1. National Counter Terrorism Centre (NCTC) proposal has been accused of arming an Intelligence Agency with
(A) Police Powers
(B) Intelligence gathering power
(C) Power of analysis
(D) Power of preparing threat perceptions
2. Which is the first country to withdraw itself from “Kyoto Protocol Treaty” in December, 2011?
(A) Russia (B) India
(C) Canada (D) Bangladesh
3. ‘Growth with Justice’ was major objective of which of the following Five Year Plans of India?
(A) 1st Five Year Plan
(B) 5th Five Year Plan
(C) 9th Five Year Plan
(D) 11th Five Year Plan
4. As per figures of Census 2011, the sex-ratio of children in the age-group of 0-6 years in India is
(A) 912 (B) 913
(C) 914 (D) 915
5. ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’ covers
(A) All children in age group 3-10
(B) All children in age group 4-8
(C) All children in age group 5-15
(D) All children in age group 6-14
6. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument?
(A) Treasury Bills
(B) Commercial Paper
(C) Shares and Bonds
(D) Repurchase Agreement
7. Which is the only State in India to have the Common Civil Code?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Goa
(C) Mizoram
(D) Nagaland
8. The 1st ‘Magnet Bomb Terror’ attack in India happened in
(A) Mumbai (B) Ajmer
(C) New Delhi (D) Surat
9. Which of the following tribes were in news for ‘Human Safar is’? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Munda . 2. Bonda
3. Jarwa 4. Raji
Code:
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2
10. The Policy of Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in India was implemented with effect from
(A) November 1998 (B) December 1999
(C) November 2000 (D) February 2002
11. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management (CAPAM) was formed in 1994 and hold its Conference biennially. Which is the venue for its Conference in 2012?
(A) Ottawa (B) New Delhi
(C) London' (D) Nairobi
12. With which following neighbouring country India shares the longest boundary?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan
(C) China (D) Nepal .
13. On the 125th Birth Anniversary of Srinivasan Ramanujam, which year has been declared as ‘National Mathematics Year’ by the Government of India?
(A) 2010 (B) 2011
(C) 2012' (D) 2009
14. What are “teaswer loans” extended by Banks?
(A) Loans where fixed rate of interest is charged by Banks
(B) Loans where floating rate of interest is charged by Banks
(C) Loans wherein rate of interest in the initial period is less, and goes up. subsequently
(D) Loans wherein rate of interest in the initial stages is more and it goes down subsequently
15. What are Indra I and Indra II?
(A) Missiles of Indian Army
(B) Radars of Indian Army
(C) Helicopters of Indian Army
(D) Boats of Indian Navy
16. As per the ‘Educational Development Index’ (February 2011) the four top most States of India are:
(A) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Delhi
(B) Kerala, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab
(C) Kerala, Delhi, Gujarat, Maharshtra
(D) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Karnataka
17. ‘Pink Revolution’is related to
(A) Cotton (B) Onion
(C) Garlic (D) Grapes
18. “Brent Crude Oil” is frequently in the news in the context of global oil prices. What does this term imply?
(1) It is a major classification of crude oil.
(2) It is sourced from North Sea.
(3) It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 2
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) All the three
19. Which one of the following States is not included among Seven Sisters of India?
(A) Meghalay
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Sikkim
20. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from NNREGA?
(A) Adult members of any household
(B) Adult members of only the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes household
(C) Adult members of BPL householders
(D) Adult members of household of al backward communities
21. At which one of the following cities, Lalit Kala Academy does not have its regional centre?
(A) Cuttak (B) Kolkata
(C) Lucknow (D) Chennai
22. The First Session of All India Trade Union Congress was held in 1920. Who presided over this Session?
(A) S.A. Dange
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) V.V.Giri
(D) V.P. Wadia
23. Which river is known as ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
(A) Brahmputra (B) Ganga
(C) Tista (D) Mahananda
24. The Silicon Valley is located in
(A) Scotland (B) California
(C) Switzerland (D) New Zealand;
25. The largest Uranium reserve has been found in
(A) Canada (B) Australia
(C) New Zealand (D) USA
26. “El Nino” associated with the formation of the South-West Monsoon of India is
(A) a periodic warm air mass
(B) an abnormally warm ocean current
(C) a periodic warm wind
(D) a periodic low pressure centre
27. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of India is/are correct?
(1) The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide
(2) Red soils are rich in lime, humus and potash
(3) They are porous and have friable structure.
Find your answer from the given code:
(A) (l only)
(B) ('2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (3) only
(D) All the three
28. Delhi-Lahore Bus-Service is known as
(A) Sada-a' Aman
(B) Sada-a-Sarhad
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Sadbhawna Express
29. The International Women Day is celebrated on
(A) 8th March (B) 10th March
(C) 15th March (D) 20th March
30. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training set up by Government of India with headquarters at New Delhi does not have a regional centre at
(A) Guwahati (B) Bhopal
(C) Hyderabad (D) Udaipur
31. Of which country the ‘Associated Press’ is the main agency?
(A) England (B) France
(C) USA (D) Germany
32. ‘Mossad’ is the Intelligence Organisation of which country?
(A) Egypt (B) Iran
(C) Spain (D) Israel
33. Which one of the following sites is not in the World Heritage List of UNESCO
(A) Champaner-Pavgarh Archaeological Park '
(B) Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Terminus
(C) Brihadisvara Temple Complex
(D) Valley of Flowers
34. Arrange the following countries in descending order as regards destination of labour outflows from India as per figures of 2010:
(1) Kuwait (2) Oman
(3) UAE (4) Saudi Arabia
Select your answer from given code:
Code:
(A) 4,3,1,2 (B) 4, 2,1,3
(C) 4, 2,3,1 (D) 4,3, 2,1
35. Who invented the world-wide-web (www)?
(A) Steve Jobs
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Robert Tabben Bam
(D) Tim Berner Lee
36. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between
(A) India and Singapore
(B) India and China
(C) India and Indonesia
(D) India and Thailand
37. Indian Railways earn maximum revenue from
(A) Passenger fares
(B) Freight
(C) Tourism and catering services
(D) Fines from ticketless travellers
38. Monetary Policy in India is formulated and implemented by
(A) Government of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) FICCI
39. Small Scale Industries are suited to Indian economic environment, because
(A) they lead to decentralization of economic activities
(B) they make use of local resources
(C) they are. import-light and skill-light
(D) All the above
40. Compilation of National Income is done by
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Central Services Organisation
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
41. Reserve Bank of India follows which system for the issue of currency?
(A) Minimum Reserve System
(B) Proportionate Reserve System
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
42. Which reason among the following explains the low growth rate of real National Income as compared to Monetary National Income?
