1. If in any case in which the defendant sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is stayed, discontinued or dismissed the counter claim—
(A) Shall be stayed
(B) Nevertheless be proceeded with
(C) May be continued with the leave of High Court
(D) No specific provision
2. Where the decree is for the payment of sum of money exceeding five thousand rupees the period of civil prison?
(A) Shall not exceed three months
(B) Shall not exceed six months
(C) Shall not exceed nine months
(D) Shall not exceed one year
3. Who among the following is not entitled to exemption from personal appearance in the Court?
(A) Former Indian Ruler
(B) Chairman of the State Legislative Councils
(C) The Ministers of States
(D) Collector
4. Caveat shall riot remain in force after expiry of—
(A) Ninety days
(B) Sixty days
(C) Thirty days
(D) Fifteen days
5. If a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do without leave of Court?
(A) Fifteen days (B) Fourteen days
(C) Twenty days (D) Thirty days
6. Where the plaint has been rejected the plaintiff on the same cause of action?
(A) May present a fresh suit
(B) Cannot present a fresh suit
(C) May present a fresh suit with the leave of High Court
(D) None of the above
7. Where the suit is dismissed under rule 2 or 3 of order 9 C.P.C., the plaintiff?
(A) May bring a fresh suit subject to Law of Limitation
(B) Cannot bring a fresh suit
(C) May bring a fresh suit with the leave of High Court
(D) May bring a fresh sujt with the leave of District Judge
8. In which condition the officer in charge of the prison may refuse to produce the prisoner for evidence despite Court’s order?
(A) Where the prisoner is related to Ruling Party
(B) Where the prisoner is Ex-minister
(C) Where the prisoner is Government Servant
(D) Where the Medical Officer has certified that prisoner is unfit to be removed by the reason of sickness
9. Where any property has been attached in execution of decree and the court, for any reason, passes an order dismissing the execution-application but omits to give any direction as to attachment?
(A) Attachment shall be deemed to have ceased
(B) Attachment shall cease after three months
(C) Attachment shall cease after six months
(D) Attachment shall cease after one year
10. Where any party dies after conclusion but before pronouncment of Judgment?
(A) The suit shall abate
(B) The suit shall not abate
(C) The suit shall not abate if cause of action survives
(D) It will be deemed that judgment has been pronounced after death of a party
11. Where a decree of compromise which was not lawful, there—
(A) Suit shall lie to set aside such decree
(B) Complaint has to made to High Court
(C) No suit shall lie to set aside such decree
(D) Suit may lie to set aside such decree with the leave of District Judge
12.. Where an indigent person succeeds, the court fee shall be recovered?
(A) From the defendant
(B) By the State Government
(C) Not recoverable
(D) From the Plaintiff
13. An attachment made before judgment in a suit which is dismissed for default—
(A) Shall not become revived merely by reason of the facts that order for dismissal of the suit for default has been set aside
(B) Shall become revived merely on the basis of restoration of suit
(C) Shall become revived on the order of Appellate Court
(D) Shall become revived on the order of High Court
14. If the offence be punishable with fine only, and ' accused has been awarded with fifty rupees fine then, the period of imprisonment in default shall—
(A) Not exceeding one month
(B) Not exceeding two months
(C) Not exceeding three months
(D) Not exceeding four months
15. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to give false evidence. Here, if ‘B’ does not give false evidence1 what offence ‘A’ has committed?
(A) ‘A’ is guilty of no offence
(B) Attempt to give false evidence
(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term which may extend to one-eighth part of the longest term provided for that offence and with fine
(D) None of the above
16. What punishment is provided for Dowry death?
(A) Not less than three years
(B) Not less than five years
(C) Not less than seven years and in rare . circumstances may extend to death sentence
(D) Not less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life
17. Which is not the ‘stolen property’?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(D) Possession whereof criminal breach of trust
18. A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite production of a bail order from the Court. Police officer is guilty of—
(A) Wrongful restraint
(B) Wrongful confinement
(C) Abduction
(D) Kidnapping
19. What must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?
(A) Sixteen years
(B) Eighteen years
(C) Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
(D) Under twenty one years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
20. What is not correct about ‘Rape’?
(A) Consent is immaterial if she is under 16 years of age
(B) Penetration is sufficient
(C) Intercourse by a man with his own Wife, the wife not being under fifteen years of age, is not Rape
(D) Death penalty may be awarded.
