MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE (PRE.) EXAM OF CIVIL JUDGE JUNIOR DIVISION (ENTRY LEVEL) EXAMINATION, 2021 (Held on 6.5.

QUESTIONS 1 TO 110 - LAW

1. Constitution of India - Case related to “protection against handcuffing”.

(a) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

(b) Seena Seth v. State of Bihar

(d) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab

2. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country—

(a) Article 43

(b) Article 43A

(d) Article 48A

3. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” are inserted in the Preamble of Constitution of India—

(a) 15th Amendment of the Constitution

(b) 39th Amendment of the Constitution

(d) 44th Amendment of the Constitution

4. By which amendment in the Constitution of India, Article 21A that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine was inserted—

(a) 84th Amendment 2001

(b) 85th Amendment 2002

(d) 87th Amendment 2003

5. Constitution of India - The number of categories of freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 is?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(d)' 9

6. Writ under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is

(a) Subject to the Limitation Act

(b) Not subject to any of the Acts in India

(d) None of these

7. Constitution of India - “Hicklin Test” under Article 19(2) is related to—

(a) Decency and morality

(b) Defamation

(d) None of these

8. Constitution of India - Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Writ of Mandamus - Issued to the public servants

(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus - Issued only to the State

(d) Writ of Prohibition - Issued to the private individuals

9. Constitution of India - The subject of “Preventive Detention” mentioned in which list?

(a) The Union List

(b) The Concurrent List

(d) None of these

10. Constitution ~ of India - The dissenting judgment in the case pertaining to the scope of application of the Aadhar Bill was given by:

(a) Justice Deepak Mishra

(b) Justice Rohinton Nariman

(d) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

11. Civil Procedure Code - Which of the following order of CPC is related to “Written statement”, “Set-off’ and “counter-claims”—

(a) Order VI

(b) Order VIII

(d) Order IX

12. Civil Procedure Code - “Guardian ad litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means

(a) A local Commissioner

(b) A Court

(d) A person appointed by Court to defend a suit on behalf of a minor

13. “Decree” under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in—

(a) Section 2(b)

(b) Section 2(a)

(d) Section 2(1)

14. Direction of the Court to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution, is provided in—

(a) Order X, rule 1A, CPC

(b) Order X, rule IB, CPC

(d) Order X, rule ID, CPC

15. Under which section of CPC - Clerical or Arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders or errors arising therein from any accidental slip or omission may at any time be corrected by the Court either of its own motion or on the application of any of the parties.

(a) Section 151

(b) Section 152

(d) Section 144

16. Civil Procedure Code - In which one of the following case it is held that “inherent power has not been conferred on a Court, it is a power inherent in a Court”?

(a) Manohar Lal Chopra v. Rai Bahadur Rao Raja Seth Hiralal

(b) Cotton Corporation of India v. United Industrial Bank

(d) Rajani Bai v. Kamla Devi

17. Civil Procedure Code The doctrine of “res judicata” as contained in section 11, is based on which maxim?

(a) None of these

(b) Interest republicate sit finis litium

(d) Executio juris non habet injuriam

18. Civil Procedure Code - Where any party dies after conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncing judgment?

(a) The suit shall abate

(b) The suit shall not abate

(d) It depends on the discretion of the Court whether it shall abate or not

19. Civil Procedure Code - The judgment debtor in execution proceedings raised objection that the trial Court had no jurisdiction over the subject-matter

(a) He cannot raise such objection unless he raised the same objection before the trial Court

(b) He has to challenge the same objection only by way of filing the appeal

(d) None of these

20. A ‘next friend’ or guardian, on behalf of minor under Order XXXII, rule 7 of CPC

(a) can enter into an agreement without the leave of the Court but cannot compromise a suit

(b) can neither enter into an agreement nor compromise the suit without leave of the Court

(d) can enter into an agreement and also compromise in a suit without leave of the Court

21. In which of the following section of the Civil Procedure Code the arrest or detention for money is prohibited—

(a) Section 55

(b) Section 56

(d) Section 58

22. Civil Procedure Code - In which case Supreme Court held that “Possession follows title”

(a) Nazir Mohamed v. J. ICamla and others

(b) Sudhir Kumar alias S. Baliyan v. Vinay Kumar G.B.

