M.P. Civil Judge Class-2 (Entry Level) Preliminary Examination, 2018 SHIFT-1

Constitution of India (Total-10 Questions) (Qs. No. 1-10)

1. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body? ,

(a) Election Commission

(b) NITI Ayog

(d) Interstate Council.

2. Under Indian Constitution, Fundamental duties enshrined under Article 51A does not includes the duty

(a) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India

(b) To defend the country when called upon to do so

(d) To protect monuments, places and objects of national importance.

3. Constitution of India: The right of vote in India is—

(a) Fundamental right

(b) Natural right

(d) Legal right.

4. Which of the following is true and correct regarding Article 14 of the Constitution of India?

(a) It forbids class legislation

(b) It allows reasonable classification

(d) None of these.

5. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India recognizes the “Doctrine of Double Jeopardy”?

(a) Article 22(2) (b) Article 21(2)

6. Constitution of Panchayats is given in of Constitution of India

(a) Article 243B

(b) Article 243O

(d) Article 243A

7. Constitution of India:—Protection and Improvement of Environment and safeguarding forest and wild life is;

(a) One of the Fundamental Duties

(b) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) None of these.

8. Which among the following is not a fundamental right according to Constitution of India—

(A) Right to equality

(B) Right to freedom of religion

(D) Equal Justice & free legal aid

(a) (A),(B)&(C) (b) Only (A)

9. Constitution of India:—Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) Organization of Village Panchayats

(b) Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non-citizens

(d) Separation of Judiciary from executive.

10. In preamble of the Constitution of India, the people of India have resolved to constitute India into:—

(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic

(b) Sovereign socialist Democratic Republic

(d) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic.

Civil Procedure Code, 1908 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 11-25)

11. Civil Procedure Code:—A decree for injunction if not obeyed

(a) is not executable

(b) is executable by detention of the judgment debtor in civil prison or by attachment of his property

(d) is executable by filing !a fresh suit.

12. Civil Procedure Code:—A decree for restitution of conjugal right is executable

(a) by attachment of property or by detention in civil prison or by both

(b) by attachment of property

(d) By granting a decree for divorce.

13. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the compromise under Order 23 rule 3 of Civil Procedure Code?

(a) Must be in writing and signed by the party

(b) Must be in writing and need to be lawful agreement

(d) A compromise which is voidable under the Indian Contract Act shall also voidable within the meaning of this Rule

14. Where a suit is dismissed under Rule 8 of Order 9 of the Civil Procedure Code in respect of same cause of action, the plaintiff

(a) Shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit

(b) May bring a fresh suit subject to the law of limitation

(d) May bring a fresh suit.

15. Civil Procedure Code:—A decision or finding given by Court without jurisdiction

(a) can operate as res-judicata under all circumstances.

(b) cannot operate as res-jusdicata

(d) may operate as res-judicata or may not operate as res-judicata

16. Civil Procedure Code:—A suit for partition of properties situated in different cities-

(a) separate suits have to-be filed in each of the cities where the properties are situated

(b) can be instituted in a city where any property are situated

(d) can be instituted where defendants or any of them resides.

17. Under section 148 of Civil Procedure Code the Court can enlarge the time not exceeding in total

(a) 90 Days

(b) 60 Days

(d) 30 Days.

18. Civil Procedure Code:—A suit may be defeated due to

(a) Non-joinder of proper party

(b) Mis-joinder of necessary party

(d) mis-joinder of proper party.

19. Civil Procedure Code:—Suit against Government shall not be instituted until the expiration of

(a) one month next after notice in writing has been delivered

(b) Three month after notice in writing has been delivered

(d) six month after notice in writing has been delivered.

20. Civil Procedure Code:—Principle of res- judicata does not apply

(a) to Writ of Habeas Corpus

(b) to Interlocutory Orders

(d) to ex-parte judgement.

21. Civil Procedure Code:—Which of the following is a right of civil nature

(a) Right to share in offerings in a temple

(b) Right to take out procession

(d) All of these

22. According to order 20 Rule 7 of Civil Procedure Code the decree shall bear the date of

(a) The day on which the judgement was pronounced

(b) The day on which the decree was made

(d) The day on which final argument was heard.

23. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Order 22 of Civil Procedure Code on the same cause of action

(a) fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the court

(b) no fresh suit shall be brought

(d) new suit may be instituted with the consent of parties

24. Civil Procedure Code:—The provision in respect of summary procedure has been laid down under

(a) Order 32 A of CPC

(b) Order 29 of CPC

(d) Order 37 of CPC

25. Which Provision (Order) of Civil Procedure Code deals with production, impounding and return of documents?

(a) Order 13 CPC

(b) Order 5 CPC

(d) Order 24 CPC

Transfer of Property Act, 1892 (Total-7 Questions) (Qs. No.46-32)

26. Transfer of Property Act:—Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding transfer of immovable property by gift?

(a) Instrument must be signed by or on - behalf of the donor

(b) Instrument must be signed by donor only 1481

(d) Instrument must be attested by at least two witnesses.

27. Transfer of Property Act:—The attestation of document means

(a) the attesting witness is aware of contents of the document

(b) The attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark

(d) Both the attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark and received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of his signature.

28. Transfer of Property Act:—’’Transfer of Property” does not include ?

(a) sale

(b) lease

(d) gift

29. Transfer of Property Act:—The gift of future property is-

(a) Valid

(b) Voidable

(d) Conditionally void

30. Which of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act deals with “effect of holding over a lease”?

(a) Section 115

(b) Section 115A

(c) Section 116

(d) Section 114A

31. Transfer of Property Act:—The doctrine of “lis pendens” is explained in famous case of—

(a) Musahur Sahu v. Hakim Lal

(b) Muhammad Shafi v. Muhammad Sayed

(d) Bellamy v. Sabine.

32. Under Transfer of Property Act, if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee?

(a) The gift is valid

(b) The gift is void

(d) None of these

Indian Contract Act, 1872

(Total-8 Questions) (Qs. No. 33-40)

33. Indian Contract Act:—Which contract is specifically enforceable?

(a) Contract by 'B' to deliver a lecture of law at Jabalpur University

(b) Contract of Marriage

(d) None of these

34. Indian Contract Act:—Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of—

(a) Fraud

(b) Misrepresentation

(d) Free consent

35. If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under section 24 of the Indian Contract, shall be

(a) Valid to the extent the same are lawful

(b) Valid to the extent same are unlawful

(d) valid as a whole.

36. Indian Contract Act:—Two parties entered into contract. They later realized that there was a mistake in their understanding of law as applicable in India. This make their contract

(a) Nonest (b) void

37. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the Indian Contract Act?

(a) 70 (b) 2(d)

38. Indian Contract Act:—Gods displayed in showcase of a shop with price tag is—

(a) invitation to offer

(b) counteroffer

(d) None of these

39. Indian Contract Act:—‘A’ enters Into a contract with ‘B’ to sell him 100 bales of cotton, and afterwards discovers that ‘B’ was acting as agent for ‘C’. For the price of the cotton ‘A’ may sue-

(a) Only Against 'C

(b) Only Against 'B'

(d) neither against ZBZ nor ZCZ

40. Under Indian Contract Act, when does an agreement becomes a contract?

(a) It is enforceable by law

(b) It is between parties competent to contract

(d) All of these

Specific Relief Act, 1963 (Total-6 Questions) (Qs. No. 41-46)

41. Specific Relief Act:—Where in any suit for specific performance of contract or any part thereof is dismissed, then suit for breach for compensation

(a) is barred

(b) Instituted with the permission of court

(d) Permissible only in some circumstances.

42. Consider following facts regarding effect of declaration made under section 34 of Specific Relief Act:—

1. Declaration is binding on the parties to the suit and persons claiming through them respectively.

2. Declaration binds all those persons who have knowledge of the suit and knowingly they do not become parties.

(a) 1 is right

(b) 2 is right

(d) 1 & 2 both are wrong.

43. Specific Relief Act:—An injunction can not be granted-

(a) to restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit in which injunction is sought, unless such restraint is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings:

(b) to restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought

(d) All of these

44. Specific Relief Act:—Plaintiff, without having any title, filed a suit, for permanent injunction against dispossession, based on long possession;

(a) Because there is no title-Plaintiff may be dispossessed

(b) Law respects possession-Plaintiff cannot be dispossessed except in7 accordance with law

(d) Suit is not maintainable only for the relief of permanent injunction.

45. Specific Relief Act:—An injunction can be granted

(a) to prevent, on the ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance

(b) to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiescence;

(d) to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced.

46. Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, Specific Relief may be granted

(a) For enforcing individual civil rights

(b) For enforcing a Penal law

(d) For enforcing public rights.

