Uttarakhand P.C.S. Civil Judge (Pre) Exam., 2008

Part-I

General Knowledge

1. How many judges of Supreme Court of India by now have been removed from their office before expiry of their normal term through impeachment?

(A) one (B) two

2. In which one of the lists of Constitution of India the subject of Preventive detention lies?

(A) Union list

(B) State list

(D) None of the above

3. World Environmental Day is celebrated on

(A) 5th June (B) 10th June

4. Gandhi International Peace Award 2006 was given to

(A) Kiran Desai (B) Ruth Manorama

5. How many members are nominated in Rajya Sabha under Indian Constitution?

(A) 1 (B) 2

6. Who is the Head of the state under the Constitution of India?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) All the above

7. A law for preventive detention may be enacted

(A) exclusively by Parliament

(B) exclusively by state legislature

(D) only by means of ordinance promulgated by the President

8. Who appoints the officers and employees of the High Court?

(A) Chief Justice of High Court

(B) Governor of the concerned state

(D) Registrar of High Court

9. Which one of the following scholars consider International law as true law?

(A) Grotius (B) Hobbes

10. Which of the following is not a principal organ of United Nations Organisation?

(A) Trusteeship Council

(B) Economic and social council

(D) Human Rights Commission

11. Which one of the following can enforce the judgement of International Court of Justice?

(A) General Assembly on the recommendations of Security Council

(B) Secretary General

(D) None of the above

12. The International Criminal Court is located at

(A) Geneva (B) Hague

13. The name of first woman judge of International Court of Justice is

(A) Rosalyn Higgins

(B) Rosa E. Otunbayeva

(D) Sadak of gata

14. Id which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that strike by lawyers is illegal and unethical?

(A) M.C.Mehta Vs. Union of India

(B) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India

(D) s Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India

15. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court directed the Government to implement the law against female foeticide?

(A) Madhu Kishwaf Vs. State of Bihar

(B) CEHAT Vs. Union of India

(D) None of the above

16. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has observed sexual harassment as a violation of human rights?

(A) Vishakha Vs. State of Rajasthan

(B) Kapila Hingurani Vs. State of Bihar

(D) Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begam

17. The case of Roman Catholic Priest, John Vallanmattbn Vs. Union of India relates to

(A) enactment of uniform civil code

(B) enactment of uniform Hindu code

(D) none of the above

18. The Chief Justice of India may appoint an adhoc judge in the Supreme Court from amongst

(A) retired judges of Supreme Court

(B) serving judges of the High Court

(D) retired judge of a High Court

19. Copy right subsists after the death of an author for

(A) 50 years (B) 60 years

20. In which one of the following states recently the first regular quasi judicial mobile court has been inaugurated?

(A) Uttrakhand

(B) Haryana

(D) Maharashtra

21. By which of the following Constitutional Amendments Aft 21-A on right to education has been added in the Constitution?

(A) 85th Amendment

(B) 86th Amendment

(D) 88th Amendment

22. Who among the following was the chairman of sixth pay commission?

(A) Justice Rathnaval Pandian

(B) Justice A.S. Anand

(D) Justice A.K. Majumdar

23. In which one of the following sections the term “Information" has been defined in the Right to Information Act, 2005?

(A) Sec 2(g)

(B) Sec2(A)(i)

(D) Sec 2(f)

24. Which one of the following cases relate to anti-strike verdict?’

(A) T.K. Rangrajan Vs. Govt, of Tamil Nadu AIR 2003 SC

(B) Shyam Narayan Vs. Union of India AIR 2003 M.P.

(D) M.K.UsmanVs. C.S. Santhe AIR 2003 Kerala

25. In the history of India, who among the following is famous for the policy of market control?

(A) Balban

(B) Akbar

(D) Allauddin Khilji

26. Who among the following got the Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2006?

(A) Parimarjan Negi

(B) Jeev Milkha 1

(D) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

27. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution at present?

(A) 9 (B) 10

28. Which one of the following is not listed Fact source of International Law in the statdfe-’of International Court of Justice?

