appointment of Commissioners
c. Budget allocations for vigilance activities
d. State legislation powers
204. The purpose of Section 22 is to:
a. Ensure transparency and accountability of the rule-making and regulatory process under the Act
b. Give powers to the Supreme Court
c. Delegate powers to State Governments
d. Control elections
205. Section 22 requires Parliamentary agreement for:
a. Modifications or annulment of notifications, rules, or regulations
b. Salary revision of Commissioners
c. Appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
d. State vigilance matters
206. The rules, regulations, or notifications continue to operate unless and until:
a. Parliament modifies or annuls them under the procedure laid down in Section 22
b. The Supreme Court intervenes
c. The President disapproves
d. The State Government objects
207. Section 22 is important because it:
a. Provides legislative oversight for the CVC Act’s implementation
b. Allows arbitrary changes by the Commission
c. Empowers State Governments to override the Act
d. Gives judiciary exclusive control
208. Even if a notification, rule, or regulation is later annulled by Parliament, actions already done under it:
a. Remain valid
b. Become void
c. Require re-approval
d. Must be repeated
209. Under Section 23(1), if any difficulty arises in giving effect to the provisions of the Act, the power to remove the difficulty lies with:
a. The President
b. The Central Government
c. The Supreme Court
d. The Commission
210. Any order issued under Section 23 to remove difficulties must be:
a. Not inconsistent with the provisions of the CVC Act
b. Applicable only to State Governments
c. Overriding the Act itself
d. Approved by the Supreme Court
211. The proviso in Section 23(1) restricts the power to remove difficulties to:
a. Within two years from the date of commencement of the Act
b. Any time during the existence of the Act
c. Only the first year of the Act
d. Five years from commencement
212. Section 23(2) requires every order made under this section to be:
a. Laid before each House of Parliament as soon as may be after it is made
b. Sent only to the President
c. Published in the Supreme Court
d. Sent to State Governments for approval
213. The purpose of Section 23 is to:
a. Empower the Central Government to remove any difficulty in implementing the Act
b. Allow the Supreme Court to amend the Act
c. Empower State Governments to override the Act
d. Give unlimited powers to the Commission
214. An order made under Section 23:
a. Cannot be inconsistent with the provisions of the Act
b. Can contradict the Act
c. Requires approval of the Supreme Court
d. Can be issued after five years of commencement
215. Section 23 ensures that Parliament:
a. Is informed about every order made to remove difficulties
b. Approves each order before issuance
c. Directly executes the order
d. Is not involved in the process
216. The time limit of two years in Section 23(1) is calculated from:
a. The date of commencement of the CVC Act, 2003
b. The date of the first appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner
c. The date of first notification under Section 20
d. The date of the first annual report
217. Section 23 is necessary because:
a. It provides flexibility to resolve practical difficulties in implementing the Act
b. It allows changing the Act permanently
c. It gives the Commission the power to amend rules
d. It authorizes the President to make laws
218. Every order under Section 23 laid before Parliament:
a. Serves as a report for legislative oversight
b. Requires a vote for implementation
c. Automatically becomes null and void
d. Needs Supreme Court approval
219. Section 23(1) restricts the exercise of power to remove difficulties so that:
a. Orders cannot be made indefinitely after the Act comes into force
b. Orders can be made at any time
c. The Commission can issue orders on its own
d. Orders apply retroactively for 10 years
220. The orders made under Section 23 do not:
a. Alter or contradict the provisions of the Act
b. Inform Parliament
c. Help in smooth implementation
d. Resolve administrative issues
221. Section 23 provides:
a. Temporary corrective power to the Central Government to ensure the Act functions effectively
b. Permanent power to amend the Act
c. Power to dissolve the Commission
d. Power to bypass Parliament
222. The action under Section 23 is:
a. Executive in nature and subject to parliamentary oversight
b. Judicial in nature
c. Legislative in nature
d. Independent of Parliament
223. The maximum period within which the Central Government can issue an order to remove difficulties under Section 23 is:
a. Two years from commencement
b. One year from commencement