(d) Radhesyam v. Kamla Devi and others

23. Civil Procedure Code - ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’ are jointly and severally liable for Rs. 1000 under a decree obtained by ‘F’. ‘A’ obtains a decree for Rs. 1000 against ‘F’ singly and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint decree is being executed. Which is true under Order XXI, rule 18—

(a) 'F' may treat his joint-decree as a cross-decree

(b) 'F' cannot treat his joint-decree as a cross-decree

(d) 'F' may treat his joint-decree as a cross-decree with the written consent of other judgment debtors

24. Civil Procedure Code - Which of the following Order is not appealable—

(a) an Order under section 35A

(b) an Order under section 95

(d) an Order under rule 9 of Order XXVI

25. Under section 37 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 in relation to the execution of decrees, the expression “Court which passed a decree” be deemed to include—

1. the Court which passed decree

2. the Court of first instance where decree has been passed in the exercise of Appellate jurisdiction

3. Appellate Court, where decree has been passed in the exercise of Appellate jurisdiction

(a) 1 and 2 both

(b) 1 and 3 both

(d) Only 1

26. Under section 19 of the Transfer of Property Act, “vested interest” is

(a) defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession

(b) not defeated by the death of the transferee before the obtains possession

(d None of these

27. Transfer of Property Act - ‘A’ transfers Rs. 500 to ‘B’ on condition that he shall execute a certain lease within three months after A’s death, and, if he should neglect to do so, ‘C’ ‘B’ dies in A’s life-time—

(a) the disposition in favour of 'C takes effect

(b) the disposition shall not take effect in favour of 'C'

(d) None of these

28. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument

(a) must bear the burden

(b) must not bear the burden

(d) None of these

29. Transfer of Property Act - The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgage property accrues

(a) at any time after the mortgage

(b) at any time after the mortgage money has become due

(d) at any time mortgagee demands the money

30. Transfer of Property Act - ‘A’ transfers property of which he is the owner to ‘B’ in trust for ‘A’ and his intended wife successively for their lives, and after the death, of the survivor for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for A’s second son. The interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son—

(a) takes effect on the death of 'A'

(b) takes effect on the death of 'B'

(d) does not take effect

31. Transfer of Property Act - The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazra is related

(a) Doctrine of election

(b) Doctrine of part performance

(d) Ostensible owner

32. Transfer of Property Act - Where the mortgagor ostensible sells the mortgaged property on condition that on default of payment of the mortgage-money on a certain date the sale shall become absolute, is called—

(a) Anomalous mortgage

(b) English mortgage

(d) Mortgage by conditional sale

33. Indian Contract Act - The Contract of Life Insurance is—

1. contract of indemnity

2. contract of guarantee

3. contract of agency

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) None of these

34. Indian Contract Act - Every agreement to restrain marriage of any person other than minor is

(a) Voidable

(b) Unlawful

(d) Lawful

35. Indian Contract Act - Where no application is made and no time is specified for performance of promise then the agreement be performed within—

(a) One year

(b) Reasonable time

(d) Three years

36. Indian Contract Act - A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, has been defined—

(a) Under section 123 of Indian Contract Act

(b) Under section 124 of Indian Contract Act

(d) Under section 126 of Indian Contract Act

37. Indian Contract Act - An agency is terminated—

1. by the agent renouncing the business of the agency

2. by the principal being adjudicated an insolvent

3. by revoking of authority by principal

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. Indian Contract Act - In the case of general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance, if not required by the proposer. This has been decided in which one of the following cases:

(a) Bhagwan Das v. Girdhari Lal

(b) Weeks v. Tybald

(d) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

39. Indian Contract Act - In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as against the proposer?

(a) When the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission so as to be out of power of the acceptor