(A) Treaties

(B) Custom

(D) None of the above ~

29. Members of International Court of Justice are elected for a period of

(A) 3 years (B) 5 years

30. Who amongst the following is not appointed - by the President?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Advocate General

(El) Chief Election Commissioner

31. In which of the following cases the whole hearing was conducted through video conferencing first time in India?

(A) Abdul Kareem Mulla 2006

(B) Abdul Kareem Telgi 2006

(D) Telephone Tapping case 2006

32. In India power to declare any area as » ‘scheduled area’ belongs to

(A) Parliament

(B) Assembly of the State

(D) Election Commissioner

33. On which of the following dates ‘Law Day’ is celebrated?

(A) 8th September (B) 28th October

34. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates to untouchability?

(A) Art. 17 (B) Art. 18

35. National Human Rights Commission in India was established on

(A) 26th January, 1993

(B) 15th March, 1993

(D) 27th September, 1993

36. Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of

(A) 30 days' (B) 60 days

37. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was addpted by the General Assembly on

(A) January 3,1966

(B) October 13,1966

(D) December 16,1966

38. Phukan Commission is related to

(A) Reservations for minorities

(B) Tehelka defence scandal

(D) Reforms in civil Services

39. In 2005, the Supreme Court struck down the Illegal Migration (Determination by Tribunal) Act of 1983 applicable to the state of

(A) Assam (B) West Bengal

40. Point out the correct answer. “Full faith and credit” clause 'ollie Constitution does not apply to

(A) Public Records

(B) Judicial proceedings

(D) Public acts

41. The concept of Judicial Review in India has been taken from the Constitution of

(A) Britain (B) France

42. A political party is recognised as National or Regional by the

(A) State Government

(B) Central Government

(D) Election Commissioner of India

43. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The customary International law of treaties was codified in the

(A) Viena Convention, 1980

(B) Statute of International Court of Justice

(D) Viena declaration, 1993

44. VAT is related to

(A) Banking service

(B$ Business Tax System

(D) None of the above

45. The name of first woman chief justice of High Court is India is

(A) Leila Seth (B) Leila Mukherjee

46. Which one of the following is related to SEBI?

(A) Banking

(B) Share Market

(D) Banking and Insurance

47. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes?

(A) Micro wave (B) Electric wave

48. Which one of the following properties is not liable to be attached and sold in execution of decree?

(A) Government Securities

(B) Promisory notes

(D) Bonds

49. The transfer of the company’s Government to, British Crown was done on

(A) 1st October, 1857

(B) 1st October, 1858

(D) 1st October, 1860

50. Which one of the following High Courts have the jurisdiction over largest number of states in India?

(A) Calcutta High Court

(B) Bombay High Court

(D) Madras High Court

Part-II

Law

Indian Evidence Qs. 51 to 60

51. In Evidence Act the facts of which judicial notice is to be taken are stated in

(A) Section 55

(B) Section 56

(D) Section 58

52. The presumption of continuance of life is contained in

(A) Section 106 of the Evidence Act

(B) Section 107 of the Evidence Act

(D) Section 109 of the Evidence Act

53. Point out the correct statement:

(A) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil and criminal matters.

(B) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in criminal matters.

(D) All the above statements are incorrect.

54. Under section 122 of the Evidence Act, 1872 privilege is available to

(A) professionals

(B) magistrates

(D) judges

55. Under Indian Evidence Act a copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying machine is

(A) primary evidence

(B) oral evidence

(D) any of the above

56. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides exception to the rule “hearsay evidence is not admissible”:

(A) Section 29 (B) Section 30

57. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to

(A) administrative tribunal's proceedings:

(B) arbitrator's proceedings

(D) none of the above

58. Under Indian Evidence Act the dying declaration is not admissible if

(A) it relates to cause of action

(B) it relates to any transaction of death

(D) none of the above

59. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the doctrine of ‘Res gestae’ has been dealt with

