M.P. Judicial Service Examination, 2010

PARTI
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q. 1 to 30

1. Which country won the FIFA (Football) World Cup-2010:-

(A) England (B) Australia

2. Octopus which predicted the winner of the FIFA World Cup-2010 was known as:-

(A) Zavier Paul (B) Saint Zavier

3. Name of the designer who gave Rupee a new symbol for global recognition:-

(A) P. Prasanna

(B) D. Udaya Kumar

(D) N. Krishna Kumar

4. The words “Satyamev Jayate” in the National Emblem is taken from:-

(A) Upanishads

(B) Samveda

(D) Ramayana

5. The first woman President of Indian National Congress was:-

(A) Annie Beasant

(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(D) None of these

6. Who was the Indian ruler who allied himself with the French:-

(A) Alivardi Khan

(B) Tipu Sultan

(D) Saadat Khan

7. The President of the Indian National Congress at the time of Indian Independence was:-

(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(B) J.B. Kripalani

(D) Rajendra Prasad

8. Gautam Buddha was born in:-

(A) Lumbini (B) Panchwati

9. Ram Prasad Bismil was associated with:-

(A) Kakori Conspiracy case

(B) Alipore Bomb case

(D) Kanpur Conspiracy case

10. .Who founded the Mauryan Empire in India:-

(A) Chandragupta (B) Kanishka

11. The headquarters of GATT is in:-

(A) Geneva (B) The Hague

12. The name of Chief Justice when the State of< M.P. came into existence is:-

(A) Justice G.P. Singh

(B) Justice P.V. Dixit

(D) Justice N.D.Ojha

13. Blood Pressure is measured by:-

(A) Viscometer ,

(B) Sphygmomanometer

(D) Pyrometer

14. Inflation means:-

(A) Increase in the value of money

(B) Decrease in the value of money

(D) Increase in the purchasing power of money

15. Committee formed to suggest a solution to end ragging on the campus is known as:-

(A) Y.K. Sabharwal Committee

(B) Tehelka Committee

(D) R.K. Raghavan Committee

16. Bharat Bhawan is located at:-

(A) Indore (B) Ujjain

17. Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court who was also elevated to become the Chief Justice of India:-

(A) Justice R.C. Lahoti

(B) Justice J.S. Verma

(D) Justice M. Hidaytullah

18. Which of the following is not located in Madhya Pradesh

(A) Madhav National Park

(B) Sanjay National Park

(D) Bandipur National Park

19. Who among the following is the highest run scorer in Cricket Test History:-

(A) Sachin Tendulkar

(B) Allan Border

(D) S.R. Waugh

20. Who among the following can be Chairman of National Human Rights Commission?

(A) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court

(B) Any serving Judge of the High Court

(D) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court

21. Battle of Waterloo was fought between:-

(A) British and the French

(B) American and British

(D) None of these

22. Where is the seat of the International Court of Justice?

(A) Geneva (B) The Hague

(G) Washington (D) New York

23. Who is the chairperson of National Human Rights Commission:-

(A) Justice Dr. A.S. Anand

(B) Justice J.S. Verma

(D) Justice S. Rajendra Babu

24. Ossification test is done to determine:-

(A) Sex of a person

(B) Age of person

(D) Blood group of a person

25. Orchha is famous for:-

(A) Cement Industry

(B) Buddha Temple

(D) Tiger Reserve

26. In which case the Delhi High Court held Section 377 I.P.C. with regard to consensual sexual act of adults to be violative of the Constitution:-

(A) Manu Sharma Vs. NCT Delhi

(B) PUCL Vs. NCT Delhi

(D) AIDS Control Society Vs. Government of Delhi

27. Which High Court in India declared the assets of its Judges for the first time in India:-

(A) Delhi (B) Madras

28. Pench National Park is situated on:-

(A) NH7 (B) NH47

29. The Government owned newspaper print factory is situated in:-

(A) Dejwas (B) Nepanagar

30. Saffron colour in Indian National Flag represents:-

(A) Ascetic (B) Sacrifice

PART II LAW (Qs .31 to 100)