(b) When the letter of acceptance has been written

(d) When the letter of acceptance has been read by the proposer

40. Indian Contract Act - Mark the correct answer in respect of Contract of Guarantee

(a) It may be in writing only

(b) It may be oral only

(d) It will be written and oral, both

41. Specific Relief Act - Nd substituted performance of contract under sub-section

(1) of section 20 shall be undertaken unless the party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing, of not less than days, to the party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract within such time as specified in the notice

(a) 60 days

(b) 45 days

(d) 15 days

42. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked—

(a) When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff

(b) When compensation in money would not afford tire plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed

(d) When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. When compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed and when the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff

43. Following is not the essential condition for applicability of section 8 of the Specific Relief Act—

(a) The defendant must be owner of the property

(b) The Article must be movable property

(d) The Article must be in possession or control of the defendant

44. Under section 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a temporary injunction can be granted—

(a) After settlement of the issues

(b) Before the conclusion of plaintiffs evidence

(d) At any stage of the suit

45. Specific Relief Act - According to section 20C—

Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Civil Procedure, A suit filed under the provisions of this Act shall be disposed by the Court within period of from the date of service of summons to the defendant

(a) Three months

(b) Six months

(d) Twenty four months

46. Which new remedy inserted by Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018

(a) Injunction

(b) Substituted performance

(d) None of these

47. Which section of the Limitation Act, 1963 is based on the principle of “lex non cogit ad impossibilia”—

(a) Section 4

(b) Section 5

(d) Section 15

48. Under section 21 of the Limitation Act when the suit shall be deemed to have been instituted as against the newly impleaded defendant

(a) From the date of filing of suit

(b) From the date of filing of application to implead him as defendant

(d) None of these

49. Limitation Act - In which case Supreme Court has held that: Where a plaintiff serves notice under section 80, CPC on the defendant on the last day of limitation and files suit before the expiry of two months, which is entertained by the Court in view of the provisions of section 80(2), CPC, the plaintiff would be entitled to get that period excluded under this section?

(a) Pallav Seth v. Custodian

(b) State of Goa v. Western Builders

(d) Union of India v. West Coast Paper Mills Ltd.

50. As per bare provision of section 4 of Limitation Act, 1963—

(a) the Court should be closed for the whole working day

(b) the Court if not closed for the whole working day, but closed for half day

(c) shall be deemed to be closed on a day within the meaning of this section if during any part of its normal working hours it remains close on that day

(d) none of these

51. M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 - Under section 12(1)(a) of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 a ground for eviction arises on the date on which a notice of demand of rent has been served on tenant by the landlord in the prescribed manner and

(a) tenant has within one month neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

(b) tenant has within two months neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

(c) tenant has within two months neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

(d) tenant has within 15 days neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

52. M.P. Accommodation Control Act - ‘B’ is a tenant in a shop of landlord *A’ situated in the city of Ujjain for the last 11 years Court has passed a decree of eviction what compensation shall be paid by landlord

(a) Not liable to pay any compensation

(b) Equal to double the amount of the annual standard rent

(d) Lump-sum amount Rs. 3000

53. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?

(a) Collector

(b) Civil Court

(d) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be

54. Presumption under section 23D(3) M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 is in the favour of

(a) Tenant

(b) Landlord or tenant, as the case may be

(d) None of these

55. The word “Tenant” as defined in section 2 of Accommodation Control Act does not include—

(a) whose behalf the rent of any Accommodation is payable

(b) any person occupying the Accommodation as a Sub-Tenant

(d) member o the family of Tenant

56. M.P. Land Revenue Code - The limitation for filing appeal before Collector against the order passed by Revenue Officer is—

(a) 30 days

(b) 45 days

(d) 90 days

57. M.P. Land Revenue Code - The record made by Sub-Divisional Officer, ascertaining the customs in each village in any land or water not belonging to or controlled or managed by the State Government or a local authority is called—