(A) Population is increasing
(B) Inequalities are growing
(C) Price level is increasing
(D) Export are lesser than imports
43. By December 31, 2010, which among the following countries had the largest Foreign Exchange Reserve?
(A) France (B) Germany
(C) Singapore (D) India
44. The SEBI imposed a restriction on the money flow in the equity through “P-Notes”. What is the full form of “P-Notes”?
(A) Permanent Notes
(B) Purchase Notes
(C) Private Notes
(D) Participatory Notes
45. Which sector contributes the highest share in Gross Domestic Savings in India?
(A) Household Sector
(B) Public Sector
(C) Government Sector
(D) Private Corporate Sector
46. The rationale of Public Distribution System (PDS) is
(A) to control prices
(B) to reduce fluctuation in prices
(C) to ensure equitable distribution of essential goods
(D) All of the above
47. Which of the following controls credit creation by the Commercial Banks in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Government of India
(D) State Bank of India
48. The Government of India earns maximum revenue from
(A) Income-tax
(B) Union Excise Duty
(C) Customs Duty
(D) Corporation Tax
49. Which among the following is not included in the development expenditure of Central Government?
(A) Defence Expenditure
(B) Expenditure on Economic Services
(C) Expenditure on Social and Community Services
(D) Grants to States
50. Which among the following States has the maximum production of coffee in India?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu
51. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna aims at
(A) Meeting rural needs like education, health, housing, roads, water etc.
(B) Alleviating poverty through micro-enterprises
(C) Generating employment in the ruler areas
(D) Strengthening the Panchayat Raj System to rural areas
52. Recently foundation stone of a new Rail Coach Factory has been laid at
(A) Saharsa (B) Amritsar
(C) Rae Bareli (D) Chennai
53. Which one of the following is the objective of National Food Security Mission?
(A) To increase production of rice
(B) To increase production of wheat
(C) To increase production of pulses
(D) All the above
54. Which of the Indian Five Year Plans ensured higher growth rate as compared with the targeted growth rate?
(A) 2nd Five Year Plan
(B) 4th Five Year Plan
(C) 6th Five Year Plan
(D) 5th Five Year Plan
55. The present Trade Policy (2009-14) of the Government of India aims to achievement annual export growth rate of
(A) 14 percent (B) 15 percent
(C) 16 percent (D) 13 percent
56. The correct sequence in descending order of leading producers of Petroleum in the Middle East is:
(A) Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia
(B) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait
(C) Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iraq, Iran
(D) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait, Iraq
57. In December 2011, the meeting of Commerce Ministers of World Trade Organisation was held in:
(A) Geneva (B) London
(C) Paris (D) Tokyo
58. Garuda 2010 is a military exercise involving the air forces of
(A) India and Russia
(B) India and USA
(C) India and Japan
(D) India and France
59. These days American Army is testing ‘Pilotless Helicopter’ for to & for transportation of military goods in Afghanistan. Which is this very important Helicopter?
(A) K. Max Helicopter
(B) Laser Helicopter
(C) T. Max Helicopter
(D) Rotor Helicopter
60. ‘Kalinga Award’ is given by UNESCO for contribution in the field of:
(A) Literature (B) Sports
(C) Politics (D) Science
61. In December 2011 Annual Defence Dialouge was held between India and
(A) Bangladesh (B) China
(C) Pakistan (D) Russia
62. Which of the following countries emerged in 2011 as top donors to Indian N.G.Os?
(A) Luxembourg and Holland
(B) Brazil and USA
(C) Brazil and UK
(D) UK and USA
63. Sri Lanka a Moll with India for rebuilding a port which was heavily attacked by LTTE. Which one of the following was not the main point of this Moll?
(A) The port is situated near Colombo
(B) The port to be rebuilt is Kankesanthuruai
(C) This would reduce the transit time to & from India
(D) It will give fillip to economic activities in the northern part of Sri Lanka
64. The winner of Australian Open 2012 (Men’s Singles) was
(A) Andi Murray
(B) Novak Djokovic
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) Roger Federer
65. In which city Iran has recently started its 1st Atomic Power Plant with some help from Russia?
(A) Bushehr (B) Shiraj
(C) Isfahan (D) Abadan
66. FIFA Men’s World players of the Year Award was given in January 2012 to
(A) Christiano Ronaldo
(B) Lionel Messi-
(C) Rio Ferdinand -
(D) Wayne Rooney
67. Which of the following Commissions Companies of Indian origin signed a pact for obtaining oil-blocks in Libya?
(A) Reliance Petroleum
(B) Oil India Ltd.
(C) ONGC
(D) BPCL
68. ISRO stands for
(A) Indian Steel Research Organisation
(B) International Ship Research Organisation
(C) Indian Space Research Organisation
(D) None of the above
69. Regarding ‘Carbon Credits’ which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Carbon Credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(B) Carbon Credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their’ emission quota
(C) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the U.N. Environment Programme
(D) The goal of carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
70. Match the Science and Technology Centres with their locations:
.A. Indo-Russian Research Centre in Advanced Corriputing 1. New Delhi
B. Internatinal Advanced Centre . for Powder Metallurgy 2. Moscow.
C. Indo-Uzbek Centre for Medical Applications of low level Laswers 3. Hyderabad Select your answer from given code:
Codes:
A B C
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 2 13
(D) 3 1 2
71. World Consumer Rights Day is observed on
(A) April 15 (B) March 15
(C) February 15 (D) May 15
72. Australia 1st Woman Prime Minister Julia Gillard belongs to
(A) Liberal Party of Australia
(B) National Party of Australia
(C) Australian Labour Party
(D) Australian Greens
73. Who amongst the following has won the prestigious ‘Man Booker International Award’ for the year 2011 ?
(A) Alice Munro (B) Chinua Achele
(C) Ismail Kadere (D) Philip Roth.