(A) Section 5

(B) Section 6

(D) None of the above

60. Under which one of the following sections of the Evidence Act the previous conviction of a person is relevant

(A) explanation I to Section 14

(B) explanation II to Section 14

(D) explanation IV to Section 14

C.P.C. Qs. 61 to 73

61. Provisions relating to set off and counter claims under civil procedure code,(1973 are contained in

(A) Order VI (B) Order VII

62. All orders and notices served on or given to any person under the provisions of civil procedure code shall be in writing has been provided under

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 142

63. Which one of the following sections of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the essence of this code that “Objections as to local or pecuniary jurisdiction shall be raised at the first opportunity

(A) Section 21 (B) Section 22

64. Under which one of the following provisions of C.P.C. the principle of" constructive resjudicata has been explained:

(A) Section 11 explanation I

(B) Section 11 explanation III

(D) Section 11 explanation VII

65. Point out the correct Answer: Under Civil Procedure Code where any party dies after conclusion and before pronouncement of judgement

(A) The suit shall be abated

(B) The suit shall not be abated y

(D) It will be deemed that judgement has been pronounced after death of the party

66. Under C.P.C. where a person who is a necessary party to a suit has not been joined as a party, it is a case of

(A) misjoinder

(B) non-joinder

(D) none of the above

67. Under C.P.C when the service of summons to the defendant is not made to him due to his absence within reasonable time, summons can be served to the

(A) servant of the defendant

(B) adult son of the defendant

(D) minor of the defendant

68. Under section 96 of the C.P.C. an appeal can lie against the

(A) preliminary decree

(B) original decree

(D) none of the above

69. Under which one of the following “rejection of plaint” has been mentioned in C.P.C.

(A) Order VII Rule 11

(B) Order VI Rule 13

(D) Order VIII Rule 4

70. Which one of the following provisions of C.P.C. related to “Affidavits”?

(A) Order 17 (B) Order 19

71. Under which one of the following provisions of C.P.C, the collector may be appointed as a ‘Receiver’

(A) ' Order 40 Rule 1

(B) Order 40 Rule 2

(D) Order 40 Rule 5

72. Provisions of sec. 80 bf the Civil Procedure Code are

(A) mandatory

(B) directory

(D) none of the above

73. How much time is required for serving a notice under sec. 80 of the Civil Procedure Code?

(A) three months

(B) two months

(C), one month

(D) four months

Cr.P.C. Qs. 74 to 85

74. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 which one of the following courts can try a murder case:

(A) Magistrate 1st class

(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(D) Any of the above court

75. Under Cr.P.C no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only, after expiry of period of

(A) two months (B) three months

76. Under Cr.P.C. provisions relating to prosecution of public servant is given under

(A) Section 196 (B) Section 1'97

77. What is the time' limit under sec. 468 of the Cr. P.C. for taking cognizance in a case of defamation?

(a) six months (B) one year

78. How much punishment may be provided to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial under Cr.P.C.?

(A) not exceeding two years

(B) not exceeding one year

(D) not exceeding three months

79. Under which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C., police can arrest an accused without warrant?

(A) Sections 43 (B) Section40

80. Under Cr.P.C. there shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of class imposes only sentence of fine not exceeding

(A) one hundred rupees

(B) two hundred rupees

(D) five hundred rupees

81. A refusal to answer questions put to a' witness under Sec. 161 of the Cr.P.C. is an offence under ,

(A) Section 176 of I.P.C

(B) Section 179 of I.P.C

(D) None of the above

82. According to the Cr.P.C. every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence shall be signed by

(A) the person giving it

(B) the officer incharge of a police station

(D) the concerned magistrate

83. Who may record confessional statement under Section 164 of the Cr.P.C.?

(A) Police officer

(B) Executive Magistrate

(D) Any Judicial Magistrate

84. Under which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C. it is mandatory for the officer to produce the person arrested before a Magistrate within/24 hours of the arrest

(A) Section 57 (B) Section 68

85. Under Cr.P.C. an accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than

(A) 7 days at one time

(B) 15 days at one time

(D) 30 days at one time

T.P.A. Qs. 86 to 110

86. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) A share in Partnership

(B) A claim for return of earnest-money

(D) A copyright

87. Who is not competent to transfer his propertv under, transfer of Property Act; 1882?

(A) Blind (B) Lamb

C) Minor (D) Hermit

88. Which one of the following sections of Transfer or Property Act 1882 deals with “Rule Against Perpetuity”?

(A) Section 13 (B) Section 14

89. Which one of the following-sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines charge?

(A) Section 100

(B) Section 95

(D) Section 92

90. Section 53 A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with

(A) doctrine of frustration.