(a) Record of Right

(b) Nistar Patrak

(d) Dakhil-Khanz Panji

58. M.P. Land Revenue Code - Patwari shall not enter into any building or upon any enclosed Corut or garden attached td a dwelling house for the purpose of performing work related to his duties under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code without the consent of—

(a) Collector

(b) Tehsildar

(d) the real owner thereof

59. M.P. Land Revenue Code - Any person aggrieved by any entry made in Wajib-ul-arz may institute a suit in civil Court to have such entry cancelled or modified

(a) within 90 days of the publication of record

(b) within one year of the publication of record

(d) within three years of the publication of record

60. M.P. Land Revenue Code - When did M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 came into force?

(a) 1-10-1959

(b) 1-11-1959

(d) 2-11-1959

61. The principle of section 44 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 cannot be extended to which of the following?

(a) Misrepresentation or undue influence

(b) Fraud

(d) All of these

62. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - The case of Sawal Das v. State of Bihar, (1974) 4 SCC 193 is related to—

(a) Rule of res judicata

(b) Rule of estoppel

(d) Rule of res gestae

63. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - An accused charged under sections 302 and 304B of the Penal Code is acquired of the offence under section 302 of Penal Code. The presumption under section 113B of the. Evidence Act is—

(a) automatically refuted

(b) not refuted

(d) None of these

64. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not relate with the criminal matters—

(a) Section 23

(b) Section 27

(d) Section 133

65. Under section 45 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the opinion of expert are relevant facts as to—

(a) identity of hand writing

(b) identity of finger impressions

(d) neither identity of hand writing nor identity of finder impressions

66. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Which of the following statement is not correct in relation to words and expressions used in section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act?

(a) 'Fact' includes not only State of things but also mental condition

(b) Court includes arbitrators

(d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved

67. In which of the following cases the evidence given by the witness will not be relevant under section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(a) When the witness is staying abroad

(b) When the witness is dead

(d) When the witness is incapable of giving evidence

68. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Under section 90A of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 presumption as to electronic records years old is provided

(a) 20

(b) 15

(d) 5

69. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Which kind of Jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872—

(a) Probate

(b) Matrimonial

(d) Revenue

70. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - The ‘document’ means—

(a) A Map and an inscription on a stone

(b) A Caricature

(d) All of these

71. Public document under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be proved by

(a) Oral evidence

(b) Certified copy

(d) None of these

72. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - A witness, who is unable to speak gives his evidence by writing in Open Court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be—

(a) Primary evidence

(b) Documentary evidence

(d) Secondary evidence

73. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - A dying declaration recorded by the police officer in the form of FIR before the death of author without obtaining certificate as to his mental fitness?

(a) Cannot be treated as dying declaration

(b) Cannot be read in evidence

(d) Cannot be used in evidence for any purpose

74. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Which sector of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is founded upon the doctrine laid down in ‘Pickard v. Sears’?

(a) Section 6

(b) Section 32

(d) Section 167

75. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 - Under sub¬section (5)(C) of section 65B of Indian Evidence Act, a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer. In these statements which one is complete?

(a) Whether it was produced by it directly

(b) Whether it was produced by means of any appropriate equipment

(d) Whether it was produced by it directly or by means of any appropriate equipment

76. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - When a women was taking bath in her bathroom ‘X’ captures the image in his mobile. What offence has been committed by ‘X’—

(a) Sexual assault

(b) Insulting the modesty of a women

(d) Stalking

77. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, the term for which the Court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of payment of a fine shall not exceed—

(a) equal of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

(b) one-half of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

(d) one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

78. According to the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which of the following conclusion would be correct?

