M.P. Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2019 (Shift - II)

Constitution of India

1. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?

(A) Article 247

(B) Article 246

(D) Article 253

2. Who among of these determines the question whether a member of Lok Sabha has become subject to disqualification on the ground of defection in term of the 10,t’ schedule of the Constitution

(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) The President of India

(D) A Special Committee formed by the parliament for this purpose only

3. Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts-and for Acts, Bills, etc. until the Parliament otherwise provides shall be

(A) Proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in English Language.

(B) Proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in Hindi Language.

(D) Proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English and in High Court language will be Hindi or as per choice of parties.

4. A Professor of University, who is an eminent jurist, is eligible to be appointed as a judge of the

(A) in High Court

(B) in High Court & Supreme Court both

(D) Neither in the Supreme Court nor in High Court

5. Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the president?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Attorney General of India

(D) Chairman of the union public service commission

6. In the following which dispute is not covered in original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?

(A) between the government of India and one or more states

(B) between the government of India and any state or states one side and one or more other states on the other

(D) pre-constitutional treaty or agreement

7. As per Constitution ‘Khap Panchayats have no authority to order honour killing’ is held in

(A) Shanti Vahini v. Union of India

(B) Shanti Bhooshan v. Supreme Court of India

(D) Lalita v. State of Chha tisgarh

8. Which of the following Writs can be issued only against judicial or Quasi Judicial authorities?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo warranto

9. Article 24 of the Constitution speak about

(A) No child below the age of 14 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment

(B) No child below the age of 12 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment

(D) No child below the age of 10 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment

10. Which Article of Constitution of India provides provisions of Uniform Civil Code?

(A) Article 42 (B) Article 43

Civil Procedure Code

11. Under Order XXXII Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a next friend of a minor can be removed

(A) if he ceases to reside in India during the pendency of the suit

(B) where his interest becomes adverse to that of the minor

(D) for any of these reasons

12. Which sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions?

(A) Section 134 (B) Section 144

13. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed

(A) appeal can be filed against the Order

(B) no appeal files

(D) None of these

14. Where in order allowing amendment, no time is prescribed then amendment can be made from the date of order in

(A) in reasonable time

(B) Fourteen Days

(D) Three Days

15. Where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party, the Court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application within days.

(A) Fifteen days (B) Thirty days

16. No arrest and detention in civil imprisonment can be made if the decree is for payment of

(A) not exceeding Rs. 2000

(B) not exceeding Rs. 3000

(D) not exceeding Rs. 5000

17. As per Section 148 of CPC, the Court may enlarge the prescribed period for

(A) 15 days (B) 30 days

18. ‘Even after ex-party proceeding, the defendant can take part in further proceedings of the suit. This principle was pronounced by Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of

(A) State of Bombay v. United Motors

(B) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati

(D) Arjun Singh v.Mohinder Kumar

19. Judgement and decree passed **y the court which lacks inherent jurisdiction

(A) is a nullity

(B) would never operate as res judicata

(D) All of these are correct

20. Under which provision, Decreed amount i.'.ay be directed for payment in instatements after passing the decree?

(A) Rulel0ofOrder20ofC.P.C.

(B) Rule 11 of Order 20 of C.P.C.

(D) Rule 10 of Order 21 of C.P.C.

21. Suits for declaration & injunction in respect of public nuisances under Section 91 of Civil Procedure Code can be Instituted by

(A) An individual without the leave of the court

(B) An individual with the leave of the Court

(D) Two or more persons with the leave of the court

22. Dismissal of suit by court under order 17 Rule 3 Civil Procedure Code, only remedy available to plaintiff is to file

(A) An appeal

(B) Application under section 151 CPC

(D) All of the these

23. Suit was filed on 20.11.2012 and It has been specifically pleaded that cause of action arose on 06.10.2012. Defendant appeared and without filing writton statement he filed an application under Order 7 Rule 11 C.P.C. on the ground that suit is barred by Limitation. State what is the correct legal position?