74. Match the following autonomous Scientific Research Institutions with their locations
(a) Agarkar Research Institute 1. Mumbai
(b) Indian Association for Cultivation of Sciences 2. Pune
(c) Indian Institute of Astrophysics 3. Bangaluru
(d) Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 4. Kolkata
Select your answer from given code:
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
75. In the context of Nuclear Waste Management, match the facilities with the centres:
(a) Vitrification Technology Centre 1. Tarapur
(b) Immobilisation of Wate in Cement Matrix Centre 2. Trombay
(c) Joule Melter Technology Centre 3. Kalpakkam
Choose your answer from given code:
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 2 3 1
(B) 2 1 3
(C) 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1
76. Amnesty International is a world wide organisation dealing with
(A) War Crimes
(B) International Disputes
(C) Human Rights
(D) None of the above
77. According to the Survey conducted by Economic Intelligence Unit, the world’s most expensive city is
(A) Geneva (B) Osaka
(C) Tokyo (D) Zurich
78. The 1st Permanent Research Station established in South Polar Region (Antarctica) by India is
(A) Maitri
(B) Dakshin.Gangotri
(C) Himadri
(D) Bharti
79. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
(A) Myanmar (B) India
(C) Laos (D) Malaysia
80. Palestine was accepted as a full-fledged member of UNESCO in the year
(A) 2007 (B) 2009
(C) 2011 (D) 2012
81. Which Indian born Astrophycist got Nobel Prize in 1983 on his birthday?
(A) C.V. Raman
(B) P.K. Ayengar
(C) S. Chandra Shekhar
(D) Harsh K. Gupta
82. The Indian Deep Space Antenna System for Moon Mission Chandrayaan-I has been installed at
(A) Gauribadanur
(B) Satlana,
(C) Sriharikota
(D) Byalalu
83. Consider the following statements about sub-sonic cruise missile NIRBHAYA proposed to be included in the Indian Forces and state which one is not correct.
(A) The maximum speed of NIRBHAYA is 0.65 Mach
(B) It is being developed by DRDO of India with the assistance of Russia
(C) It can carry'multiple payloads and engage several targets
(D) It is capable of flying at the height of a tree and is known as "tree top missile"
84. The ozone layer restricts
(A) Visible light
(B) Infra-red radiation
(C) X-rays & Gamma rays
(D) Ultraviolet radiation
85. DNA Finger Printing Centre in India is located at
(A) New Delhi (B) Bangaluru
(C) Pune (D) Hyderabad
86. Pendulum Clocks go slow during summer because
(A) days in summer are longer
(B) friction in the coil
(C) length of the pendulum increases
(D) weight of the pendulum changes
87. The 1st Computer University of India is
(A) Jawarlal Nehru Computer University
(B) Indira Gandhi Computer University .
(C) Abdul Kalam Computer University
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Computer University
88. ‘PERT’ is a technique used for which one of the following?
(A) Electric Power Transmission
(B) Project Management
(C) Railway Safety '
(D) Internet
89. “Alma” is the world’s biggest telescope and it one of the greatest achievements of 21st Century. It is expected to give surprise to the scientific world by probing deep mysteries of the space. It is installed in
(A) Chile (B) Japan
/\C) Yugoslavia (D) South Africa
90. Of the two bulbs in a house one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a larger resistance?
(A) Bright bulb
(B) Dim bulb
(C) Both bulbs have same resistance
(D) The brightness does not depend on resistance
91. An artificial satellite orbiting around the earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of the Earth
(A) does not exist at such a distance
(B) is neutralized by the attraction of Moon
(C) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(D) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
92. Chemical used to preserve food material is
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Sodium Benzoate
(C) Sodium Chloride
(D) Sodium bi-carbonate
93. Which one of the following is not biodegradable?
(A) Woollen mat
(B) Silver foil
(C) Leather bag
(D) Jute basket
94. Name the world famous space scientist who despite being paralysed for nearly three decades took a zero-gravity flight in 2007
(A) Stephen Hawking
(B) Jerry Shay
(C) Abdus Salem
(D) Mohamed Elbaradel..
95. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(a) 'Mammography 1. Rectum
(b) Angiography 2. Uterus
(c) Endoscopy 3. Breast
(d) Ultrasonography 4. Blood Vessels
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4 .
(B) 4. 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
96. Depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere enhances the risk of
(A) Global warming
(B) Acid rain
(C) Skin cancer
(D) Brain damage
97. Which bio-metric indices are used in making AADHAR card of a person?
(A) Face and finger-prints
(B) Eye & ear
(C) Pupil and finger prints
(D) Face and pupil
98. Which gas is used as a coolant in cold storages?
(A) Nitrogen .
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Ammonia
(D) Chlorofluorocarbon
99. The 1st Satellite of India sent into space was
(A) Aryabhatta (B) Rohini
(C) Bhaskar (D) Apple
100. The remote control of a television uses
(A) Infra-redrays
(B) Ultra-violet rays
(C) Visible rays
(D) None of these
101. Haripura Session (1938) of Indian National Congress was presided over by
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sarat Chandra Bose
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Rajendra Prasad
102. In which of the following Sessions of Muslim League, had M.A. Jinnah established Two Nations Theory?
(A) Amritsar Session, 1919
(B) Allahabad Session, 1930
(C) Lucknow Session, 1937
(D) Lahore Session, 1940
103. Who amongst the following was not a member of the Royal Commission on the Public Services in India, 1912?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Valentine Chirol
(D) Abdur Rahim
104. The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 resulted in the creation of Santhal Pargana for the Tribes as a separate geographical entity. Who were the leaders associated with the rebellion?
(A) Sidhu and Chakara
(B) Sidhu and Kanu
(C) Chakara and Bogra
(D) Dora and Chakara
105. Which region of India was ruled by Sultan Zainul Abidin?
(A) Kashmir (B) Assam
(C) Orissa (D) Delhi
106. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a demonstration against
(A) Rowlact Act
(B) Jalhanwala Bagh Massacre
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) Simon Commission
107. Which Viceroy of India was murdered by a convict Andaman Nicobar Islands while he was on tour?
(A) Lord Ripppn (B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord Mayo (D) Lord Minto
108. Who among the following were prominent women revolutionaries during India’s Freedom Movement?
1. Shanti Ghosh
2. Sunita Chaudhary
3. Bina Das
4. Kalpana Dutt (Joshi)
(A) l and 4 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1,3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
109. The biggest board of Gupta Gold Coins was found from
(A) Basti (B) Harayana
(C) Hazipur (D) Hugli
110. Who among the following European Travellers visited India during the reign of Jahangir and left valuable account of his reign?