(B) doctrine of lis pendence

(D) doctrine of part performance

91. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines “universal donee”?

(A) Section 122 (B) Section 123

92. Which one of the following is not transfer by an act of parties under Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Succession (B) Sale

93. Point out the correct answer Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(A) the salary of a pubic officer can be transferred

(B) the salary of a public officer cannot be transferred

(D) none of the above

94. The term ‘sale’ in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has been defined under

(A) Section 53 (B) Section 54

95. Which one of the following provisions of Transfer of Property Act, 1)382 provides the statutory duties of a mortgagee in possession?

(A) Section 76 (B) Section 77

96. The provisions of Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act) 1882 were substituted by the Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act, 2002 and this provision came into force with effect from

(A) December 31,2002

(B) July 1, 2002

(D) November 2,2002

97. Condition restraining alienation of property is given under

(A) Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act.

(B) Section 10 of the Transfer of Property Act.

(D) Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act.

98. Point out the correct answer: ‘A’ sells his agricultural land to ‘B’ with a condition that B can cultivate only wheat but cannot grow the crops of paddy:

(A) The transfer is void

(B) The transfer is valid

(D) Both (B) and (C) above

99. ‘Lease’ under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relates to

(A) a lease of immovable property

(B) a lease of movable property

(D) does not relate to any special property

100. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act is concerned with the doctrine of “marshalling”

(A) Section 55

(B) Section 56

(D) None of the above

101. Which of the following is not a movable property within the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) standing timber

(B) fruit bearing trees

(D) growing crops

102. Doctrine of subrogation applies to

(A) sale (B) mortgage

103. Onerous gift under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has been defined under

(A) Section 129 (B) Section 128

104. In case of a gift, if donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the gift is

(A) valid (B) void

105. The doctrine “nemo dat quod non habet” under the Transfer of Property Act is applied to

(A) Section 41, Section 42, Section 43 and Section 44

(B) Section 53 and 54

(D) None of the above

106. Which of the following is not an actionable claim under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) Right to claim money payable under Life Insurance act

(B) Right to claim decree sum

(D) Right to claim arrears of maintenance

107. The doctrine of part performance’ under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to

(A) oral contracts

(B) standing timber

(D) all the above

108. Which one of the following transfers can be made orally?

(A) lease from year to year

(B) surrender of lease

(D) simple mortgage

109. When does an unborn person acquire vested Interest on transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) On attaining majority

(B) On attaining 21 years of age

(D) As soon as he is born

110. A lease of immovable property from month to month is terminable, on the part of lessor or lessee by

(A) one month notice

(B) three months notice

(D) forty five days notice

111. Which one of the following is not -essential for commission of an offence?

(A) intention (B) motive

112. ‘Wrongful gain’ and ‘wrongful loss’ have been defined under Indian Penal Code, 1860 in

(A) Section 22 (B) Section 23

113. In which one of the following cases the | Supreme Court of India has held that wife cannot be charged for harbouring her husband?

(A) State Vs. Ratan Singh

(B) State of Tamil Nadu Vs. Nalini

(D) Sardara Singh Vs. State

114. Which provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deal with the ‘Solitary confinement and ‘limits on solitary confinement’?

(A) Section 68 and Section 69

(B) Section 59 and Section 60

(D) Section, 71 and Section 72

115. Which one of the following sections of .the Indian Penal Code, 1860 provides that ‘Nothing is an offence which is done by a judge while acting judicially’?