(A) Application under Order 7 Rule 11 C.P.C. is not maintainable because written statement should be filed firstly

(B) Plaint shall be rejected because suit is barred by Law of Limitation

(D) Application should be allowed because plaint does not disclose correct cause of action.

24. A civil suit was repeatedly fixed by the trial court for examination of the defendant’s witnesses but the said opportunity was not availed by the defendant, therefore on 18.11.2016 when neither the defendant nor his counsel had appeared, the trial court had proceeded exparte and heard the final arguments and reserved the case for judgement. On 28.11.2016 the defendant had filed an application under Order 9 Rule 7 read with section 151 of the C.P.C. which is

(A) Maintainable

(B) Non-maintainable

(D) matter of inherent power of the court to accept or not

25. Which one comes In the preview of “formal defect” for withdrawal of suit under Order 23 Rule 1(3) of C.P.C.?

(A) Want of notice under Section 80 C.P.C.

(B) Confusion regarding identification of suit property

(D) All of these

Transfer of Property Act

26. Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised is called as

(A) Mortgage (B) Lease

27. A gives a lakh of rupees to B, reserving to himself, with B’s assent, the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of the lakh. The gift In respect of Rs. 10,000.

(A) is valid (B) is void

28. Improvements to mortgaged property is provided in which of following section of T.P. Act

(A) Section 63 (B) Section 63A

29. In the absence of a contract or local law or usage to contrary, a lease of immovable property for manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be

(A) for 5 years

(B) from year to year

(D) for a reasonable period

30. A lease of immovable property from year to year or exceeding one year can be made only

(A) before Notary

(B) executed before Magistrate

(D) by a registered instrument

31. What is the effect of “Holding over”?

(A) The lease becomes illegal

(B) The lease is renewed

(D) The lease becomes void

32. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act is related to the oral transfer?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 9

Indian Contract Act

33. A promise to pay time barred debt Is

(A) Not enforceable

(B) Enforceable at the discretion of debtor

(D) None of these

34. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement then

(A) Agreement can be enforced

(B) Agreement can not be enforced

(D) Agreement is voidable at the option of any Party.

35. When the agent contracts without disclosing name and existence of his principal, in such a case on knowing the principal, the third party may file a suit against

(A) Principal alone

(B) agent alone

(D) None of these

36. Active Concealment of fact is associated with

(A) Coercion

(B) Fraud

(D) Mistake

37. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them is known as

(A) Guarantee (B) Bailment

38. A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery and B promises to restore the value of things taken. The agreement is

(A) Legal and proper

(B) Void

(D) None of these

39. ‘A’ promises to deliver goods to ‘B’ on a certain day at a certain day on the payment of Rs. 1000/- ‘A’ dies before that day

(A) the contract is void

(B) A's representatives are not bound to deliver the goods to B

(D) A's representatives are bound to deliver the goods to B and B is bound to pay Rs. 1000/-to the representatives of 'A'.

40. An agreement entered into with free consent and lawful but with inadequate consideration then such agreement is

(A) unlawful (B) lawful

Specific Relief Act

41. Under Specific Relief Act 1963 Specific Relief can be granted

(A) For the purpose of enforcing individual Civil Rights

(B) For Public interest litigation

(D) All of these

42. Section 20A was inserted in to the Specific Relief Act in respect of special provisions of contracts which are

(A) Infrastructure projects

(B) Land agreements

(D) None of these

43. Declaratory decree is binding only on

(A) parties to the suit

(B) parties and their representative claiming through them

(D) All of these

44. Which of the following is not the essential condition for applicability of Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act 1963?