1. William Hawkins
2. William Finch
3. Francisco Palsaert
Indicate your answer from the code given below:.
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1,2 and 3
111. The 1st exclusively Hindi language newspaper ‘Udant Martand’ was published from Kanpur in 1826. Is editor was
(A) Pandit Sadal Misra
(B) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla
(C) Bhartendu Harishchandra
(D) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi
112. Who encouraged the practice of ladies accompanying their husbands to the battlefield?
(A) Madho Rao (B) Raghunath Rao
(C) Balaji Rao (D) Sadashiv Rao
113. The 1st newspaper published from India was
(A) The Bengal Gazette
(B) The Calcutta Gazette
(C) The Calcutta Chronicle
(D) The India Gazette
114. Who amongst the following made the greatest contribution to improve the condition of windows and promote female education in Maharashtra?
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) D.K. Karve
(C) M.G.Ranade
(D) Behramji Malabari
115. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a Satyagraha on behalf of peasants of Kheda?
(1) The administration did not suspend the Land Revenue collection in spite of a drought
(2) The administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the above statement is/are correct? Choose your answer with the help of given code:
Code:
(A) (1)only
(B) (2) only
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) None of these statements
116. Which One of the following socio-religious movements raised the slogan “India is for Indians”?
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Prathana Samaj
(D) Satya Shodhak Samaj
117. When was the ‘Sangeet Natak Academy’ established in independent India?
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1952 (D) 1953
118. Who among the following was the 1st India to clear the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination?
(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Aurobindo Ghosh
(D) Satyendra Nath Tagore
119. With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report 1928?
(1) Dominion status for India in the first stage
(2) Reservation of seats for minorities
(3) Provision for Fundamental Rights for the people of India in the Constitution. Select your answer from given code:
Code:
(A) Only (1) (B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (2) only (D) All the above
120. Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar was closely associated with which of the following women reforms?
(A) Sati Pratha
(B) Female Education
(C) Purdah System
(D) Infanticide
121. The Asteroid Belt is found between which of the following?
(A) Earth and Mars
(B) Jupiter and Saturn
(C) Mars and Jupiter
(D) Saturn and Uranus
122. Which one of the following is the largest satellite in Solar System?
(A) Ganymede (B) Titan
(C) Europa (D) Triton
123. Match List I and II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Industry) (Places)
(a) Paper 1. Ambala Mukul
(b) Cement 2. Bhilai
(c) Iron & Steel 3. Titagarh
(d) Minral Oil Refinery 4. Lakheri
Code:
(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
124. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Indian Ocean?
(A) It covers 20% of water of earth surface
(B) It touches three Continents
(C) Its Northern boundary is marked by Southern end of Persian Gulf
(D) It is delineated by 20° Meridian to Atlantic Ocean
125. The World’s highest “Rail Bridge” under construction in the State of Jammu & Kashmir will be on which of the following rivers?
(A) Chenab (B) Jhelum
(C) Indus (D) Ravi
126. The largest producer of Silver in India is
(A) Karnataka
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Bihar
127. Which one of the following-rivers does not originate in India?
(A) Sutlej (B) Ravi
(C) Chenab (D) Beas
128. “Dhupgarh” is the highest peak of
(A) Vindhyan Range
(B) Satpura Range
(C) Eastern Ghats
(D) Sahyadris
129. Which one of the following is not imported in India?
(A) Cotton (B) Iron Ore
(C) Petroleum (D) Machinery
130. Which of the following crops is not of Indian origin?
(A) Sugarcane (B) Maize
(C) Rice (D) Mango
131. Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?
(A) Committee on Public Accounts
(B) Committee on Public Undertakings
(C) Committee on Estimates
(D) Demand for Grants Committee
132. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Nagaland
3. Maharashtra 4. Haryana
Find your answer from given code:
Code:
(A) 1,3, 2,4 (B) 1,3, 4, 2
(C) 3,1,2, 4 (D) 3,1,4,2
133. Members of State Election Commission are appointed by
(A) President of India
(B) Home Minister of India
(C) Chief Election Commissioner
(D) Governor of the State
134. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any lists of subjects given in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Union Parliament
(C) State Legislature
(D) Regional Councils
135: Which one of the following legislation has to be passed by both Houses of Parliament separately with special majority?
(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitutional Amendment Bill
136. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
137. Under the Provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State may
(1) withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature
(2) reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature, for consideration of the President
(3) return the Bill other than the Money Bill for reconsideration of the Legislature Select the
correct answer using the given code:
Code:
(A) (l)only
(B) (l), (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (3) only .
(D) (2) and (3) only
138. Eligibility for re-election of the President is provided under
(A) Article56 (B) Articles 57
(C) Article 58 (D) Article 59
139. Indian Science Congress 2012 was held in
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Chennai
(C) Bhubaneshwar
(D) Kolkata
140. With reference to the conduct of Government business in the Parliament, the term “Closure” refers to
(A) suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of the Parliament
(B) the termination of a Parliamentary Session
(C) refusal of the Government to have the Opposition a look at important documents
(D) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
141. Name the Constitutional Amendment reducing voting age of voter from 21 years to 18 years
(A) 59th Amendment
(B) 60th Amendment
(C) 61st Amendment
(D) 62nd Amendment
142. Who of the following represented Congress at the 2nd Round Table Conference?
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) C.R.Das
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Mahatama Gandhi
143. Which one of the-following pairs is not properly matched?
(A) 42nd Constitution — Fundamental Amendment Duties
(B) 52nd Constitution — Anti-Defection Amendment Law
(C) 73rd Constitution— Panchayati Raj Amendment
(D) 84th Constitution— Centre-State Amendment relations
144. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
(1) They must be physically present in-their place of origin to exercise their franchise
(2) NRIs whether they have acquired the Citizenship of another country or not are eligible to vote
(3) Eligible NRIs have to register by filling Form 6A with Electoral Registration Office.
Select the correct answer from the given code:
Code: I
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1) and (3) only .
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (3)
145. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the adjudication of disputes relating to water of inter-State rivers or rivers-valleys is done?