(A) Section 75 (B) Section 76

116. Which one of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on Macnaughten’s Rule?

(A) Section 83 (B) Section 84

117. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 provides that right of private defence of body extends to causing harm short of death?

(A) Section 99 (B) Section 100

118. In which one of the following cases difference between common intention and similar intention was discussed by the Privy council?

(A) Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor

(B) Barendra Kumar Ghose Vs. Emperor

(D) In all the above

119. In which of the following cases husband and wife both were held guilty of criminal conspiracy

(A) Tej Khan Vs. State of M.P.

(B) Kuldeep Singh Vs; State of Rajasthan

(D) Pradumma Vs. State

126. Punishment for being a member of unlawful assembly under Indian Penal Code has been provided under

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 142

121. ‘Dowry death’ under Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been put under the chapter

(A) offences against human body

(B) offences against marriage

(D) offences against public nuisance

122. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines '‘Thug”?

(A) Section 307 (B) Section 310

123. Which one of the following is the date of enforcement of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) January 1,1860 (B) July 1,1860

124. Minimum number of offenders 'for the commission of robbery under Iridian Penal Code, 1860 must be

(A) one person (B) two persons

125. Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is.

(A) a declaratory provision

(B) creates a distinct offence

(D) All the above

126. Which one of the following elements is not essential for the applications of Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) common intention

(B) commission of an offence

(D) offence should be committed in furtherance of common intention

127. Basudev Vs. State of Pepsu AIR 1^56 S.C. is a leading case on

(A) Infancy

(B) Insanity

(D) All the above

128. A intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil without her consent to make her afraid of, is liable for

(A) assault (B) criminal force

129. Punishment for attempt to commit culpable homicide has been provided in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under

(A) 303 (B) 305

130. ‘A’ instigates ,‘B’ to burn the house of Z. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of the property there. Whether A is guilty of?

(A) abetting of theft

(B) abetting of burning of house

(D) None of the above

131. cx’ by putting ‘z’ into fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces ‘z’ to sign on a blank paper and deliver it to ‘z’. ‘z’ signs and delivers the paper to ‘x’. Here ‘x’ has committed

(A) no offence (B) robbery

132. Death caused by rash and negligent act Is covered in Indian Penal Code under

(A) Section 304

(B) Section 304 A

(D) Section 301

133. Which of the following is not an ingredient of theft?

(A) dishonest intention

(B) removal from possession

(D) without consent of the person in possession

134. ‘A’ has sexual intercourse with a widow with her consent. ‘A’ is guilty of

(A) rape

(B) adultery

(D) no offence

135. Match list -I (cases) with Iist—11 (subjects) and select correct answer using code given below

List-I List-II

(cases) (subject)

1. Kehar Singh (i) Right of Vs. Delhi Private defence Administration

2. Nawab Ali Vs. (ii) Criminal State of U.P. Conspiracy

3. Vishwanath Vs. (iii) Common State of U.P. , intention

4. Mahboob Shah Vs. (iv) Common object King Emperor

(v) Mistake of fact

Code:

1 2 3 4

(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(B) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Muslim Law Qs. 136 to 160

136. Which one of the following was appointed as Khalifa after the death of Mohammad Sahib, the Prophet

(A) Abu Hanifa (B) Ummar

137. If a muslim husband has falsely charged his wife with adultery, the process of retract is called

(A) Zihar

(B) li'an

(D) None of the above

138. The Dissolutions of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 is based on the following school of Muslim Law:

(A) Hanafi school (B) Shafi school

139. Under Muslim Law, a divorce by Khula is a divorce with the consent and at the instance of

(A) husband

(B) wife

(D) husband and wife

140. 'Point out the incorrect answer: legal effects of divorce are

(A) Cohabitation becomes illegal

(B) The wife is required to observe Iddat

{D) Right to contract other marriage is accrued.