(A) The article must be movable property

(B) The article must be in possession or control of the defendant

(D) The Plaintiff must be entitled to immediate possession of the article

45. Which of the following facts is not correct under Section 14-A of Specific Relief Act?

(A) The Report of fexpert shall form part of the record

(B) The opinion of expert may not form part of the record

(D) The expert shall be entitled to such fee, cost or expense as the court may fix

46. In a suit for specific performance of contract, in which compensation has not been claimed. Fresh suit for compensation

(A) is maintainable

(B) is barred

(D) None of these

Limitation Act

47. Where the prescribed period of limitation for any application is expiring on a holiday, the application

(A) should be made a day prior to holiday

(B) may be made on the day when the Court re-opens

(D) may be made on any day after the Court re-opens

48. Any suit for which no period of Limitation is provided elsewhere in Limitation Act 1963 the period for filing a suit is

(A) Three months from the date when the right to sue accrues

(B) One year from the date when the right to sue accrues

(D) Twelve years from the date when the right to sue accrues

49. Legal disabilities are

(A) minority (B) insanity

50. What is the Limitation for foreclosure?

(A) 1 year (B) 3 years

M.P. Accommodation Control Act

51. If a tenant under the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, Section 13(1), fails to deposit or pay any amount as required by this section, the Court may order the defence against eviction to be struck out under which Section of the Act

(A) Section 13(1) (B) Section 13(2)

52. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 which one of the following is not member of family?

(A) Married Sister

(B) Grand Father

(D) Brother's son

53. For the purpose of chapter lll-A MP Accommodation Control Act land lord does not include

(A) physically handicapped person

(B) retired government servant

(D) retired employee in private company

54. The Standard Rent shall be fixed for tenancy of

(A) 6 months (B) 11 months

55. A Revision against a final order passed by the Rent Controlling Authority on an application submitted by a retired government servant for eviction of his tenant, on the ground of bona fide requirement, shall be presented to

(A) The High Court

(B) The court of District Judge

(D) The Commissioner

M.P. Land Revenue Code

56. Under chapter 9 of M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959 all entries made under this chapter in the land records shall be presumed to be correct until the contrary is proved

(A) Section 113 M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959

(B) Section 114 M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959

(D) Section 117 M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959

57. Agricultural land by Bhumlswami may lease for a period of

(A) Two years a time

(B) One year a time

(D) Five years a time

58. Section 131 of the M.P. Land revenue code relates to

(A) Penality of destruction injury or removal of boundary or survey marks

(B) Right of way and other private easements

(D) Recovery of Land revenue

59. Which of the following Revenue Authority does not confer with the revisional powers under the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959?

(A) Board of Revenue

(B) Settlement Commissioner

(D) Sub-Divisional Officer

60. If a Bhumiswami belonging to aboriginal tribe is dispossessed of his land otherwise than In due course of law during year 2005, he can make application for restoration of possession within

(A) 2 months (B) 2 years

Indian Evidence Act

61. In which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has been given

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 149

62. What minimum number of witnesses are required to prove offence of Dacoity in a trial

(A) 5

(B) 8

(D) No particular number of witnesses is prescribed for proving any fact

63. ‘A’ prosecutes B for theft, and wishes the Court to believe that B admitted the theft of C

(A) 'A' must prove the admission

(B) 'C must prove the admission

(D) All of these

64. Under section 145 of Indian Evidence Act, a witness may be cross examined as to previous statement in writing

(A) after proving the same and showing the same to the witness

(B) without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness

(D) without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness

65. Admissions are not conclusive proof of the facts admitted but they may operate as

(A) Res Judicata

(B) Estoppels

(D) All of these

66. Under section 32(1) of Evidence Act, statements made by whom of these are relevant?

(A) Persons who are dead

(B) Persons who are incapable of giving evidence

(D) All of these

67. In which case section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was held to be valid under Article 14 of Constitution of India?

(A) Ashok Kumar v. State of U.P.

(B) Nathuv. State of U.P.

(D) Moh. Inayathulla v. State of Maharashtra

68. ‘Evidence of a witness in a previous proceeding would be admissible under section 33 of the evidence act only if the adverse party in the first proceeding had the right and opportunity to cross-examine the witness’. The statement is ?

(A) True

(B) False

(D) None of these

69. A party can ask questions to his own witness under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Section 156 (B) Section 154

70. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986?

