1. ‘A’ shoots ‘Z’ with intention of killing him ‘Z’ dies in consequence. ‘A’ is liable for
(1) Murder
(2) Culpable homicide
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
2. A imports into India, or exports therefrom, any counter feit coin, knowing, the same to be counter feit is, liable under section Of l.P.C.
(1) 234 (2) 235
(3) 236 (4) 237
3. Intentional omission to give information, of offence by a person legally bound to inform is dealt under section
(1) 202 (2) 203
(3) 204 (4) 205
4. The word “public servant” denotes: A person falling under
(1) A commissioned officer in the military
(2) Every judge empowered by Law to do any adjudicatory functions
(3) Every officer of court of justice
(4) All the above
5. Section 29A of I.P.C. is related to
(1) Documents
(2) Valuable Security
(3) Electronic record
(4) None of the above
6. ‘A’ a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officers in conformity with the commands of the Law. A has committed no offence, his defence comes under section of l.P.C.
(1) Section 76 (2) Section 77
(3) Section 78 (4) Section 79
7. When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death.
(1) Robbery
(2) House breaking by night
(3) Mischief by fire committed on any building used for human dwelling.
(4) All the above
8. Whoever, wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with.
(1) Imprisonment up to 14 years with fine.
(2) Death or imprisonment of life with fine.
(3) Imprisonment up to 10 years with fine.
(4) Imprisonment up to 7 year with fine.
9. Which kind of hurt is not a grievous hurt.
(1) Emasculation
(2) Privation of any member or joint
(3) Disfiguration of the head or face.
(4) Fracture or dislocation of tooth.
10. ‘A’ shakes his fist at Z, Intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that ‘A’ is about to Strike Z, A has
(1) Commilted force
(2) Commilted Assault
(3) Commilted gave provacation
(4) None of the above
11. A lets a house to B at yearly rent of Rs. 12,000/ -. The rent for the whole of the years 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. A sues B In 2018 only for the rent due for the year 2016. Whether A can after wards sue for the rent due for the year of 2015 and 2017?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) If he shows good cause
(4) None of the above
12. Section 10 of the civil procedure code Is related to
(1) Res-judicata
(2) Res-subjudice
(3) Stay of suit
(4) None of the above
13. Section 96 of civil procedure code applies to appeal from
(1) Against injunction order
(2) Original Decree
(3) Restoration order under-ordef 9 rule 13
(4) None of the above
14. Where a person commits a public nuisance
(1) He is liable to criminal prosecution under I.P.C.
(2) Suit may be filed against him under section 91 of civil procedure code
(3) Suit for damages may be filed against him
(4) All the above
15. Time limit for filing written statement is 30 days which may be extended up to 90 days shall be counted from.
(1) Date of filing of the suit.
(2) Date of first hearing fixed by the court.
(3) Date of service of summon on the defendant.
(4) None of the above
16. Principle of Res-judicata does not apply to
(1) Suits
(2) Execution of decree
(3) Arbitration proceeding
(4) All the above
17. On which ground plaint can not be rejected?
(1) Where it does not disclose cause of Action.
(2) Plaint is filed in such court which does not have jurisdiction to try the suit.
(3) Where suit appears to be barred by Law.
(4) Where plaint is not filed in duplicate.
18. Which section is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court?
(1) Section 6 (2) Section 10
(3) Section 15 (4) None of the above
19. Order 32 of the code of civil procedure is related to?
(1) Suit by or against minors and persons of unsound mind.
(2) Suit by or against trustees executors and administrators.
(3) Suit related to matters concerning family.
(4) None of the above
20. If a right of a Liability Is.created by a statue, which of the following situation may arise.
(1) The statute may create a specific forum for its enforcement.
(2) If no machinery is provided for enforcement civil court can entertain the suit.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
21. When police may arrest without warrant.
(1) Who commits, in the presence of police officer a cognizable offence.
(2) Who has been proclaimed as an offender by state government.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
22. Under which section of Cr.P.C. Assistant Public prosecutor is appointed by the Government.
(1) Section 24 (2) Section 25
(3) Section 26 (4) Section 29
23. Who is competent to issue a conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 133 of Cr.P.C.
(1) District Magistrate
(2) Sub-Divisional Magistrate
(3) Executive Magistrate
(4) All the above
24. Cognizence under section 498A of I.P.C. can be taken.
(1) Upon police report
(2) Upon complaint of victim
(3) Upon complaint of parent,brother and sister of victim
(4) All the above
25. Which of the following statements are correct.
(1) Accused person is not a competent witness.