Limitation Act, 1963 (Total-4 Questions) (Qs. No. 47-50)

47. Limitation Act:—The period of limitation for a suit to compensation for a malicious prosecution is-

(a) 90 days (b) 6 months

48. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to-

(a) suits

(b) execution petitions under Order 21 CPC

(d) All of these

49. Limitation Act:—The period of limitation for preferring an appeal from a decree passed by a court subordinate to the High Court to a ’ High Court from the date of the decree is:

(a) 90 days (b) 60 Days

50. Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963 applies to-

(a) Suits (b) Appeals

M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 (Total-5 Questions) (Qs. No. 51-55)

51. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—Which one of the following option is correct regarding notice of increase of arrear of rent?

1. Notice must be given orally or in writing by landlord or on behalf of the landlord

2. Notice may be given to tenant personally or to one his adult member of family or to his servant

(a) 1 is wrong, 2 is right

(b) 2 is right, 1 is wrong

(d) 1 & 2 both are wrong

52. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—A revision against a final order passed by the Rent Controlling authority on an application submitted by a retired government servant for eviction of his tenant, on the ground of bonafide requirement, shall be to-

(a) The High Court

(b) The Court of District Judge

(d) the Commissioner

53. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—Member of the family do not includes?

(a) spouse

(b) unmarried daughter

(d) married daughter

54. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:—After a notice of demand for arrears of rent has been served on tenant, he should pay or tender the arrears of rent, to save himself from eviction:

(a) Within fifteen days

(b) Within one month

(d) Within three months

55. Under which provision of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, penalties can be imposed on a landlord and tenant?

(a) Section 42 (b) Section 43

M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 (Total-5 Questions) (Qs. Mo. 56-60)

56. M.P. Land Revenue Code:—Who would decide the disputes regarding boundaries between villages, survey number and plot numbers?

(a) Collector

(b) Sub Divisional Officer

(d) Tehsildar

57. Where a Bhumiswami has been dispossessed unauthorisedly, he will make an application for restitution of possession under section 250 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, before—

(a) Tahsildar

(b) Sub-Divisional Officer

(d) Revenue Inspector

58. M.P. Land Revenue Code:—An application by party interested will be presented to Tehsildar for Demarcation Of boundary of a survey number or of a sub-division or of a plot number and construction of boundary marks thereon.

(a) under section 124 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959

(b) under section 129 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959

(d) under section 125 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959

59. The offence under section 250B of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, is

(a) Non-cognizable and bailable offence

(b) Cognizable and non-bailable offence

(d) Non-cognizable and non-bailable offence

60. Under M.P.L.R C., 1959, which of the following matter is not in exclusive jurisdiction of revenue authorities?

(a) Any claim to modify a decision determining abadi made by a Settlement Officer or Collector

(b) The amount of Land Revenue assessed or reassessed under this Code or any other enactment for the time being in force

(c) Any claim against the State Government to have any entry made in any land records or to have any such entry omitted or amended

(d) Any dispute to which the State Government, is not a party relating to any right which is recorded in the records of rights.

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 61 -75)

61. Indian Evidence Act:—Extra Judicial confession means a confession made?

(a) Before judicial Magistrate in court

(b) Before Doctor

(d) Both before Doctor & before Friend.

62. If an accused voluntarily consents for brain mapping and narco-analysis, then such information is relevant under which section of Evidence Act?

(a) Section 7

(b) Section 17

(d) Section 30

63. Indian Evidence Act:—Identification of a suspect by photo is—

(a) Not admissible in evidence

(b) admissible in evidence

(d) Both, not admissible in evidence and the suspect must be present

64. There is a charge upon ‘A’ committing murder at Kolkata on a certain day. He takes plea that on that day he was at Mumbai. This statement of ‘A’ is relevant under which section of the Evidence Act?

(a) Sections (b) Section9

65. A dying declaration is relevant evidence under section 32 of the Evidence Act notwithstanding it being hearsay evidence, because-

(a) A statement by a person as to the cause of his death is grated in law as a solemn statement

(b) If a person is dead and anything said by the person as to the cause of death is relevant, since the dead person cannot be brought before the court to testify, necessity makes it inevitable to admit said statement

(d) Because society owes a duty to dead persons to give them justice.

66. Indian Evidence Act:—the burden of proof in case of ‘plea of alibi’ is—

(a) on the prosecution

(b) on the accused

(d) None of these

67. Indian Evidence Act:—Defence of alibi is governed by—

(a) Section 9 of the Evidence Act

(b) Section 12 of the Evidence Act

(d) Section 6 of the Evidence Act.