(A) Section 111 A (B) Section 113A

71. Under Indian Evidence Act evidence may be given in respect of

(A) Fact in issue only

(B) Relevant fact only

(D) None of these

72. A disputed handwriting can be proved

(A) by calling hand-writing expert

(B) by examining a person acquainted with the hand writing of the writer of the questioned document

(D) All of these

73. Confession of an accused is admissible against co-accused

(A) if they are tried jointly for the same offences

(B) if they are tried jointly for different offences

(D) if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly

74. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant

(A) Under Section 5 of Evidence Act

(B) Under Section 6 of Evidence Act

(D) Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

75. In case of wills, under section 90 of Evidence Act the period of thirty years shall run

(A) from the date of the will

(B) from the date of die death of the testator

(D) When stamp for will was purchased

Indian Penal Code

76. Under Indian Penal Code if the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be

(A) Rigorous

(B) Simple

(D) Partly rigorous & partly simple

77. An offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine the maximum punishment in default of fine which can be given is

(A) Not more than half of the prescribed punishment

(B) More than one fourth of the prescribed punishment

(D) None of these

78. “A” agree with “B" that he will help “B” in copying in his examination; this is an act of

(A) Criminal conspiracy

(B) Abetment

(D) Common object

79. ‘A’ is seventeen years old daughter of ‘B’, ‘C’ without consent of ‘B’ takes ‘A’ for a tour of south India. ‘C’ has committed the offence of

(A) Kidnapping

(B) Abduction

(D) Wrongful restraint

80. In Joseph Shine v. Union of India Supreme Court of India declared which section of I.P.C. ultra-vires?

(A) Section 494 (B) Section 495

81. Right of private defence is not available

(A) against an insane

(B) against Child

(D) All of these

82. A finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. A sells it immediately without attempt discover its owner. A is guilty of offence under section Indian Penal Code.

(A) 403 (B) 379

83. ‘Nothing is an offence which is done by child under seven years of age’ is based on legal maxim of

(A) Dolicapax

(B) Doli incapax

(D) None of these

84. A knowing that B has murdered Z, against B to hide the body with the Intention of screening B from punishment. A Is liable under section

(A) 302 (B) 109

85. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Z’s money and jewels from Z’s clothes, without Z’s consent. Fordoing aforesaid A voluntarily caused wrongful restraint to Z. A committed

(A) Theft (B) Robbery

86. “A” instigated “B” to murder “C” who refuses to do so. “A” is guilty of

(A) no offence

(B) abetment to commit murder

(D) abetment to commit culpable homicide not amounting to murder

87. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are good friends; ‘A’ proposes ‘B’ for marriage, but she denies. ‘A’, in suspicion of B’s love affair with someone else, monitored her Mobile Phone and email account used by ‘B’. What offence has been committed by ‘A’?

(A) Outrage the modesty

(B) Voyeurism

(D) None of these

88. An act which is done by a Judge when acting judicially in the exercise of any power which is, or which in good faith he believes to be, given to him by law than act of Judge

(A) is an offence because Judge should have knowledge of law

(B) is not offence

(D) is unpardonable and maximum punishment should be imposed

89. ‘A’ poor student finds a latter on the road containing a bank-note from the content and direction of later he learns whom the note belongs ‘A’ uses that note for buying some books ‘A’ has committed

(A) the offence of dishonest Misappropriation of property

(B) the offence of theft

(D) the offence of criminal breach of trust

90. Out of these offences against property, the right of private defence is not available?

(A) Criminal breach of trust

(B) Criminal trespass

(D) attempt to commit mischief

Criminal Procedure Code

91. Under Section 313 of Criminal Procedure Code the statement of the accused

(A) is recorded on oath

(B) is recorded without oath

(D) Court can exempt from oath

92. Anticipatory Bail under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can be invoked in cases of?

(A) Bailable offences

(B) Non-bailable offences

(D) None of these

93. Under chapter XXI of Criminal Procedure Code, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment which can be imposed for an offence tried as summary trial?