(2) Accused can be punished if he gives false answer in examination Section 313 Cr.P.C.
(3) Conviction can be based upon evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly recorded by another magistrate.
(4) Compounding of offence under section 320(8) Cr.P.C. does not have effect of acquittal.
26. Chief judicial magistrate may pass sentence?
(1) Upto death
(2) Up to life imprisonment
(3) Upto 10 years imprisonment
(4) Upto seven years imprisonment .
27. When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence he may apply for anticipatory bail under
(1) Section 436 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 437 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 438 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 449 Cr.P.C.
28. Who is not competent to pass an order under section 106 Cr.P.C. to take security for keeping the peace on conviction.
(1) Judicial magistrate first class.
(2) Additional Session Judge.
(3) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(4) Executive Magistrate
29. Power of court to convert summons case in to warrant case is provided under
(1) Section 302 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 259 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 301 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 322 Cr.P.C.
30. The provision to tender pardon to an accomplice is given in
(1) Section 256 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 306 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 280 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 289 Cr.P.C.
31. *A’ is tried for murder of ‘B’ intentionally beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following facts are in issue.
(1) A's beating 'B' with club.
(2) A's causing B's death by such beating
(3) A's intention to cause B's death
(4) All the above
32. A desires, a court to give judgement that he Is entitled to certain land In the possession of B on basis of certain facts, which ‘B’ denies to be true under section 101 of evidence Act
(1) A can not prove the existence of those facts
(2) A need not prove the existence of those facts
(3) A must prove the existence of those facts
(4) None of the above
33. Relevant facts to consider a statement under section 32 of Evidence Act, are
(1) When if relates to cause of death.
(2) When it relates to existence of relationship.
(3) When it is made in will or in deed relating to family affair.
(4) All the above.
34. Essential requirement for application of Section 27 of Evidence Act are
(1) person giving information must be an accused of any offence.
(2) The person must be in police custody.
(3) The person may or may not be in police custody.
(4) (1) and (2) both
35. When court Is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is
(1) not admissible in Evidence
(2) is relevant
(3) not relevant
(4) none of the above
36. When any fact is especially with in the knowledge of accused, the burden of proving that fact is upon.
(1) Accused
(2) Prosecution
(3) Either accused or prosecution
(4) None of the above
37. Husband and wife are competent witness against each other in
(1) In civil and criminal cases
(2) Only in civil cases
(3) Only in criminal cases
(4) Only under investigation
38. Presumption as to dowry death Is provided in of Evidence Act.
(1) Section 113A (2) Section 113B
(3) Section U4A (4) Section 111A
39. Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All 385 case Law Is related to
(1) Conduct (2) Consequences
(3) Motive (4) Preparation
40. Whether following document are public documents.
(1) Relating to acts or orders of acts of the sovereign authority
(2) Public record kept in state of private documents
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
41. A owes B Rs. 1,000/- but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs. 500/- on account of debt.
(1) This is not a contract
(2) This is a contract
(3) Either (1) or (2)
(4) None of these
42. A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of bargain though neither party was aware of the fact.
(1) This agreement is void.
(2) This agreement is valid for compensation.
(3) Either (1) or (2)
(4) None of these
43. A employs B to beat C and agree to Indemnify him against all consequences of the Act. B thereupon beats C and pays damages to C for so doing.
(1) A is liable to indemnify B for these damages
(2) A is partially liable to indemnify to those damages
(3) A is not liable to indemnify B for these damages
(4) None of these
44. A for natural love and affection promises to ’ give his son B Rs. 1,00,000/-. A puts his promise to ‘B’ in to writing and register it. This is a ?
(1) Contract
(2) Promise only
(3) Proposal
(4) None of the above
45. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must
(1) Be absolute and qualified
(2) Be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
46. Court fees Act defines fees on document filed, etc. in mufassil courts or in public offices under
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 8
47. Fee on memorandum of appeal against order relating to compensation Is provided under
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) None of the above
48. Under court fees Act—the exemption of certain documents from fees Include:
(1) Written statement
(2) Plaint and process
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
49. Where the court refers the parties to the suit to the mode of settlement of dispute referred to in Section 89 of C.P.C. plaintiff shall be entitled to refund of court fees under Section of court fees Act.