(A) Article 260 (B) Article 261
(C) Article 262 (D) Article 263
146. The campaign for widow-remarriage in Maharashtra was led by
(A) Vishnu Parasuram Pandit
(B) B.M.Malabari
(C) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
147. Part IX of the Indian Constitution regarding Panchayats was included in the Constitution in pursuance to which Article concerning Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) Article 39 (B) Article 40
(C) Article 41 (D) Article 42
148. ‘All India Harijan Sangh’ was founded in 1932 by
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
149. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts has three Regional Centres in India. From the following, find out which one of the cities does not have a Regional Centre
(A) Bangaluru (B) Udaipur
(C) Varanasi (D) Guwahati
150. ‘Third Anglo-Martha War’ took place during the period of which Governor General?
(A) Lord Carnwallis
(B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Hastings
LAW
1. Deemed Decree implies
(A) final judgement of the Court
(B) final order of the Court
(C) first para of the judgement
(D) last para of the judgement till decree is prepared
2. “In the matter of Kidnapping and Rape, the evidence given by prosecutrix being, illiterate and rustic young woman, some contradictions and omission are natural as her recollection, memory, observance and narration of chain of events”.
It was held by the Supreme Court in
(A) Manoj Yadav v. Pushpa
(B) State of U.P. v. Chhoteylal
(C) Madhu Vermas v. Urmila Devi
(D) Lakhan Lal v. State of Bihar
3. Which one of the following is not actionable claim?
(A) A claim for mesne profit
(B) A claim for arrears of rent
(C) A share in partnership
(D) A claim for return of earnest money
4. On Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the President has power to suspend the Fundamental Rights except the rights secured by
(A) Articles 19 and 20
(B) Articles 20 and 21
(C) Articles 21 and 22
(D) Articles 19, 20 and 21
5. The concept of Austin’s Sovereignty is influenced by the ideologies of which of the following person?
(A) Hobbs (B) Locke
(C) Rousseau (D) Montesque
6. The State is the synthesis of family and civil society. It is the unity of the universal principle of family and the particular principle of civil society.
The above philosophy is of
(A) Hegel (B) Rosco Pound
(C) Austin (D) Savigny
7. Which of the following theories relating to legal rights has been propounded by lnering?
(A) Will Theory
(B) Concession Theory
(C) Realist Theory
(D) Interest Theory
8. Which of the following are correct combinations?
1. Bentham and Natural law
2. Austin and Positivism
3. Rosco Pound and Sociological School of Jurisprudence
4. Henry Maine and Philosophical School of Jurisprudence
Select the correct answer using the code , given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and,3
9. Which one of the following is not a mode of acquisition of possession?
(A) Taking
(B) Delivery
(C) By operation of law
(D) Acquisition
10. “Custom is to society what law is to the State”. It has been said by
(A) Dias (B) Salmond
(C) Lloyd (D) Finch
11. Which of the following is not a Specialized Agency of the United Nations?
(A) Universal Postal Union
(B) United Nations Children's Fund
(C) International Civil Aviation Organisation
(D) International Finance Corporation
12. The powers and functions of United Nations are divided among how many principal organs?
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 6
13. The real power of appointment of the UN Secretary General lies with
(A) The Security Council
(B) The General Assembly
(C) The General Assembly and the Security Council
(D) The five Permanent Members of the Security Council
14. Who was the Indian candidate for the post of Secretary General of the United Nations?
(A) Soli Sorabjee
(B) N.R. Narayana Murthy
(C) Vijay Nambiar
(D) Shashi Tharoor
15. International law also develops through State practices. It is known as
(A) International Treaty.
(B) International Comity
(C) International Customary Law
(D) International Morality
16. Rule of State Succession was first incorporated from the Roman law by
(A) Bentham (B) Kelsen
(C) Oppenheim (D) Grotius
17. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it.” This observation was made in Queen v. Dudley and Stephens by
(A) Lord Denman
(B) Lord Coleridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Justice Pollock
18. Which one of the following is not an illustration of criminal force?
(A) A spits over B
(B) A removes the veil of a lady B causing annoyance to her
(C) A shakes his fist at B
(D) A pours boiling water in the bucket from which B was bathing
19. Which of the following is an offence against body, property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code 1860? The offence of
(A) kidnapping (B) abduction
(C) rape (D) cheating
20. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
(A) Under Section 363 Indian Penal Code
(B) Under Section 509 Indian Penal Code
(C) Under Section 511 Indian Penal Code
(D) Under Section 354 Indian Penal Code
21. “Law is not universal in nature, like language, it varies with people and ages.
This proposition follows from the theory of
(A) Social utilitarianism
(B) Volksgeist
(C) Social Solidarity
(D) Social Engineering
22. “Judges not only discover law but also they made law.” This view is supported by
(A) Gray (B) Dicey
(C) Salmond (D) Blackstone
23. Dealing with the sources of law who amongst the following was said that, “The Courts fuel — life into the dead words of statute”?
(A) Holland (B) Gray
(C) Salmond (D) Austin
24. The period of limitation within which defendants shall submit his written statement is
(A) 30 days from service of summons
(B) 40 days from service of summons
(C) 60 days from service of summons
(D) 120 days from service of summons
25. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means
(A) a decree
(B) dismissal of appeal summarily
(C) statement of grounds of an order or decree
(D) All the above
26. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) Appear to the Supreme Court
27. “No right of action is conferred on a transfer in possession under an unregistered contract of sale.” Which Section of Transfer of Property Act 1882 contains this Principle?
(A) Section 35 (B) Section 41
(C) Section 53 (D) Section 53A
28. The amendment of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, in the year 2002 amended the provision of
(A) Section 100 (B) Section 106
(C) Section 108 (D) Section 110
29. Which property cannot be transferred?
(A) A public office
(B) A mere chance to succeed
(C) A mere right of re-entry
(D) All of the above
30. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by
.(A) Supreme Court alone
(B) By High Courts
(C) Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(D) None of the Courts
31. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a period of
(A) 14 days (B) 5 months
(C) 6 months (D) None of the above
32. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by
(A) Article 15(4) of the Constitution
(B) Article 16(4) of the Constitution
(C) Article 29(2) of the Constitution
(D) Article 14 of the Constitution
33. “Loya Jirga” is the term used for Tribal Council which will have a decisive role in farming new Constitution of which country?
(A) Angola (B) Iran
(C) Afghanistan (D) Iraq
34. Which country became independent in the year 2002 after 450 years of Portuguese rule, followed by a quarter-century of Indoensian occupation?