(A) 1 month (B) 2 months

94. Under Criminal Procedure Code in which provision examination of accused is made after the prosecution evidence?

(A) Section 311 (B) Section 313

95. Magistrate of the first class passes a sentence of fine of 100 Rupees only, appeal can be made to

(A) Sessions Court

(B) High Court

(D) No appeal can be made

96. Under section 167 of Criminal Procedure Code the longest period for which ah accused can be remanded in police custody Is

(A) 15 days (B) 14 days

97. As per provision of Sub section 3 of section 389 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973, the trial court shall release □ convicted person on bail, who intends to present an appeal. In which of the case of these, trial court can release the convicted person?

(A) The person is convicted for offence under section 435IPC is sentenced for Seven years

(B) The person is convicted for offence under section 327 IPC is sentenced for Five years

(D) None of these

98. As per section 372 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973, A victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal but he can not file against the order which is

(A) The court has acquitted the accused

(B) The court has convicted for a lesser offence

(D) The court has imposed inadequate compensation

99. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure mandates that no court, when it has signed Its judgment or final order disposing of a case shall alter or review the same except to correct a clerical or arithmetical error?

(A) Section 463 (B) Section 361

100. A person is convicted for life imprisonment for the offence of section 302 of IPC, the appropriate government may commute the sentence for the minimum period of

(A) 30 years (B) 20 years

101. Besides section 209 Criminal Procedure Code, which other section also provides for committal of cases to the Sessions Court?

(A) 315 (B) 318

102. Which irregularities vitiate proceeding, if any magistrate not being empowered

(A) issue a search warrant under section 94 ofCr.P.C.

(B) hold an inquest under section 176 of Cr.P.C.

(D) Tender a pardon under section 306 of Cr.P.C.

103. Whether before conclusion of the Trial and before disposal of the appeal accused can be asked to execute bail bonds to appear before the Higher Court?

(A) Yes, as per section 437-A Cr.P.C.

(B) Yes, as per section 439 Cr.P.C.

(D) No such provision

104. The “protection against double jeopardy” is contained in which Section of Criminal Procedure Code

(A) Section 302 (B) Section 300

105. Under which Section of Criminal Procedure Code-an accused person can himself Joe a competent witness?

(A) Section 312 (B) Section 313

Negotiable Instruments Act

106. Nothing in Section 138 Negotiable Instruments Act shall apply unless

(A) Cheque is presented within one month from th^ date of issuance of cheque

(B) Cheque presented within three month from the date of issuance of cheque

(C) The cheque has been presented to the bank within a period within the period whichever is earlier from the date on which it is drawn

(D) None of these

107. If in a cheque amount ordered to paid is written differently in figure and in words

(A) the cheque will be void

(B) the amount written in words shall be undertaken or ordered to be paid

(D) none of these

108. Which is not a negotiable instrument?

(A) Bond

(B) Promissory note

(D) Cheque

109. Proceedings under section 138 Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 which defence shall not be allowed?

(A) the cheque is not signed by drawer

(B) complaint is not holder or holder in due course

(D) he had not issued the cheque in discharge of legal liability

110. Under Section 23 of Negotiable Instruments Act, a promissory note or bill of exchange, dated 31*‘ August, 2018 is made-payable three months after date. The instrument is at maturity of the ?

(A) 30 November, 2018

(B) 31 November, 2018

(D) 3 December, 2018

General Knowledge

111. Which river of Madhya Pradesh is known as “Golden river”?

(A) Son (B) Chambal

112. In which district of M.P. Birth Place of Chandra Shekhar Azad is situated?

(A) Alirapur (B) Jhabua

113. Kuchipudi Dance is connected to which State

(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu

114. Where is Chandoli National Park?

(A) Kerala (B) Maharahstra

115. “G4” group of Nations does not Include

(A) India

(B) Germany

(D) Japan

116. Palpur Kuno sanctuary Is in

(A) SheopurM.P.

(B) MandlaM.P.