68. Indian Evidence Act:—A witness may while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction or soon afterwards. This provision is provided under-

(a) Section 160 (b) Section 158

69. In the Evidence Act, the conditions in respect of computer output to be deemed and admissible in evidence as document is contained in—

(a) Section 65(B)(1)

(b) Section 65(B)(2)

(d) Section 65(B)(4)

70. Indian Evidence Act:—Which of the following is not a competent Witness?

(a) Deaf (b) Minor

71. Under section 45 of Evidence Act Opinion of expert witness is—

(a) A Conclusive proof

(b) is not relevant

(d) is not a conclusive proof

72. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which one of the following is not essential condition for admissibility of dying declaration?

(a) The statement as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death

(b) Person making statement must be under expectation of death at the time of making such statement

(d) The statement must be as to the cause of his death

73. Under section 27 of the Evidence Act the ‘Fact discovered’ means

(a) The object produced only

(b) The place from where the object is produced only

(d) None of these

74. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, for raising presumption in respect of an electronic record that electronic signature or the record which purports to be that of any particular person was so affixed by him the record shall be—

(a) 3 years old (b) 6 Years old

75. Test Identification parade conducted during investigation of a case is admissible in evidence under which of the section of the Evidence Act?

(a) Section 6 (b) Section 7

Indian Penal code, 1860 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 76-90)

76. Under Section 34 of Indian Penal Code—

(a) Physical Presence is necessary

(b) Physical Presence is necessary for participation but not in all cases

(d) Physical Presence is necessary with common knowledge

77. Indian Penal Code:—Which one of the following option in incorrect?

(a) All Murderes are cuplable homicide but not vice-versa

(b) All culpable homicide are murder

(d) Clause (c) of section 299 require knowledge of the probability of death

78. Indian Penal Code:—A lady wishing to get a railway ticket finding a crowd at ticket window at Station asked ‘B’ who was near Window to get a ticket for her and handed him over money for same. ‘B’ took money and instead of getting ticket ran away with money. What offence has been committed by ‘B’?

(a) Offence of theft

(b) Offence of Criminal Mis-appropriation

(d) Offence of Cheating

79. Indian Penal Code:—A finds Rs. 2000 note on public place. He has no idea as to whom the Rs. 2000 note belongs. He picks up the note. A has committed—

(a) Theft

(b) Dishonest misappropriation of property

(d) has not committed any offence

80. Indian Penal Code: Uttering obscene words near a public place

(a) is not an offence

(b) is an offence under section 294IPC

(d) is an offence under section 292(2)(b) IPC.

81. To convict a person for offence under section 306 IPC

(a) Ingredients of section 107 IPC are to be proved

(b) Ingredients of section 107 IPC are not to be proved

(d) None of these.

82. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement is provided?

(a) Section 340 IPC

(b) Section 341 IPC

(d) Section 350 IPC.

83. Indian Penal Code:—X intended to kill A but instead killed B whom he had nd intention to kill under which doctrine is X liable for the murder of B.

(a) Doctrine of extended malice

(b) Doctrine of mens rea

(d) Doctrine of transfer of malice

84. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent?

(a) Section 90

(b) Section 92

(d) Section 87

85. Indian Penal Code:—For an offence of Kidnapping from lawful guardianship the age of a girl must be

(a) Below 18 Years

(b) Below 15 Years

(d) Below 16 Years

86. Indian Penal Code:—The right of private defence of the body-

(a) commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues even after that apprehension ceases.

(b) commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during the period of assault

(d) commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues as long as such apprehension of the danger to the body continues.

87. Indian Penal Code:—Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) abettor's liability is dependent on the liability of the principal offender

(b) if the bettor is innocent, the principal offender is also not liable

(d) The principal offender must have the same guilty mind as that of the abettor

88. Under Indian Penal Code, which of the following amounts to defamation:

(a) To convey a caution intended for good of person, to whom conveyed or for public good

(b) To-make an imputation concerning a company or an association or collection of persons as such

(d) Publication of reports of proceedings of court

89. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child with intention of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child, shall be punished under section 369 of IPC if the child is under?

(a) Ten Years

(b) Twelve Years

(d) Sixteen Years

90. According to Indian Penal Code, any man who monitors the use by a woman of the interest, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication commits the offence of

(a) Voyeurism

(b) Stalking

(d) Searching.

Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (Total-15 Questions) (Qs. No. 91 -105)

91. Under what section of Criminal Procedure Code a Magistrate may direct local investigation?

(a) Section 133 (b) Section 145

92. Criminal Procedure Code:—How much punishment may be awarded to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial?