Constitution of India

31. Which of the writs can be issued by a High Court to direct a public officer or the Government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional:-

(A) Certiorari (B) Prohibition

32. Which among the following writs literally means what is your authority:-

(A) Certiorari

(B) Habeas corpus

(D) Prohibition

33. Which Article provides for personal immunity to the President and Governor for official acts:-

(A) 362 (B) 363

34. Municipalities have become constitutional functionaries by insertion of Article:-

(A) 243 Y (B) 243 Q

35. Preamble is the part of the Constitution. This observation of Supreme Court was held in the case of:-

(A) Keshvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(B) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan

(D) R.S.Nayak v. A.R. Antulay

36. Preamble of the Constitution was amend and the words “Soverign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic” were substituted for “Sovereign Democratic Republic” vide:-

(A) 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006

(B) 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-6-1995

(D) 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-6-1979

37. Which schedule of the Constitution mentions the Union List, State List and Concurrent List:-

(A) Seventh Schedule

(B) Article 246

(D) Article 245

Civil Procedure Code, 19081

38. A caveat lodged under section 148-A(1) shall not remain in force after the expiry of:-

(A) 30 days (B) 45 days

39. Documents which are meant for cross- examination of a witness of the other party may be produced:-

(A) till settlement of issues

(B) after settlement of issues

(D) along with pleadings

40. Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree ex parte, the applications under Order 9 Rule 13 shall be:-

(A) Rejected

(B) Returned

(D) Referred for opinion of appellate court

41. Under which provision of the Code, an indigent can file a suit:-

(A) Order 33 Rule 1

(B) Order 33 Rule 2

(D) Order 33 Rule 5

42. The doctrine of res judicata as contained in Section 11, is based on the maxim:-

(A) Nemo debet bis vexari pro una eadem causa

(B) Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litiuum

(D) Executio juris non habet injuriam

43. A Court may not frame issues on the basis of allegations/contents made by the parties:-

(A) in pleadings

(B) on oath

(D) in documents

44. Which provision of the Code deals with joinder of causes of action:-

(A) Order 2 Rule 3

(B) Order 2 Rule 2

(D) Order 1 Rule 2

M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959

45. Limitation for filing of appeal is provided in the Code under Section:-

(A) 44 (B) 46

46. Disputes regarding boundaries of villages and survey numbers fixed can be decided by:-

(A) Naib Tehsildar

(B) Tehsildar

(D) Additional Collector

47. Powers under section 253(1) to punish for contravention of the provisions of the Code is conferred on:-

(A) Tehsildar

(B) Sub-Divisional Officer

(D) Commissioner

48. Under MUP.L.R.C. duties of a Patel are, prescribed in Section:-

(A) 223 and 224 (B) 224

49. The interest of an occupancy tenant in his holding shall on his death, passed by inheritance or survivorship in accordance with:-

(A) Section 194 MPLRC

(B) His personal law

(D) None of these

50. For recovery of arrears of land revenue, the following shall not be attached and sold:-

(A) cooking vessels of the defaulter

(B) less than six hectares of land held by the defaulter in any scheduled area

(D) tools of artisans

51. The proposal for fixation of assessment rate under section 77 is forwarded to the State Government for approval by the:-

(A) Tehsildar

(B) Settlement Officer

(D) Revenue Inspector

52. In the case of non-removal of encroachment from recognized road, Tehsildar has no power:-

(A) to remove encroachment by himself

(B) to punish the non-applicant

(D). to attach his property

M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961

53. After a notice for demand of arrears of rent has been served on a tenant, he should pay or tender the arrears of rent, to save himself from eviction within:-

(A) 15 days (B) one month

54. In a case of eviction on the ground of bona fide need for residential purpose, the landlord cannot obtain possession of the accommodation before:-

(A) one month (B) two months

55. Cognizance of offence, punishable under the Act, can be taken by:-

(A) Judicial Magistrate Second Class

(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class

(D) High Court only

56. Which of the following is incorrect statement:-

(A) Tenant can sublet the accommodation held by him as tenant with previous consent in writing of Landlord