(D) Nainital Uttarakhand

117. Who was the chief quest of 70th republic day functions?

(A) Singapore President Halimah Yacob

(B) Vietnam Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc

(D) Thailand Prime Minister Prayuth Chan- ocha

118. Who were the first Euorpeans to set up sea trade centres in India

(A) The English

(B) The French

(D) The Dutch

119. The first Aslan Games were held at

(A) Manila (B) Tokyo

120. Who designated the Indian flag?

(A) Alluri Sitarama Raju

(B) PinglaiVenkayya

(D) Potti Sreeramulu

121. Writer of Book Oliver Twist is

(A) George Orwell

(B) Henry Miller

(D) Gunter Grass

122. Unit for measuring flow of electricity

(A) Ampera (B) Kelvin

123. ‘Light-year’is a unit of

(A) time (B) distance

124. Saka Era was introduced

(A) in SSA.D (B) inSSB.C.

125. On which date the National Anthem was adopted by the constituent Assembly?

(A) 1st Jan, 1950

(B) 24th Jan. 1950

(D) 26th Nov.1949

126. Telangana is the State of India.

(A) Twenty sixth

(B) Twenty seventh

(D) Twenty Nineth

27. Dr. S. Chandrasekhar was awarded Nobel Prize in the year 1983 in the field of

(A) Chemistry (B) Physics

128. Who was the youngest revolutionary to be awarded death sentence?

(A) Khudiram Bose

(B) Bhagat Singh

(D) Rajguru

129. Who was the viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?

(A) Lord Irwin

(B) Lord Reading

(D) Lord Wavell

130. Banasagar Project Is situated on which river?

(A) Sone (B) Narmada

Computer Knowledge

131. Which of the following Is the largest unit of storage

(A) GB (B) KB

132. Which of the following can be used to select documents?

(A) CTRL+A (B) CTRL+S

133. MICR is

(A) Magnetic ink Character Recognition

(B) Magnetic ink Code Recognition

(D) None of these

134. The most frequently used piece of hardware for inputting data is

(A) keyboard (B) floppy disk

135. Which of the following medium is used between CPU & RAM to speed up the processing power of a CPU?

(A) Virtual Memory

(B) DRAM

(D) Cache Memory

136. Function key provides help topics and tips to accomplish our task.

(A) F1 (B) F2

137. What kind of operations can a computer carry out?

(A) Arithmatic and logical

(B) Verbal and logical

(D) verbal and arithmetic

138. Which of the following is the processing unit of the computer?

(A) CPU (B) memory

139. Who is considered as the father of the computer?

(A) William Thomson

(B) Lord Kelvin

(D) Pierre Jaquet-Droz

140. Which of the following is the basic function of a computer?

(A) input (B) storage

English Language

141. Choose the correct passive voice of the given sentence: The child broke the mirror.

(A) The mirror is broken by the child

(B) The mirror was broken by the child

(D) The mirror has been broken

142. Reprobate means:

(A) a person without moral scruples.

(B) a person on probation.

(D) a person who joins probe

143. A person genuinely interested In the welfare and emancipation of women is

(A) 7 Feminist .

(B) Masculism

(D) Both 2nd & 3rd Option

144. Antonyms of TRANSPARENT is

(A) Coloured

(B) Childlike

(D) Imminent

145. “Adulation” Means?

(A) Initiation

(B) Immigration

(D) Admiration

146. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase ‘SEE EYE TO EYE’

(A) State at each other

(B) Agree

(D) Make an effort

147. Give the synonyms of the word Abutting

(A) Similar (B) Distant

148 is one of the best and one of the worst states to be in

(A) Facile (B) Probable

149. Which of the following means the same, “a person with whom one shares a private matter, trusting them to not repeat to other”?

(A) Confident (B) Confidant

150. Choose the one which expresses the meaning of the given word: Prodigal

(A) Huge (B) Prodigious

Free Judiciary Coaching

Free Judiciary Notes

Free Judiciary Mock Tests

Bare Acts

Similar Options

Useful Pages

Search...