21 ‘A’ threatens to publish a defamatory libel ’ concerning ‘B’, unless ‘B’ gives him money. He thus induces ‘B’ to give him money. A has committed—
(A) Extortion
(B) Defamation
(C) Criminal intimidation
(D) Robbery
22. What is the offence preparation whereof is also punishable?
(A) Theft (B) Dacoity
(C) Murder (D) Rape
23. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket of B by thrusting his hand into B’s pocket. A fails in the attempt in consequence of B’s having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Theft
(C) Attempt to theft
(D) Using criminal force
24. A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed—
(A) Theft (B) Extortion
(C) Robbery (D) Mischief
25. What punishment may be awarded to the person whose act is covered under general exceptions?
(A) No punishment
(B) Half of the punishment prescribed for that offence
(C) One-fourth of the punishment ' prescribed for that offence
(D) Depends upon discretion of the Court
26. What sentence an Assistant Sessions Judge may award?
(A) Life imprisonment
(B) Any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years
(C) Up to fourteen years
(D) Up to twenty years
27. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for—
(A) Two days
(B) Three days
(C) Twenty-four hour?
(D) One week
28. How much amount of monthly maintenance may be awarded in favour of a wife under Section 125 of Cr.P.C.?
(A) Three hundred rupees
(B) Four hundred rupees
(C) Five hundred rupees
(D) Any Amount
29. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable the whole case shall be deemed to be—
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(D) It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
30. What is true about Court of Session?
(A) It can take cognizance without committal
(B) It cannot take cognizance without committal
(C) It can take cognizance on the recommendation of District Magistrate
(D) It can take cognizance if the challan is put up by the Superintendent of Police
31. No person shall be appointed as a Public Prosecutor for the District unless his name appears in the panel of names prepared by—
(A) Sessions Judge
(B) High Court
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Superintendent of Police
32. How much punishment may be awarded to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial?
(A) Not exceeding two years
(B) Not exceeding one year
(C) Not exceeding six months
(D) Not exceeding three months
33. Whether an accused may be a competent witness in his own defence?
(A) If he applies in writing on his own request
(B) No
(C) With the leave of Court of Session
(D) With the leave of High Court
34. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused, that the accused is guilty, and that he ought to receive a severe punishment, then such Magistrate is empowered to inflict, the Magistrate may forward the case to—
(A) Session Judge
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Police Station
35. In one trial A is awarded with the sentence which is not appealable whereas sentence against B is appealable. Whether A can file an appeal against his sentence?
(A) No.
(B) Only with special leave
(C) Yes
(D) There is no such provision
36. If in a criminal appeal an accused dies and his near relatives wish to continue the appeal, then within how much period they must apply?
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Sixty days
(D) Thirty days
37. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
(A) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(B) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(C) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(D) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not
38. What Is effect of trial conducted in wrong place?
(A) Vitiated itself
(B) Vitiated if caused failure of justice
(C) Seriousness has to be seen
(D) Is to be referred to High Court
39. When will proceedings be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so?
(A) To issue a search warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C..
(B) To hold on inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.C.-
(C) Tries an offender summarily
(D) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
40. The question is, whether A’ was ravished and thereafter murdered? The fact that, without making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished—
(A) Is relevant as a conduct
(B) Is relevant as a substantive evidence
(C) Is relevant as a secondary evidence
(D) May be relevant under Section 32(1) or 157 of Evidence Act
41. A relevant confession will become irrelevant when—
(A) Made to a police officer
(B) Made under a promise of secrecy
(C) When the accused was drunk
(D) In consequence of a deception practised oh the accused
42. Admissions are—
(A) Conclusive proof
(B) May operate as estoppels
(C) Always irrelevant
(D) None of the above
43. A agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for Rs. 1,000 or Rs. 1,500. To show which price was to be given—
(A) Oral evidence can be given
(B) Antecedents of the parties are to be seen
(C) Oral evidence cannot be given
(D) None of the above
44. A is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket. The burden of proving that A had a ticket is on—
(A) Ticket-checker
(B) Railway
(C) ‘A’
(D) Prosecution
45. What is provision about an ‘Accomplice’?
(A) He is not a competent witness
(B) His evidence is irrelevant
(C) His evidence should be believed blindly
(D) His evidence is relevant under Section 114 and 133 of Evidence Act
46. 'What number of witnesses will be required for the proof of any fact?
(A) No particular number
(B) At least one eye-witness
(C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(D) One party and one witness
47. Leading question—
(A) May be asked in examination in-chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
48. Which is not the main principle that underlies the law of evidence?
(A) Evidence must be confined to the matter- in-issue
(B) Hearsay evidence must not be admitted
(C) Hearsay evidence must be admitted
(D) The best evidence must be given in all cases
49. A witness was asked whether he was not dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He denies it. The evidence is offered to show that he was dismissed for dishonesty—
(A) The evidence is admissible if it comes from plaintiff side
(B) The evidence is admissible if it comes from defendant side
(C) The evidence is admissible
(D) The evidence is inadmissible
50. When a party refuses to produce a document which he had noticed to produce—
(A) He cannot use the document as evidence without the consent of opposite party or the order of the court
(B) Objection of opposite party is worthless
(C) Order of court not necessary
(D) Document will be deemed' to be an admitted document.