(B) Tenant can transfer or assigment

in the tenancy or in any part thereof with the previous consent in writing of Landlord

(D) A Landlord shall claim or receive the payment of any sum as premium of "pugree" for giving his consent to the subletting

57. Which of the following is not a legal ground of eviction:-

(A) Tenant has built up, acquired vacant possession of or has been allotted an accommodation suitable for his residence

(B) Tenant has caused substantial damages to the accommodation

(D) Tenant has been convicted for an offence of using the building or allowing the building to be used for immoral or illegal purposes

58. Against any order passed by Rent Controlling Authority under any Section of Chapter 3-A of the Act:-

(A) only appeal shall lie

(B) appeal shall not lie -

(D) both appeal and revision shall lie

59. According to Section 2(e) of the Act who is not a member of the family, even though living jointly with the landlord:-

(A) Paternal uncle's wife

(B) Brother's son

(D) Grandmother

60. A, a landlord, brings a suit for eviction of B, his tenant, on the ground of bona fide need. During the pendency of the suit, he sells the suit accommodation C. C requires the accommodation bona fide for himself. Advise C:-

(A) He can continue with the suit after making necessary amendments therein

(B) He can file a fresh suit or maintain a suit for eviction on any ground

(D) Suit is not maintainable unless 'B' elects to treat him as his landlord "transfer of Property Act, 1882

61. In case of usufructuary mortgage the mortgage is placed in possession who has a right to receive the rent and other profits till:-

(A) mortgage money is paid

(B) contract is rescinded

(D) period of 99 years

62. In which case, a lease of immovable property does not determine:-

(A) by efflux of time

(B) by express surrender

(D) by forfeiture

63. Transfer of property has no relation with:-

(A) air (B) water

64. The doctrine of Lis Pendens applies, where:-

(A) the suit is collusive

(B) the transfer is made after the decree of the trial court but before filing of an appeal

(D) property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court

65. Which of the following gifts is valid:-

(A) ' A' gives Rs.5000 to 'B' oh condition that he shall murder 'C'

(B) 'A' makes a gift of his field to 'B' with a Sirighla’s—Judicial Service Examinations proviso that if 'B' becomes insolvent, 'B's interest in the field shall cease

(C) 'A' makes a gift of his field to 'B' with a condition that if' B' does not within a year set fire to C's house, his interest shall cease

(D) 'A' makes a gift of a house to 'B' on the condition that the gift will be forfeited if 4B' does not reside in it.

66. In case of “part performance” what is not necessary with a transferee:-

(A) Possession

(B) Contract for consideration

(D) Readiness on his part

Indian Contract Act, 1872

67. A contract with or by a minor is a contract:-

(A) valid

(B) void

(D) voidable at option of either party

68. A contingent contract is a:-

(A) valid contract

(B) voidable contract

(D) contract becomes void when the event become impossible

69. Tender is:-

(A) an offer

(B) an invitation to offer

(D) a promise

70. A “consideration” may be:-

(A) only in the future

(B) only in the present

(D) in past, present or future

71. Which is the terminology used to describe a situation when two parties make identical offers to each other in ignorance of each other’s offer:-

(A) Offer

(B) Cross-offer

(D) Conditional Offer

72. In the formation of a Contract which is not among the three essentials:-

(A) Damages

(B) Consideration

(D) Acceptance

Specific Relief Act, 1963

73. No suit under section 6 of the Act for recovery of possession of immovable property, may not be instituted by a person dispossessed without his consent:-

(A) against the government

(B) after expiry of three months from the date of dispossession

(D) if the suit is also to establish the title along with recovery of possession

74. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of section 14 of the Act:-

(A) execution of a formal deed of partnership

(B) contract for construction of a building

(D) contract to execute a mortgage against loan

75. ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are coparceners. ‘A’ is in separate possession of joint family property,. He sells it to ‘D’ and puts ‘D’ in possession. ‘B’ and ‘C’ sue for declaration of title that the property is joint family property. The Court:-

(A) will issue a declaration that property is joint family property

(B) will direct the plaintiff to implead 'A' as a party before granting decree of declaration