141. Sunni Muslims consider “Muta Marriage” as

(A) void (B) voidable

142.lf a sunni muslim marry with a kitabiya girl, the marriage is

(A) valid (B) invalid

143. Under Muslim law, a Muslim can make a Will of his property upto the extent of

(A) one fourth of the property

(B) one third of the property

(D) the entire property

144. In Muslim Law marriage contracted without witness is

(A) void (B) valid

145. Under Muslim Law a Muslim can make gift of his property upto the extent of

(A) only 1/4 of his property

(B) only 1 /3 of his property

(D) the entire property

146. Which one oi the following statements regarding gift in Muslim law is correct?

(A) Gift can be made orally only

(B) Gift can be made only in writing

(D) None is correct

147. The most proper divorce is

(A) Hasan Talak

(B) AhsanTalak

(D) None of the above

148. When in a muslim marriage ‘Mehr’ is unspecified, the wife is entitled to get

(A) Mehr-i-Muajjal

(B) Mehr-i- Muwajjal

(D) All of the above

149. A1 muslim is prohibited to have two wives at a time, if these two wives are related to each other by

(A) consanguinity (B) affinity

150. In Muslim Law when husband and wife both desire separation, the transaction is known as

(A) Mubaraat

(B) Talak-in-bain

(D) None of the above

151. A Muslim woman guilty of illicit relationship is punishable for

(A) Izl

(B) Zina

(D) None of the above

152. Muslim Jurisprudence is known as

(A) Fiqh (B) Qiyas

153. Widow’s right of retention for non-payment of her dower is her

(A) personal right

(b) religious right

(D) right given under dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939

154. Which is not a place of public worship?

(A) Mosque

(B) Imambara

(D) None of the above

155. Which one of the following gifts is not void under Muslim law?

(A) A gift by a pardanashin lady

(B) A. gift to an unborn person

(0) A gift to a dead person

(D) All of the above

156. The provisions of the dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 give right of Judicial divorce to

(A) husband only

(B) wife only

(D) none of the above

157. Which of the following is not a primary source of Muslim Law?

(A) Quran (B) UrforTaamul

158. ‘Dower ’is

(A) a mark of respect to the wife

(B) a consideration to the marriage

(D) all of the above

159. According to Shia law to execute the marriage presence of witness is

(A) not necessary

(B) necessary

(D) required two male witnesses

160. An acknowledgement with regard to children can be for

(A) son

(B) daughter

(D) both son and daughter

Hindu Law Qs. 161 to 185

161. Under which one of the following sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ‘sapinda relationship’ has been defined?

(A) Section 3 (B) Section 5

162. A petition for divorce with mutual consent, under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be filed' after

(A) 3 years (B) 2 years

163. Who amongst the following defined Hindu Law as “Hindu Law is law of Smritis”?

(A) Derret

(B) Salmond

(E) ) K.P. Rangaswami

164. In which of the following cases it was held that matrimonial rights are not violative of Art. 14 and Art. 21 of the Constitution?

(A) T. Saritha Vs. B. Subiya

(B) Harjinder Vs. Harvinder

(D) Swaraj Vs. K.M. Garg

165. Under which one of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a Hindu woman is empowered to adopt?

(A) Section 3

(B) Section 6

(D) Section 8

166. Can a Hindu marry second time on the basis of written consent of his first wife?

(A) yes

(B) no

(D) yes, if wife does not give birth to any child in last 10 years?

167. Under which one of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu has a right to alienate his interest in Mitakshara coparcenary by will

(A) Section 6

(B) Section 30

(D) None of the above

168. Where a Hindu male dies intestate leaving behind an ascendant agnate, a descendant agnate and a collateral agnate, their order of succession on preference basis shall be

(A) Descendant, Collateral, Ascendant

(B) Descendant, Ascendant, Collateral

(D) Ascendant, Collateral, Descendant

169. The. case of Hanuman Prasad Vs; Mst. Baboee is related to .

(A) adoption (B) marriage

170. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Marriage Act provides Restitution of Conjugal rights?