(A) East-Timor (B) Nauru
(C) Andorra (D) Kiribati
35. Terrorist, “Bali Bombings” in which 202 people were killed and several injured were done in which country?
(A) Australia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Malaysia
(D) Thailand
36. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to agreements which are discovered void by
(A) Mistake
(B) Failure of consideration
(C) Impossibility
(D) AU the above
37. A contract of life-insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event, falls under the category of
(A) Contingent Contract
(B) Contract of Indemnity
(C) Contract of Guarantee
(D) Special Contract
38. Which of the following statements regarding consideration is not correct?
(A) It must be given at the desire of the promisor
(B) It may be past also
(C) It need not be adequate to the promise
(D) Stranger to it cannot sue
39. Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) Trusteeship Council
(D) World Health Organization
40. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?
(A) Any member of United Nations
(B) The highest Court of Justice of any Nation
(C) The General Assembly of the United Nations
(D) Any Permanent Member of the Security Council
41. Which of the following State has rejoined UNESCO on October 01, 2003 after 19 years absence?
(A) United States of America
(B) India
(C) Sweden
(D) France
42. Which of the following is not a Specialised Agency of the United Nations?
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction, and Development
(B) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(C) U.N. Human Rights Commission
(D) International Labour Organisation
43. The Sixth Conference of World Trade Organisation was held in December 2005 at
(A) Hong Kong (B) Sweden
(C) USA (D) Britain
44. When was an Indian Airlines plane on its flight from Kathmandu to Delhi, hijacked and taken to Khandhar by terrorists?
(A) September 1981 (B) December 1999
(C) September 2001 (D) July 1994
45. The European Union now includes total number Of members:
(A) 45 (B) 90
(C) 27 (D) 35
46. Manila Declaration 2012 is related to
(A) Human Rights
(B) Marine Coast Protection
(C) Air Pollution Control
(D) Economic issues
47. Civil Procedure Code 1908 is not applicable to which of the following namely
(A) Civil matters
(B) Revenue matters
(C) Service matters
(D) Land law and local laws
48. Which one of the following is Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Right to Education
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to move Supreme Court
(D) To organize Village Panchayats
49. Which one of the following is correct statement?
In deciding the question as to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament; the President shall act
(A) according to the opinion of the Election Commission
(B) according to tire opinion of tine Supreme Court
(C) with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
(D) in his own discretion
50. Under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following facts becomes relevant, namely
(A) facts showing state of mind
(B) facts showing state of body
(C) facts showing state of bodily feelings
(D) All the above
51. “Some shared morality is essential to the existence of any society” is the observation of
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) Austin
(C) Fuller
(D) Hart
52. Even a “student” may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It was laid down by the Supreme Court in
(A) Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat (1983)
(B) Sankaria v. State of Rajasthan (1978)
(C) Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta & Ors. (1983)
(D) Punjab Singh v. State of Haryana (1984)
53. Rescission of the Contract means
(A) the renewal of original contract
(B) cancellation of contract
(C) alteration of contract
(D) substitution of new contract in place of earlier one
54. What is the position of a contract when it is being caused by mistake of law?
(A) Voidable
(B) Not voidable
(C) Void
(D) Illegal
55. Who said that, “Public Policy is a unruly horse”?
(A) Justice Atkin
(B) Justice Wright
(C) Justice Deny
(D) Justice Borough
56. Under Section 182 of the Contract Act 1872, National Textile Corporation Ltd. is
(A) a Government department
(B) an agent of the Central Government
(C) not an agent of the Central Government
(D) an agent of the Central Government if the President consents
57. In case of general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance if not required by the proposer. This has been held in
(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
(C) Lalmon Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
(D) Ramji Dayawala and Sons v. Investment Import
58. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that Section 125 Criminal Procedure Code was applicable to all irrespective of their religion?
(A) Mohd. Tajuddin v. Qammaruddin Begum
(B) Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Banu Begum
(C) Teja Singh v. Chhotto
(D) Mst. Zohra Khatoon v. Mohd. Ibrahim
59. The power to grant anticipatory bail under Section 438 Code of Criminal Procedure vest with
(A) The Court of Magistrate
(B) Only in the Court of Sessions
(C) Only in the High Court
(D) Both the Court of Sessions and the High Court
60. Which one of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 deals with High Courts’ power of revision?
(A) Section 395 (B) Section 401
(C) Section 399 (D) Section 396
61. “The Judges of Family Court cannot be considered for elevation as High court Judges.” Supreme Court held it in which of the following case?
(A) Sanjai Aggarwal v. Union of India
(B) T.G.N. Kumar v. State of Kerala
(C) Vishwajeet Majhi v. State of Uttarakhand
(D) S.D. Joshi v. High Court of judicature at Bombay
62. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Bill 2011 is related to which State?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
63. What is the name of the Bill which has been passed by both the Houses of Parliament with regard to cable television?
(A) The Cable Television Network (Regulation) Amendment Bill 2011
(B) The Cable Network Amendment Bill 2011
(C) The Cable Television (Regulation) Amendment Bill 2011
(D) The Cable Television Network Bill 2011
64. Under Code of Civil Procedure 1908, an appeal may be filed by way of
(A) Application (B) Petition
(C) Memorandum (D) Notice
65. Which of the following provision is related with set off under Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Order VIII Rule 5
(B) Order VIII Rule 6
(C) Order VII Rule 5
(D) Order VII Rule 6
66. In U.N. Human Rights Council is a
(A) Subsidiary organ of the General Assembly
(B) Subsidiary organ of Economic, and Social Council
(C) Sub-committee of Human Rights Commission
(D) Committee of Security Council
67. International Criminal Court consists of
(A) 18 Judges (B) 15 Judges
(C) 9 Judges (D) 17 Judges
68. “Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a legal myth”. This is the statement of
(A) Jerome Frank
(B) Holmes
(C) Gray
(D) Llevellyn
69. The U.N.’s latest climate talks held in Durban, South Africa, which renewed Kyoto Protocol 1997, concluded on
(A) December 11,2011
(B) December 12,2011
(C) December 10,2011
(ID) December 30,2011
70. Which one of the following is not the prerequisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives
(B) Victim had illicit relationship with other male person
(C) Such cruelty or harassment was for connections with any demand for dowry
(D) It was done within 7 years of the marriage
71. One of the most important principles of the law-of evidence is that “evidence is to be weighed and not to be counted.” This has been incorporated under which Section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 mainly under
(A) Section 132 (B) Section 133
(C) Section 123 (D) Section 134
72. According to whom, “The matter of jurisprudence is positive law, law simply and strictly so called or law set by political superior to political inferiors”?