(1) Section 16
(2) Section 17
(3) Section 18
(4) None of the above
50. Under Section 35 of the court fees Act State Government remits the court fees where plaintiffs annual income does not exceed Rs. 25,000/- to
(1) member of scheduled castes
(2) member of scheduled tribes
(3) women
(4) All of these
51. Cultivate personally means under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code
(1) By one's own labour
(2) Industrial labour
(3) Technician
(4) None of these
52. When a witness falls to comply with the summons may be issued under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code
(1) Bailable and arrest warrant
(2) To furnish security for appearance
(3) Fine not exceeding Rs. 1000/-
(4) All of the above
53. The assessment of land revenue on any land shall be ntade with reference to the use of land.
(1) For education purpose
(2) For industrial purpose
(3) For commercial purpose
(4) All of the above
54. Section 118 of Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code related to
(1) Obligation to furnish information as to title
(2) Presumption as to entries in land records
(3) Dispute regarding entry in khasra or in any other land record
(4) None of the above
55. Under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code define Governments title to minerals
(1) Section 250 (2) Section 249
(3) Section 247 (4) Section 248
56. Chapter 5 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code is related to
(1) Appeal (2) Revision
(3) Review (4) All the above
57. The document registration of which is optional have been dealt in.
(1) Section 16 of Registration Act
(2) Section 17 of Registration Act
(3) Section 18 of Registration Act
(4) Section 19 of Registration Act
58. A document executed out of India can be registered if presented with in
(1) Two months of its arrival in India
(2) Four months of its arrival in India
(3) One month of its arrival of India
(4) Six months of its arrival of India
59. Under Section 32 of Registration Act a document for registration can be presented
(1) By the person executing the document
(2) By the representative of the executor
(3) By the agent of the executor authorised
(4) Any of the above
60. The term negotiation of the negotiable instrument Act 1881 refers to
(1) The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder there of
(2) The payment by a bank on a negotiable instrument after due verification of the instrument
(3) The bargaining between the parties to a negotiable instrument
(4) All of the above
61. When presentment for payment is to be made under section 65 of the Act?
(1) Presentment for payment can be made at any reasonable time.
(2) Presentment for payment must be made during the usual hours of business and, if at a bank within banking hours
(3) there is no such stipulation on time for presentment.
(4) None of the above
62. For what term of imprisonment an offender under section 138 of the negotiable instrument Act can be punished
(1) For a term which may extend to two years
(2) For a term which may extend to one year
(3) For a term exceeding three years
(4) None of the above
63. At sight under the negotiable instrument Act means
(1) On presentation
(2) On demand
(3) On coming into vision
(4) None of the above
64. Dishnour of cheque for insufficiency of funds etc. in the account related to
(1) Section 137 of N.I. Act
(2) Section 138 of N.I. Act
(3) Section 139 of N.I. Act
(4) Section 141 of N.I. Act
65. Section 13 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act related to
(1) Passes for import, export or transport
(2) Licence required for manufacture etc. of intoxicants
(3) Requirement of pass for import, export or transport
(4) All the above
66. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act the penalty for certain unlawful acts of Licenced vendor defined
(1) Section 38 (2) Section 37
(3) Section 36 (4) Section 35
67. On the direction of State Government duty may be levied on excisable articles
(1) Imported (2) Exported
(3) Transported (4) All the above
68. Prohibition of sale of liquor, intoxicating drug to person under age of 21 years provided under
(1) Section 22 of the CG Excise Act
(2) Section 23 of the CG Excise Act
(3) Section 24 of the CG Excise Act
(4) Section 25 of the CG Excise Act
69. Limit of quantity for the possession of intoxicant has been provided in of Chhatttisgarh Excise Act.
(1) Section 10 (2) Section 16
(3) Section 18 (4) Section 13
70. Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act is related to
(1) Power to award compensation in certain cases
(2) Power to grant relief for possession, partition, refund of earnest money etc.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
71. The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age
(1) 8-16 years (2) 6-14 years
(3) 8-18 years (4) None of the above
72. Which Is not related to freedom to manage religious affairs under constitution of India
(1) To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
(2) To manage its own affair in matter of religion
(3) To administer such properly in accordance with Law
(4) To payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
73. Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in the State of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Is In which schedule of Constitution of India.
(1) Third schedule
(2) Eight schedule
(3) Fifth schedule
(4) None of the above
74. Under which article the definition of state include the government and parliament of India, Government and Legislatives of State and all local authorities in the territory of India.