(a) Not exceeding three months

(b) Not exceeding six months

(d) Not exceeding two years.

93. A confessional statement u/s 164 of Criminal Procedure Code can be recorded?

(a) During the course of investigation only and not afterwards.

(b) During the course of investigation at any time afterwards on commencement of trial, with the permission of court.

(d) During the investigation, inquiry or trial.

94. Criminal Procedure Code:—In M.P. offence under section 363 IPC is liable by which Court?

(a) Judicial Magistrate First class

(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(d) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate;

95. Criminal Procedure Code:—If a offence under section 376 IPC is committed the information shall be recorded by woman police officer under section?

(a) 154Cr.P.C.

(b) 155Cr.P.C.

(d) 157Cr.P.C.

96. Criminal Procedure Code:—The Magistrate of first class may pass a sentence—

(a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two year or fine not exceeding (Five thousand rupees) or both

(b) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years or fine not exceeding (Five thousand rupees) or both

(d) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years or unlimited fine or both.

97. Criminal Procedure Code:—Imprisonment in default of payment of fine can be awarded—

(a) to run concurrently with substantive sentence imposed

(b) in addition to the substantive sentence imposed

(d) None of these.

98. Procedure of Arrest and Duties of officer making Arrest is provided in Section of Criminal Procedure Code.

(a) 41B (b) 41A

99. Criminal Procedure Code:—Court may alter Charge—

(a) Only before evidence of prosecution is closed.

(b) Only Appellate Court may alter charge.

(d) At any time before Judgement is pronounced.

100. Executive Magistrate may require Security for good behaviour from habitual offender under section of Criminal Procedure Code.

(a) 109 (b) 110

101. Criminal Procedure Code:—Magistrate may take cognizance of an offence on complaint if in his opinion—

(a) There is sufficient ground for conviction

(b) There is prima facie no probable defence of accused

(d) There is sufficient ground for proceeding.

102. Victim is defined in Section of Criminal Procedure Code

(a) 2(a) (b) 2(u)

103. Under proviso to section 372 Criminal Procedure Code, victim have no right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the court—

(a) Acquitting the accused

(b) Convicting for a lesser offence

(d) Imposing inadequate sentence.

104. Under Criminal Procedure Code, the period of limitation for taking cognizance of any offence shall be three years—

(a) If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years

(b) If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three year but not exceeding seven years

(d) If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.

105. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under Section 320 of Criminal Procedure Code is dead, then—

(a) Legal representative of such person as defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can compound the offence with the permission of .the Court

(b) Offence can be( compounded by any alive eye witness

(d) Legal representative of such person as defined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, can compound the offence with the consent of the Court.

Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (Total-5 Questions) (Qs. No. 106-110)

106. Which of the following section of Negotiable Instruments Act is related with presumption?

(a) Section 119 (b) Section 137

107. Negotiable Instruments Act:—Whether a minor may draw, indorse, deliver and negotiate any instrument?

(a) Only when he can understand the consequence of it.

(b) Only when it is beneficial for him

(d) Yes, he may do so as to bind all parties except himself.

108. Negotiable Instruments Act:—When the cause of action accrue, if the cheque issued by the drawer is dishonour?

(a) on the date receipt of information by bank regarding the return of cheque as unpaid

(b) on the date when notice is issued by payee to the drawer

(c) on the date drawer of cheque fails to make the payment of cheque amount to payee within 15 days from the receipt of demand notice

(d) None of these.

109. Supreme Court has laid down certain directions to criminal courts for speedy and expeditious disposal of cases falling under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 in the case of—

(a) Indian Bank Association & Ofs v. Union of India

(b) Rangappa v. Mohan

(d) K. Bhaskaran v. S.V. Balan.

110. Negotiable Instruments Act:—In a recent case Supreme Court has held that where the cheque amount with interest and cost as assessed by the Court is paid by a specified date, the Court is entitled to close the proceedings in exercise of its powers under Section 143 of the Act read with Section 258 Cr.P.C. That case is

(a) M/s. Meters and Instruments Pvt. Ltd. & Anrvs. Kanchan Mehta

(b) K.M. Ibrahim v.K.P. Mohammad and other

(d) M.P. State Legal Service Authority v. Prateek Jain.

General Knowledge (Total-20 Questions) (Qs. No. 111 -130)

111. An artificial satellite stays in the orbit around the earth because—

(a) The earth's gravity does not attract the satellite due to great distance

(b) The earth's attraction produces the necessary centripetal force

(d) Engine in the satellite constantly applies an upward force to balance its weight.