(A) Allen (B) Austin
(C) Buckland (D) Bentham
73. The principal jurist of the philosophical school was
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) Sir Henry maine
(C) Max Weber'
(D) Hegel
74. Which one of the following is not a kind of agricultural lease?
(A) Lease for cultivation of Indigo
(B) Lease for cultivation of vegetables
(C) Lease for rearing tea plants
(D) Lease for gathering fruits from trees
75. “Every sale accompanied by agreement for re-conveyance of property would not constitute mortgage by conditional sale.” This statement is related to which Section of Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section 55 (B) Section 56
(C) Section 58 (D) Section 60
76. Who of the following author is said as father of English jurisprudence, namely
(A) Austin (B) Bentham
(C) Salmond (D) Roscoe Pound
77. Reasonable time for the performance of a contract is a question of
(A) fact (B) law
(C) fact and law (D) prudence
78. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to
(A) The Constituent Assembly
(B) The Parliament
(C) The whole society
(D) The people of India
79. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?
(A) 51st Amendment
(B) 52nd Amendment
(C) 53rd Amendment
(D) 54th Amendment
80. Which one of the following does not come within the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab and Haryana high Court?
(A) Punjab (B) Haryana
(C) Chandigarh (D) Delhi
81. An agreement in restraint of trade under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
(A) valid (B) voidable
(C) void (D)' enfroceable
82. ‘A’ proposes by letter to sell a house to ‘B’ at a certain price. The communication of proposal is complete when
(A) 'A' posts the letter
(B) 'A' has completed the writing of letter
(C) 'B' gets information about the posting of the letter
(D) 'B' receives the letter
83. A and B enter into contract due to mistake that a particular debt is time-barred. Contract is
(A) valid (B) void
(C) illegal (D) both (B) and (C)
84. ‘A contract of telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard.’ In which case it has been held?
(A) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(C) Mohribibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh
(D) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram
85. A wagering agreement depends on
(A) an uncertain event
(B) future event only
(C) past unascertained only
(D) none of the above events
86. Which one of the following is not essential for a contract?
(A) Consideration
(B) Valuable consideration
(C) Lawful consideration
(D) Adequate consideration
87. “Continuing Guarantee” has been defined
(A) Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(B) Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act
(C) Under Section 146 of the Indian Contract Act
(D) Under Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act
88. The interpretation clause of the Indian Contract Act 1872 has been provided in
(A) Section 1 (B) Section 2
(C) Section 3 (D) none of the above
89. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is
(A) Unenforceable
(B) Voidable
(C) Wrongful
(D) Void
90. “A” promises to obtain for “B” an employment in the public service and “B” promises to pay Rs. 1000 to “A". The agreement is
(A) Legal
(B) Can be enforced at. the option of the parties
(G) Void
(D) None of the above
91. State the correct answer.
If object of an agreement is forbidden by law, the agreement is
(A) void only but not illegal
(B) illegal only but not void
(C) both void as well as illegal
(D) voidable
92. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything which
(A) is an offence
(B) is prohibited by law
(C) furnishes ground for civil action
(D) all the above
93. What is not necessary to constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy?
(A) Two or more persons
(B) Five or more persons
(C) Agreement to cause illegal act or an act by illegal means
(D) If act is not crime, to do some act in pursuance of agreement
94. ‘A’ knowing that her husband ‘B’ has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to screen him from legal punishment, “A” is liable for
(A) Murder by reason of having common intention
(B) Harbouring
(C) Abetment by aid
(D) "A" has committed no offence
95. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with Dowry death?
(A) Section 304B
(B) Section 364A
(C) Section 363A
(D) Section 366B
96. “A” and “B” plan to murder “C”, the next day. They are guilty of
(A) the offence of planning
(B) the offence of criminal conspiracy
(C) the offence of attempting to murder
(D) no offence
97. Which offence does not require a minimum number of five person?
(A) Unlawful Assembly
(B) Riot
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
98. Which one of the following is a continuing offence?
(A) Abduction (B) Rape
(C) Theft (D) Abetment
99. Under Section 362 of Indian Penal Code the offence of abduction may be committed with
(A) a girl under 18 years of age
(B) a boy under 16 years of age
(C) a person of unsound mind
(D) none of the above is correct
100. “A” a police officer without warrant apprehends “Z” who has committed murder. “A” has committed the offence of
(A) wrongful confinement
(B) wrongful restraint
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) no offence
101. “In every statue mens-rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.” This view was expressed in
(A) Sheras v. De-Rutzen
(B) R v. Dudley & Stephen
(C) Harding v. Price
(D) R v. Prince
102. “A” in India instigates “B” a foreigner in Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. “B” commits murder. In this case
(A) 'A' is guilty of abetting murder
(B) 'A' is not guilty of any offence
(C) 'A' is liable for committing murder
(D) None of the above answer is correct
103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Mensrea —R v. Prince
(B) Necessity—,D.P.P. v. Beard
(C) Insanity — Mc Naghtens case
(D) Intoxication — Basudeo v. State of Pepsu
104. ‘A’ commits theft on property in ‘B’ possession and while committing theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ resists. The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which section of the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Section 382 (B) Section 379
(C) Section 390 (D) Section 381
105. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of
(A) theft and dacoity
(B) culpable homicide and murder
(C) kidnapping and abduction
(D) abetment and conspiracy
106. Theft is an offence against
(A) a person
(B) immovable property
(C) movable property
(D) both movable and immovable property
107. A married man commits the offence of adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a
(A) unmarried Woman .
(B) married woman except his wife
(C) any woman except his wife
(D) unmarried woman without her consent
108. “A” puts jewels into a box belonging to “B” with the intention that they may be found in that box, with the result that ‘B’ may be convicted for the offence of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence under
(A) Section 191 of Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 192 of Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 193 of Indian Penal Code
(D) 'A' has committed no offence
109. ‘X’ drives very fast through a crowded road to catch a flight, knowing that his act in ail probability may cause death. ‘Y’ is killed by his vehicle. ‘X’ is guilty of
(A) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) murder
(C) grievous hurt
(D) negligence
110. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with voluntary intoxication?