c. Five years from commencement
d. Unlimited period
224. With effect from the constitution of the Commission under Section 3(1), the existing Vigilance Commission set up by the Government of India in 1964:
a. Ceases to exist completely
b. Continues to discharge functions not inconsistent with the provisions of the CVC Act, 2003
c. Can issue independent orders
d. Can act in contradiction to the CVC Act, 2003
225. All actions and decisions taken by the existing Vigilance Commission:
a. Are null and void under the new Act
b. Shall be deemed to have been taken by the Commission constituted under the CVC Act, 2003
c. Require fresh approval by the President
d. Need ratification by Parliament
226. All proceedings pending before the existing Vigilance Commission:
a. Continue under the old Commission
b. Are automatically closed
c. Shall be deemed to be transferred to the Commission constituted under the CVC Act, 2003
d. Need Supreme Court approval for continuation
227. The employees of the existing Vigilance Commission:
a. Lose their jobs automatically
b. Shall become employees of the new Commission on the same terms and conditions
c. Are required to reapply for their positions
d. Receive new service terms decided by the Central Government
228. All assets and liabilities of the existing Vigilance Commission:
a. Remain with the old Commission
b. Shall be transferred to the Commission constituted under the CVC Act, 2003
c. Are to be sold by the Central Government
d. Are managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs
229. The term “existing Vigilance Commission” in Section 24 refers to:
a. The Commission constituted in 1964 by the Government of India in the Ministry of Home Affairs
b. The CVC Act, 2003 Commission
c. Any State Vigilance Commission
d. The Supreme Court of India
230. Section 24 ensures continuity in:
a. Only the employees
b. Only the assets
c. Actions, decisions, pending proceedings, employees, assets, and liabilities of the existing Commission
d. Only financial matters
231. Section 24 is necessary because:
a. It allows smooth transition from the old Vigilance Commission to the new Central Vigilance Commission
b. It allows Parliament to dissolve the old Commission
c. It allows employees to get new salaries
d. It creates a new State-level Commission
232. Pending proceedings under the old Commission:
a. Shall be reinitiated from scratch
b. Are deemed transferred to the CVC and dealt with according to the CVC Act, 2003
c. Are closed automatically
d. Require Supreme Court intervention
233. Section 24 ensures that the functions of the old Vigilance Commission:
a. Continue only if inconsistent with the CVC Act
b. Continue only in areas inconsistent with the CVC Act
c. Continue only in areas not inconsistent with the provisions of the CVC Act, 2003
d. Are replaced by the Ministry of Home Affairs
234. Which of the following is true about employees under Section 24?
a. They are entitled to completely new service conditions
b. They retain their terms and conditions as employees of the new Commission
c. They lose seniority automatically
d. They are transferred to State Governments
235. The term “assets and liabilities” under Section 24(d) includes:
a. Only cash and bank balances
b. All properties, funds, and obligations of the old Commission
c. Only buildings and offices
d. Only movable assets
236. Section 24 of the CVC Act, 2003, is intended to:
a. Maintain legal and administrative continuity between the old and new Commission
b. Abolish all powers of the old Commission immediately
c. Transfer powers to the State Vigilance Commissions
d. Reduce the number of Vigilance Commissioners
237. Actions of the existing Vigilance Commission that are not related to the functions of the CVC Act, 2003 Commission:
a. Shall also be deemed to have been taken by the new Commission
b. Are irrelevant under Section 24
c. Are automatically nullified by Parliament
d. Require Supreme Court approval
238. Section 24 helps in ensuring that:
a. There is no administrative vacuum during transition from the old Commission to the CVC
b. Old Commission employees are terminated
c. All old decisions are nullified
d. Only financial matters are preserved
239. The Director of Enforcement in the Directorate of Enforcement is appointed by:
a. The Central Vigilance Commission
b. The Central Government on the recommendation of a specified Committee
c. The Ministry of Finance directly
d. The Supreme Court of India
240. The Committee recommending the Director of Enforcement consists of:
a. Only the Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Central Vigilance Commissioner, Vigilance Commissioners, and certain Secretaries of the Government of India