112. Venus is considered as “Earth’s Twin” because:

(a) Its period of revolution is same as that of earth

(b) It has abundant amount of water

(d) It completes one rotation on its axis in 24 hours.

113. Which among the following city of Madhya Pradesh is not included in the Smart City Project?

(a) Sagar (b) Satna

114. Laxmibai National Institute of Physical Education is situated in

(a) Narsinghpur (b) Bhopal

115. AB Blood group is also known as Universal Acceptor group because

(a) It consists both Antibodies

(b) In consists neither antigen nor Antibody

(d) It does not consists Both Antibodies.

116. Bhopal Gas Tragedy occurred on—

(a) 3rd Dec 1974 (b) 3rd Dec 1984

117. Pangong Tso (Lake) is Situated in which state?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim.

118. Davis Cup is related to which sport?

(a) Hockey (b) Tennis

119. How many times Late Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister of India?

(a) 2 (b) 3

120. Who was runner-up of FIFA world cup 2018?

(a) France (b) Belgium

121. If you want to see Crocodiles in their natural habitat then in which one place is best to visit ?

(a) Pulicat Lake (b) Chambal River

122. In which District of Madhya Pradesh PATALKOT is located?

(a) Hoshangabad (b) Chhindwara

123. Which Country is not a permanent member of United Nations Security Council?

(a) U.S.A. (b) Russia

124. Which of the following Countries is not in the continent of Asia?

(a) Indonesia (b) Japan

125. Who has become the oldest Indian woman to complete an Ironman Triathlon?

(a) Anu Vaidyanathan

(b) Deepa Malik

(d) Anju Khosla.

126. In March 1939, Indian National Congress met at annual session at “Tripuri” near—

(a) Aizawl (b) Kohima

127. “Kalidas Award” of M.P. Govt, is not awarded in the field of—

(a) Classical Dance

(b) Theatre and Visual art

(d) Classical Music.

128. Who has been the first person who delivered his speech in Hindi in U.N.O,

(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(b) Atal Bihari Bajpayee

(d) Swami Vivekananda.

129. Who constructed the Sanchi Stupa?

(a) Gautam Buddha

(b) Mahavira

(d) Chandragupta.

130. Who was/were awarded the Bharat Ratna 2015?

(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(b) Madan Mohan Malviya

(d) None of these.

Computer Knowledge (Total-10 Questions) (Qs. No. 131-140)

131. Which of the following is not an operating system

(a) UNIX (b) LINUX.

132. One Petabyte is equal to

(a) 1024 Terabyte (b) 1024 Gigabyte

133. Which of the following devices cannot be shared on a computer network?

(a) Hard Drive (b) Keyboard

134. In computers and digital technology 1 GB is:

(a) 1024 MB (b) 1024 KB

135. Which of the following methods cannot be used for Data Transfer between two computers?

(a) Hi-Fi (b) Wi-Fi

136. TFT stands for?

(a) Thin Film Transistor

(b) Tele-Fail-Thin

(d) Tax Full Total.

137. What is called the procedure for transfer of system file to Memory RAM in Computer?

(a) Processing

(b) Formatting

(d) Booting.

138. Which is not a secondary storage device ?

(a) CD (b) RAM

139. Full form of URL is—

(a) Uniform resource Locator

(b) Uniform resource Link

(d) Uniform resource Lab.

140. IC chips used in computers are made of-

(a) Silicon (b) Chromium

English Knowledge (Total-10 Questions) (Qs. No. 141-150)

141. I Shall Go and Down.

(a) lied (b) lie

142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to “CORDIAL”

(a) Fast (b) Heartfelt

143. Microscopes make small things appear larger than

(a) really are

(b) are really

(d) they really are

144 Find the correct spelt word?

(a) Assasination

(b) Assiriashton

(d) Assassination.

145. Fill in the blank with correct proposition -1 have no sympathy this man.

(a) to (b) for

146. Word expresses the opposite meaning Of “SUSCEPTIBLE”

(a) Incredible

(b) Immune

(d) Unpredictable.

147. Allowance due to a wife from husband on separation. ,

(a) Patrimony

(b) Antimony

(d) Alimony.

148. Find out the correct Antonym for the word ‘Veracity’

(a) Falsehood

(b) Heinous

(d) Composed.

149 .......the cover of darkness, the enemy crept.. ....

(a) In, over

(b) In, along

(d) through, upon.

150. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning as the word “FORBID”

(a) Forgive (b) Allow

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