51. Where does Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 apply?
(A) Whole Madhya Pradesh
(B) Area specified in Schedule 1
(C) Area recommended by State Reorganisation Commission
(D) Excluding area of old Vidarbha
52. Who fixes the standard rent?
(A) Civil Court
(B) District Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Collector
53. M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 does apply to—
(A) Property of Government
(B) Property of local authority used exclusively for non-residential purposed
(C) Property of Municipal Corporation used exclusively for non-residential purposes
(D) Property Of Municipal Corporation used for residential purpose
54. The provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 will not be applicable to a newly constructed house for a period of—
(A) Five years (B) Seven years
(C) Three years (D) One year
55. Who is not a landlord for the purpose of Section 23(J) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961?
(A) A retired servant of any Government
(B) A servant of any Government
(C) A divorced wife
(D) A physically handicapped person
56. The Rent Controlling Authority should not below the rank of—
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Asstt. Suptd. Land Records
(C) Deputy Collector
(D) Civil Judge
57. Where an order for the eviction of tenant is made on the ground specified in clause (e) of sub-Section (1) of Section 10, the landlord ” shall not to be entitled to obtain possession thereof before expiration of a period of—
(A) One year
(B) Six months
(C) Three months
(D) Two months
58. Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, he cannot bring a suit for eviction on the ground specified in - clause (e) or (I) sub-Section (1) of Section 12 so long?
(A) One year has not elapsed
(B) Six months has not elapsed
(C) Three months has not elapsed
(D) Two months has not elapsed ’
59. An appeal shall lie against the order passed \ by Rent Controlling Authority to—
(A) High Court
(B) District Court
(C) Collector ,
(D) State Government
60. Who is not a member of family for the purpose of M.P. Accommodation Control Adt?
(A) Unmarried daughter
(B) Unmarried sister
(C) Grandson living separately
(D) Grandfather
61 The; proceeding pleading when the M.P. ’ Accomodation Control Act. 1961 came into being will be—
(A) Decided according to provisions of New Act
(B) Referred to the High Court
(C) Returned to the Plaintiff
(D) Decided according to provisions of Old Act :
62 Rules made under the provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act have to be sent to—
(A) Assembly
(B) High Court
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
63. ‘A’ proposes, by letter, to the 3 house to B at a certain price. The communication of proposal is’ complete when— .
(A) ‘A’ puts letter in letter-box
(B) 'B’ receives the letter
(C) ‘B’ puts reply in letter-box
(D) ‘A’ receives reply of ‘B’
64. A sells, by auction, to B a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness. A does—
(A) Fraud
(B) Misrepresentation
(C) No fraud
(D) Undue influence
65. Where both parties are under mistake as to . matter of fact, the agreement will be—
(A) Enforceable (B) Voidable
(C) Not void (D) Void
66. What will be effect of mistakes as to law in force in India on the agreement?
(A) Not voidable (B) Voidable
(C) Void (D) Not void
67. A promises, for no consideration, to give to B Rs. 1,000. This agreement is—
(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Enforceable
(D) Not enforceable not being in writing
68. Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are—
(A) Voidable (B) Illegal
(C) Void (D) Enforceable
69. Where no application is made and no time is ' specified for performance of promise, there the agreement must be performed within
(A) Three, years (B) Two years
(C) One year (D) Reasonable time
70. A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. This agreement is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable
(D) Valid and enforceable in Bengal
71. In case of an alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and the other illegal
(A) Both branches will be enforceable
(B) The legal branch alone can be enforced
(C) No branch is enforceable
(D) None of the above
72. A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Whether A is entitled for reimbursement from the property of B?
(A) No
(B) Yes, if the value of property is more than one lakh
(C) Yes
(D) None of the above
73 A saves B’s property from fire. Circumstances show that he intended to act gratuitously. Whether A is entitled for compensation from B?
(A) Yes
(B) Not from B, but from Government
(C) Not from B, but from his heirs
(D) No
74. A, the captain of B’s ship, signs of bill of lading without having received oh board the goods mentioned therein. As between B and pretended consignor is concerned the bill of lading are—
(A) Void (B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable (D) None of these
75. Who is not a Revenue Officer?
(A) Settlement Officer '
(B) Revenue Inspector
(C) Asstt. Suptd. land records
(D) Naib Tahsildar
76. When does agriculture year begin?
(A) 1st January (B) 1st April
(C) 1st July (D) 15th August
77. When any person neglects to give information required under Section 109 of M.P. Land Revenue Code within stipulated period the Tahsildar may impose penality?