(D) may order 'D' to give up the possession

76. ‘A’ threatens to publish statements concerning ‘B’ Which would be punishable under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. ‘B’ files a suit for injunction praying for restraining ‘A’ from publishing the Statement:-

(A) Court may grant injunction even though it shown that it is not injurious to B's property

(B) Court may refuse injunction as publication is not injurious to B's property

(D) Court may dismiss the suit as no cause of action has arisen

Indian Penal Code, 1860

77. The offence of attempt to commit “culpable homicide” is punishable under Section:-

(A) 304 (B) 308

78. ‘A’ kills ‘C’ thinking ‘C’ is ‘B’. ‘A’ is guilty of offence punishable under section:-

(A) 301

(B) 304 Part-1

(D) 304 Part-2

79. Section 195-A I.P.C. is related to:-

(A) Protection of-witness

(B) Protection for victim

(D) None of these

80. Imprisonment for life means, imprisonment for:-

(A) 20 years

(B) 74 years

(D) whole of the remaining life

81. ‘X’ knows ‘Y’ is suffering from a disease in his head and a blow to Y on his head is likely to cause his death. ‘X’ gives a fist blow to ‘Y’ on his head. ‘Y’ died. ‘X’ is guilty of:-

(A) culpable homicide only

(B) murder

(D) no offence

82. Robbery is dacoity if committed conjointly by:-

(A) less than five persons

(B) fb. e or more persons

(D) at least ten persons

83. Which of the following is not a Public Servant?

(A) Municipal Commissioner

(B) Member of Parliament

(D) Examiner of University .

Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

84. Under section 428, the period of detention undergone by a convict cannot be set off during:-

(A) investigation of the case

(B) trial of the case

(D) another case

85. Appeal against an order of acquittal by JMFC in respect of an offence under section 138 Negotiable Instruments Act can be filed in:-

(A) High Court

(B) Court of Sessions

(D) C.J.M. Court

86. ' Who may record any confession or a statement made to him in the course of an investigation:-

(A) Any senior police officer

(B) Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction

(D) Any Judicial Magistrate

87. Compounding of offence under the provisions of the Code in criminal case when charge was framed, results in:-

(A) acquittal of accused

(B) ' discharge of accused

(D) case filed only

88. An inquest report must contain the:-

(A) names of accused

(B) apparent cause of death

(D) details of the incident

89. ‘A’ charge-sheet is filed under section 302 of the I.P.C. against five accused - ‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’ ‘D’ and ‘E’. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are absconding, ‘C’ is exempted from personal appearance by the brdeF of the court, ‘D’ and ‘E’ are present in the Court, The case can be committed to Sessions Court against:-

(A) 'A' and 'B' (B) 'D' and 'E'

90. Offences in which a compromise can be arrived at between the parties are:-

(A) bailable offences

(B) non-cognizable offences

(D) non-compoundable offences

91. The provisions of plea bargaining are applicable:-

(A) to juvenile offenders

(B) at appellate stage

(D) after issuance of process under section 204

Evidence Act, 1872

92. The presumption under section 114-A is a:-

(A) rebuttable presumption

(B) presumption of fact

(D) irrebuttable presumption of law

93. Under Evidence Act, a statement made by co-accused at the time of commission of the offence is:-

(A) admissible under section 6

(B) admissible under section 8

(D) not at all admissible

94. Leading questions can be asked during:-

(A) examination in chief

(B) cross-examination

(D) under no circumstances

95. The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay:-

(A) Dying declaration

(B) Res gestae

(D) Confession

96. Opinion of Handwriting Expert:-

(A) always needs corroboration

(B) is inadmissible in evidence

(D) can be acted upon without corroboration

97. Test Identifications Parade is:-

(A) substantive evidence

(B) corroborative evidence

(D) hearsay evidence

Right to Information, 2005

98. General Limitation for filing second appeal 'tinder the Act is:-

(A) 30 days (B) 60 days

99. Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of:-

(A) 3 years (B) 4years .

100. Provisions of the Act do not apply to:-

(A) Public Authority

(B) Private Organization

(D) Registry of High Court

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