(A) Section 84 (B) Section 85
(C) Section 86 (D) Section 87
111. When was the RIO Declaration on Environment and Development made?
(A) In June 1992
(B) In December 1989
(C) In June 1997
(D) In September 2002
112. The International Labour Organization (ILO) on December 10, 2011 released a report on the employment scenario in
(A) Oman (B) Iraq
(C) Pakistan (D) Afghanistan
113. Copenhagen Accord on climate change is
(A) a binding treaty
(B) not a binding treaty
(C) a declaration of General Assembly
(D) an optional protocol
114. Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 the term “offence” has been defined?
(A) Section 40 (B) Section 2(n)
(C) Section 2(w) (D) None of the above
115. The Parliament of which country signed on CTBT on 6th December, 2011?
(A) Indonesia (B) Iraq
(C) Australia (D) Pakistan
116. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the Collector may be appointed as receiver?
(A) Order XL Rule 5
(B) Order XLI Rule 1
(C) Order XL Rule 2
(D) Order XLI Rule 5
117. A receiver is an
(A) officer of the court
(B) agent of the plaintiff
(C) agent of the defendant
(D) agent of the. parties to the suit
118. Which one of the following cases related to dying declaration?
(A) Mehboob Shah v. King Emperor
(B) Queen v. Abdullah
(C) Kotayya v. King Emperor
(D) M.C. Vergese v. Ponane
119. To what facts of the following, the rules of relevancy have been discussed under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Motive
(B) Preparation
(C) Previous or subsequent conduct
(D) All of the above
120. Which of the following statement is incorrect under Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Right of Redemption belongs to mortgagee
(B) Right of Foreclosure belongs to mortgagor
(C) Right of Redemption can be abrogated
(D) Right of Forceclosure can be abrogated
121. Which of the following is not an essential element of gift?
(A) Donor and Donee
(B) Subject-matter
(C) Transfer of subject-matter
(D) Transfer must be for consideration
122. For the lease of immovable property, the tenure for more than one year or year to year:
(A) The attestation of notary is sufficient
(B) It is Valid if the execution of it is made before the Magistrate only
(C) It is sufficient, if the parties made an agreement
(D) Only registration is sufficient
123. The word “secular” used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means
(A) The State has no religion of its own
(B) All religions are treated equally
(C) The State has no common religion
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct
124. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by
(A) 74th Amendment
(B) 73rd Amendment
(C) 65th Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
125. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978 was
(A) Amended Article 32
(B) Deleted Article 31 .and introduced Article 300A
(C) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution
(D) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution
126. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves the Supreme Court held that
(A) Rule of law is not a part of Constitution
(B) Rule of law is a part of Constitution
(C) Preamble is not a part of Constitution
(D) Preamble is a part of Constitution
127. How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Six
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Three
128. State Executive power is vested with
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
(D) Governor
129. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was laid down in
(A) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar
(B) P.K. Garg v. Union of India
(C) State of M.P. v. G.C. Mandavar
(D) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India
130. Who can constitute the State Administrative Tribunal under the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985?
(A) President of India
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) Concerned State Government
131. Under which Article of the UN Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State?
(A) Article 41 (B) Article 2(4)
(C) Article 24 (D) Article 42
132. The judgement of International Court of Justice is to be signed by
(A) the President of the Court
(B) the Registrar of the Court
(C) all Judges who heard the case
(D) the President and Registrar of the Court
133. Consider the following statements:
1. International law is not a law at all.
2. International law has no judicial system to enforce the law by applying sactions of the above
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not true
134. Which one of the following is not a case relating to doctrine of precedent?
(A) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.
(C) Liversidge v. Anderson
(D) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd., v. State of Bihar
135. Which one of the following schools of legal thought held the view that, “Law is found not made, it is self existent.”?
(A) Historical School
(B) Analytical School
(C) Sociological School
(D) Realistic School
136. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court over-ruled its own precedent for, the first time?
(A) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(C) Bengal Immunity Co. v. State of Bihar
(D) Keshav Mills.Co. v. Income-tax Commissioner
137. “Law is what the judges declares”. The statement relates to which of the following thinkers?
(A) Jerome Frank (B) Julius Stone
(C) Gray (D) Holmes
138. Who described jurisprudence as “Lawyer’s Extroversion”?
(A) Savigny (B) Salmond .
(C) Julius Stone (D) Buckland
139. The Law means
(A) The entire body of rules in a State
(B) A particular law
(C) The rules of morality
(D) . The rules of natural justice
140. “Movement of progressive societies have hitherto been from status to contract.” Who said so?
(A) Bentham (B) Rosco Pound
(C) Henry Maine (D) Savigny
141. Legal Right is an Interest
(A) Recognised by lavv
(B) Protected by law
(C) Both (A) an (B) are correct
(D) None of the above
142. On which date the Statute of the ‘International Criminal Court’ has come into force?
(A) 10th December, 2003
(B) 24th October, 2002
(C) 1st July, 2002
(D) 1st January, 2003
143. Where the UNESCO’s headquarter is situated?
(A) In Geneva
(B) In London
(C) In New York
(D) In Paris
144. Recently which one of the following State has been recognised by 112 countries around the world?
(A) Peru
(B) Nicaragua
(C) Palestine
(D) Uruguay
145. United States President Obama signs on which date the ‘Massive $ 662 billion Defence Spending Bill called the Defence Authorisation Bill’?
(A) December 29,2011
(B) December 30, 2011
(C) December 31,2011
(D) December 28, 2011
146. S.C.O. Summit 2006 was held in which country?
(A) Moscow (Russia)
(B) Shanghai (China)
(C) New Delhi (India)
(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
147. Which tribunal/court has put Lubanga of Kango on trial?
(A) International Court of Justice
(B) Tribunal for Yugoslovakia
(C) Rwanda Tribunal
(D) International Criminal Court
148. Under which provisions of Civil Procedure Code temporary injunctions are granted?
(A) Under Section 116
(B) Under Section, 152
(C) Under Order 39 Rule 1
(D) Under Order 29 Rule 1
149. Who can file a suit under Section 91 of Civil Procedure Code for public nuisance?
(A) Advocate General
(B) Any citizen
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Any 10 or more citizens
150. The duration of existence of a Caveat filed under Code of Civil Procedure 1908 is
(A) 60 days from the date on which it was filed
(B) 30 days from the date on which it was lodged
(C) 120 days from the date when it was lodged
(D) 90 days from the date, when it was lodged