(A) Not exceeding Rs. 100
(B) Not exceeding Rs. 75-
(C) Not exceeding Rs. 50
(D) Not exceeding Rs. 25
78. If any person willfully defaults to pay land revenue within one month after stipulated period, the Sub-divisional Officer may impose penalty—
(A) Not exceeding 10%
(B) Not exceeding 15%
(C) Not exceeding 20%
(D) Not exceeding 25%
79. Land revenue for district assessed by—
(A) Collector
(B) Settlement Officer
(C) Settlement Commissioner
(D) Commissioner of Division
80. The term of settlement shall not be less than—
(A) 100 years (B) 50 years
(C) 30 years (D) 20 years
81. No mortgage of any land by a Bhumiswami' shall be valid unless the following land is left with him free from charge—
(A) 2 acres irrigated or 3 acres unirrigated land
(B) 3 acres irrigated or 4 acres unirrigated land
(C) 1 acre irrigated or 2 acres unirrigated land
(D) 5 acres irrigated or 10 acres unirrigated
82. Where the settlement operations are closed all applications pending before Settlement Officer shall be transferred to?
(A) Collector
(B) Tahsildar 1
(C) Sub-divisional Officer
(D) Asstt. Suptd. land records
83. No usufructuary mortgage of any land by a Bhumiswami shall be valid if it is for a period exceeding—
(A) 5 years (B) 6 years
(C) 7 years (D) 10 years
84. Where a Bhumiswami effects a mortgage the total amount of interest under Section 16^(3) of M.P.L.R. Code shall not exceed?
(A) Equal to principal amount
(B) One-fourth of principal amount
(C) Half of the principal amount5
(D) One-third of the principal amount
85. Under provisions of M.P.L.R. Code a Bhumi swami may relinquish his rights by giving notice to Tahsildar. How much prior before commencement of Agriculture year this notice should be given?
(A) 120 days (B) 90 days
(C) 60 days (D) 30 days
86. Where a Bhumiswami desires to take his land back possession whereof was taken-by- Tahsildar under Section 176 of M.P.L.R. Code he should apply— .
(A) Within three years from the commencement of next Agriculture year
(B) Within two years from the commencement of next Agriculture year
(C) Within one year from the Commencement of next Agriculture year
(D) Within ' six months from the commencement of next Agriculture year
87. Which is not the immoveable property?
(A) A lease of land
(B) Growing crops
(C) A right of way
(D) A life interest in the income of immoveable property
88. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Right to re-entry
(B) Public Office
(C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
(D) Pension
89. What kind of transfer may be made orally?
(A) Gift of immoveable property
(B) Transfer of actionable claim
(C) Sale of immoveable property of value upward Rs. 100
(D) Surrender of lease
90. Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?
(A) Yes, by machinery of trust
(B) Yes
(C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
(D) None of the above
91. When does an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer?
(A) As soon as he is born
(B) On attaining majority
(C) On attaining 21 years
(D) After marriage, if female
92. A lets to B a farm on the condition that B shall walk 100 miles in an hour. Lease is—
(A) Voidable (B) Void
(C) Valid (D) Enforceable
93. A has let his house at a rent of Rs. 10b payable on the last date of each month. A sells house to B on the 15th of June. On 30th dune what will be apportionment?
(A) A will get Rs. 100
(B) B will get Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 50 to A and Rs. 50 to B
(D) The tenant will be exempted from ' payment of rent in that month
94. Which is not the ingredient of Section 53(A) of T.P. Act?
(A) Agreement for transfer
(B) Consideration
(C) Transferee has performed his part
(D) Moveable property
95. Whether simple mortgage must always be registered?
(A) Yes
(B) If value of property is more than Rs. 100
(C) Registration not necessary
(D) None of the above
96. Who may make rules consistent with the provisions of T.P. Act ?
(A) State Government
(B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court
(D) State Secretariat
97. In absence of contract or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immoveable property shall be deemed to be—
(A) Month to month (B) Bimonthly
(C) Year to year (D) Biannual
98. A gives a lakh Of rupees to B, reserving to himself, with B’s assent, the right to take back Rs. 10,000 at pleasure out of that amount This gift is—
(A) Absolutely valid
(B) Absolutely invalid
(C) This cannot be said to a gift
(D) Holds good as to Rs. 90,000 but it is void as to Rs. 10,000
99. In criminal proceedings the fact that the accused is of good character is—
(A) Relevant (B) Irrelevant
(C) Unrebuttable (D) None of these
100. What is not the necessary ingredient for attracting the provisions of Section 27 of Evidence Act?
(A) The person must be an accused of an offence
(B) Male or female
(C) He should give information
(D) Discovery of any fact in consequence ' of information