c. Prime Minister and Finance Minister
d. Only officers from the Ministry of Finance
241. Which of the following is not a member of the Committee recommending the Director of Enforcement?
a. Central Vigilance Commissioner
b. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Secretary, Ministry of Defence
d. Secretary, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
242. While recommending the appointment of the Director of Enforcement, the Committee must consider:
a. Only seniority
b. Integrity and experience of the officers
c. Political affiliation
d. Educational qualifications only
243. The minimum rank required for appointment as Director of Enforcement is:
a. Joint Secretary to the Government of India
b. Additional Secretary to the Government of India
c. Secretary to the Government of India
d. Under Secretary to the Government of India
244. The initial tenure of a Director of Enforcement is:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
245. The tenure of the Director of Enforcement may be extended:
a. Indefinitely at the discretion of the Central Government
b. Up to 1 year at a time based on public interest, not exceeding 5 years in total
c. Only with Supreme Court approval
d. Up to 10 years with Committee approval
246. A Director of Enforcement can be transferred:
a. At the discretion of the Finance Ministry
b. Only with the previous consent of the Committee referred to in clause (a)
c. Without any restriction
d. Only with Parliament approval
247. The Committee also recommends:
a. Officers for posts above Deputy Director of Enforcement
b. Extension or curtailment of tenure of such officers
c. Both a and b
d. Only salaries of officers
248. After receiving recommendations from the Committee regarding officers and tenure:
a. The Commission directly implements them
b. The Central Government passes such orders as it thinks fit
c. The recommendations are advisory and ignored by law
d. Parliament approves the recommendations
249. Which of the following Acts does Section 25 override or act notwithstanding of?
a. Companies Act, 2013
b. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
c. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Income Tax Act, 1961
250. The Director of Enforcement shall continue to hold office for:
a. Not less than one year
b. Not less than two years from the date on which he assumes office
c. Not more than one year
d. Till the Central Government decides
251. Extension of the Director of Enforcement’s tenure can be granted:
a. Only once
b. Multiple times, for up to one year at a time, subject to maximum 5 years
c. Only by the President of India
d. Without any maximum limit
252. Section 25 ensures that the appointments and tenure of officers in the Directorate of Enforcement:
a. Are entirely decided by the Ministry of Finance
b. Require the involvement of the CVC Committee for recommendations
c. Are independent of the Central Government
d. Are decided by the Parliament
253. The primary criteria for eligibility to become Director of Enforcement under Section 25 are:
a. Only age and education
b. Integrity, experience, and rank not below Additional Secretary
c. Political affiliation
d. Language proficiency
254. Which resolution is repealed by Section 27(1) of the CVC Act, 2003?
a. Resolution No. 123/45/AVD
b. Government of India Resolution No. 371/20/99-AVD. III dated 4th April, 1999 as amended 13th August, 2002
c. Delhi Special Police Establishment Resolution, 1946
d. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
255. Section 27(2) of the CVC Act, 2003 ensures that actions done under the repealed Resolution or Ordinance are:
a. Invalid
b. Deemed to have been done under the CVC Act, 2003
c. Subject to review by Parliament
d. Null and void
256. Which ordinance’s cessation of operation is mentioned in Section 27(2)?
a. Prevention of Corruption Ordinance, 1988
b. Central Vigilance Commission Ordinance, 1999 (Ord. 4 of 1999)
c. Companies (Amendment) Ordinance, 2002
d. Indian Penal Code Ordinance, 2000
257. Section 27(2) validates appointments and actions taken under:
a. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
b. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
258. The effect of Section 27 is to ensure:
a. Retrospective validation of actions under the repealed Resolution and Ordinance
b. Prohibition of previous appointments
c. Removal of all previous officials
d. Amendment of the Indian Penal Code
259. Section 27 ensures that amendments made by the CVC Act in certain Acts are considered:
a. Effective only from 2003
b. Effective as if in force at all material times
c. Effective only after notification in Official Gazette
d. Effective only for new appointments
260. The repealed resolution belonged to which Ministry?
a. Ministry of Finance
b. Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (Department of Personnel and Training)
d. Ministry of Law and Justice
261. Section 27 primarily deals with:
a. Appointment of CVC and Vigilance Commissioners
b. Repeal of earlier resolution and saving of actions under it
c. Powers and functions of the Commission
d. Annual report submission
262. The repealed Resolution and the Ordinance included amendments to:
a. Companies Act, 1956
b. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 and Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
c. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
d. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
263. Section 27 ensures continuity of:
a. Salaries of CVC staff only
b. Actions, appointments, and decisions made under previous legal instruments
c. Only the powers of the Central Government
d. Only vigilance rules
264. The saving clause under Section 27 protects:
a. Pending court cases
b. Past actions, appointments, and amendments under the repealed Resolution and Ordinance
c. Annual reports of the Commission
d. Only financial transactions of the Commission
265. Section 27 comes under which category in legislative drafting?
a. Powers of the Commission
b. Repeal and saving
c. Constitution of the Commission
d. Terms and conditions of service