(1) Article 11 (2) Article 12
(3) Article 13 (4) Article 9
75. Which of the following Articles of the constitution provide for the protection of right of freedom of speech.
(1) Article 19 (2) Article 20
(3) Article 18 (4) Article 21
76. in which of the contingencies Articles 31 A(1) of Indian-Constitution applies.
(1) Acquisition of an estate
(2) Extinguishment of right in an estate
(3) Modification of right in an estate
(4) All of the above
77. To remove the president from the post impeachment can be brought on the ground of
(1) Violation of constitution
(2) Misconduct
(3) Corruption
(4) All of the above
78. Vice President may be removed from his post by resolution of members of council of state?
(1) By at least majority of then members and agreed to by house of people
(2) By 2/3rd majority of the members
(3) By 3 /4th majority of the members
(4) By Supreme Court only
79. President’s resignation shall be given to
(1) Speaker of house of people
(2) Vice President
(3) Chief Justice of India
(4) Prime Minister
80. What is maximum age for retirement of president
(1) 65 years
(2) 70 years
(3) 75 years
(4) None of the above
81. Immovable property does not include
(1) Standing Limber
(2) Growing crop
(3) Grass
(4) All the above
82. Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act is related to
(1) Transfer of Property
(2) Person competent to transfer
(3) What may be transferred
(4) None of the above
83. Provisions of longor period in the matter of accumulation of property under Section 17 of T.P. Act amounts to
(1) 18 years (2) 20 years
(3) 22 years (4) 25 years
84. Under Transfer of Property Act where two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only, the transfer is called
(1) A. transfer
(2) An exchange
(3) A lease
(4) An eviction
85. The foundation of doctrine of election under the transfer of property Act is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument
(1) Must not bear the burden
(2) Burden is not the subject matter of election
(3) Must bear the burden
(4) None of the above
86. Time requisite under the Limitation Act means
(1) Minimum Time
(2) Maximum Time
(3) Actual Time taken
(4) Absolutely necessary time
87. Legal disability of Limitation Act applies in case of
(1) Illness (2) Poverty
(3) Insolvency (4) None of the above
88. Section 14 of Limitation Act will have no application
(1) Where the suit is dismissed after adjudication on its merits
(2) Where the suit is dismissed because the court was unable to entertain it
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
89. Under Limitation Act applicant Includes
(1) A petitioner
(2) Any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply
(3) Any person whose & estate ii represented by the applicant, an executor, administrator of other representative
(4) All of the above
90. Section 6 of the Limitation Act is related to
(1) Bar of Limitation
(2) Legal disability
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
91. Section 2(14) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related to
(1) Tenant
(2) Social nuisances
(3) Rent
(4) Municipal Area
92. Constitution of the Rent Control Tribunal is under
(1) Section 3 (2) Section 4
(3) Section 5 (4) Section 6
93. Powers and functions of the rent control tribunal does not include
(1) Reconciling disputes between landlord and tenant
(2) Establishment of rent controller
(3) Functioning as appellate authority
(4) (2) and (3)
94. The rent controller shall execute the order through one of more than one modes
(1) Attachment and sale of the movable or immovable property of the opposite party
(2) Arrest and detention of the opposite party
(3) Attachment of any one or more bank accounts
(4) All of the above
95. Section 12 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related to
(1) Procedure to be followed by rent controllers and rent control tribunal
(2) Rights and obligation of land lord and tenants
(3) Repeal and savings
(4) None of the above
96. Which of the following are true about the word “possession” used in Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act
(1) It is prima facie proof of property
(2) It is good title against all who cannot show better title
(3) It is constituted by itself, a limited title to theproperty
(4) All of the above
97. What is the remedy where a lessor has agreed to sell property to his lessee and accepted part of the price
(1) Specific performance
(2) A suit for eviction
(3) Either (1) or (2)
(4) None of these
98. Schedule 1 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related to
(1) Tenant rights available under the Act
(2) Land lords rights available under the Act
(3) Land lord's obligation under the Act
(4) None of the above
99. Which of the contracts cannot be specifically enforced
(1) A contract which is in its nature determinable
(2) A contract for the non-performance of which compensation in money is an adequable relief
(3) (l)and(2) .
(4) None of the above
100. Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person
(1) Who would not be entitled to recover compensation for its breach
(2) Who has become incapable of performing
(3) Who fails to perform and prove that he has performed
(4) All of the above