(A) Section 9 (B) Section 10

171. The separate property of a Hindu male dying intestate is succeeded by

(A) father (B) mother

172. Karta of Joint Hindu Family is

(A) father

(B) mother

(D) grandmother's mother (great grand mother)

173. A ‘Joint Hindu family does not include

(A) married son

(B) married daughter

(D) adopted daughter

174. A Hindu may be

(A) Buddhist (B) Jaini

175. If a Hindu mhle of 30 years of age adopts a female child of 15 years of age, this adoption is .

(A) valid (B) void

176. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was tested in

(A) Saroj Rani Vs. Sudarshan AIR 1984 S.C.

(B) Shakuntla Bai Vs. Kulkarni AIR 1989 S.C.

(D) Nanda Vs. Bina Nanda AIR 1988 S.C.

177. Which one of the following sections of Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes provisions for ‘notional partition’?

(A) Section 14 (B) Section 10

178. Sapinda relationship extends to

(A) fourth generation through mother

(B) three generation through mother

(D) none of the above

179. A, groom of 25 years marries a bride of 15 . years of age under Hindu Law, the marriage is

(A) illegal

(B) void

(D) valid but punishable

180. In which of the following cases it was first time held that “Hindu is by birth and can also be made”?

(A) Morarjee Vs. Administrator General of Chennai

(B) Ibrahim Vs. Ibrahim

(D) Parvati Vs. Jagdish

181. Who among the following is eligible to adopt a son under Hindu Law?

(A) who has no son surviving

(B) who has one natural born son living

(D) whose son has separated from him after partition

182. A Hindu girl wishes to marry her mother’s sister’s adopted Hindu son who happens to be her childhood friend since the preadoption days. Such a marriage under,, Hindu Law will be

(A) valid

(B) void

(D) none of the above

183. Under Hindu Law an unmarried woman adopts a child, later on she marries a man. This man shall be deemed to be the

(A) natural father of her child

(B) adopted father of her child

(D) none of the above _

184. A Hindu who has adopted a son is subsequently blessed with natural born twins, a boy and a girl. Now he wishes to give the adopted son to his friend in adoption. The Hindu

(A) cannot give this child into adoption

(B) can give this child into adoption

(D) can move the court for revocation of earlier adoption

185. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 confers upon a Hindu woman

(A) a right to claim partition

(B) a right to ownership as coparcener

(D) all the above

Evidence Qs. 186 to 200

186. The burden of proof generally lies on

(A) prosecution

(B) accused

(D) on both

187. Under which one of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act contents dT electronic records may be proved?

(A) Section 65 A

(B) Section 65 B

(D) Section 67

188. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act defines admission?

(A) Section 16 (B) Section 17

189. A person shall be deemed to be dead if he remained unheard for

(A) 5 years (B) 7 years

190. Under Indian Evidence Act, the evidence given by a dumb witness will be regarded as

(A) written evidence

(B) documentary evidence

(D) all the above

191. Under which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act previous good character is relevant in criminal cases

(A) Section 18 (B) Section 26

192. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides the provision regarding plea of Alibi’

(A) Section 7 (B) Section 6

193. “Leading .question? has been defined in Indian Evidence Act under

(A) Section 41 (B) Section 121

194. Public documents under Indian Evidence Act have been stated under

(A) Section 72 (B) Section 74

195. Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act applies to

(A) testamentary documents

(B) non testamentary documents

(D) none of the above

196. Sec. 112 of the Indian Evidence Act applies f-' when there is a dispute regarding

(A) maternity of child

(B) paternity of child

(D) either (A) or (B)

197. In Evidence Act, leading questions can be asked during

(A) cross examination

(B) examination in chief

(D) all the above

198. A Voluntary confession is admissible if evidence

(A) when made to a police officer

(B) when made to Magistrate of competent jurisdiction

(D) when made to a police officer who kept him in his custody

199. Maxim ‘omnia praesumuntur rite esse aeta’ means

(A) alt facts are presumed to be rightly done

(B) all facts are presumed to be not rightly , done

(D) all acts are presumed to be not wrongly done

200. Contents of a documents under Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(A) can be proved by oral evidence

(B) cannot be proved by oral evidence

(D) can only be proved by oral evidence under the orders of the court

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