1. ‘A’ hits ‘Z’ fifty times with a stick. If the punishment for a strike is 1 year, then ‘A* will be punished with 50 years of imprisonment

2. When ‘A’ is hitting ‘Z’. ‘Y’ intervenes and ‘A’ deliberately kills ‘Y’ as well. ‘A’ is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt to ‘Z’ and another punishment for killing ‘Y’

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which one is not an exception of defamation under section 499 of Indian Penal Code, 1860—

(a) Public conduct of public servant

(b) Malicious statements

(d) Publication of reports or proceedings of Court

80. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - The right of private defence of body does not extend to voluntary causing of death of the offender, in which of the following offences—

(a) Rape

(b) Kidnapping

(d) Causing miscarriage

81. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - The time of solitary confinement a time not exceeding months of the term of imprisonment shall exceed 1 year—

(a) 1 month

(b) 2 months

(d) 6 months

82. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - “Common Intention” and “Similar Intention” was distinguished in the famous case of—

(a) Barendra K. Ghosh v. King, 1925 PC 1

(b) Mehboob Shah v. Emperor, 1943 PC 118

(d) Rishidev Pandey v. State of Uttar Pradesh, 1955 SC 331

83. How many kinds of kidnapping are there in the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

(a) One

(b) Three

(d) Two

84. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is the non-treatment of victim by public or private hospitals punishable?

(a) Section 165A

(b) Section 376D

(d) Section 288A

85. Consent given by a child below years of age is not deemed as consent under section 90 of Indian Penal Code, 1860

(a) 7 Years

(b) 5 Years

(d) 10 Years

86. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - Disclosure of the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860—

(a) Section 354D

(b) Section 376E

(d) Section 228A

87. In which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word “Court of justice” is defined

(a) Section 17

(b) Section 19

(d) Section 20

88. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - The punishment provided for offence of sedition under section 124A of IPC is

(a) imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 2 years to which fine may be added or with fine

(b) imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 3 years to which fine may be added or with fine

(c) imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or With imprisonment which may extended to 1 year to which fine may be added or with fine

(d) imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 5 years to which fine may be added or with fine

89. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - “Coin” is defined in which section?

(a) 45

(b) 229

(d) 231

90. Indian Penal Code, 1860 - ‘A’ finds a watch on the floor of a State transport bus while he was leaving it as a last passenger he picked it up and put it in his pocket instead of returning it to the State transport authorities, next day he sold ‘A’ is liable for?

(a) Theft

(b) Extortion

(d) Criminal breach of trust

91. Proceedings under section 258 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be stopped—

(a) in a summon case instituted upon a complaint

(b) in a summons case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint

(d) in a cognizable warrant case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint

92. A declaration of forfeiture under section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be set aside by—

(a) Magistrate issuing the search warrant

(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate/Chief Metropolitan Magistrate

(d) High Court

93. Power conferred under section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to summon material witnesses may be utilizing by Court at which stage—

(a) any time before closing of prosecution evidence

(b) any time before closing of defence evidence

(d) any time before pronouncement of judgment

94. During inquiry or trial, under section 309 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 Magistrate can remand an accused to custody

(a) for a maximum of one month at a time

(b) for a maximum of 15 days at a time

(d) for a period till next date irrespective of days

95. Under section 200 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the Magistrate need not examine the complainant and the witnesses—

(a) if the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainant

(b) if the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties

(d) all of them

96. In which case has the Supreme Court held that section 125, Cr.P.C. applicable to all irrespective of their religion?

(a) Mohd. Umar Khan v. Gulshan Begum

(b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(d) Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim

97. Which section of Cr.P.C. provides that the Public Prosecutor-in-charge of a case may, with the consent of the Court at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried?

(a) Section 320(4)

(b) Section 320(1)

(d) Section 313

98. Criminal Procedure Code - For authorising detention of accused in custody of the police the accused must be produced before the Magistrate?

(a) In person

(b) Through an advocate

(d) Through near relative

99. Under section 468, Cr.P.C. the limitation for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years is

(a) one year

(b) two years

(d) four years

100. Under section 357A(2) Criminal Procedure Code which of the authority is authorised to decide quantum of compensation?

(a) State Legal Service Authority or District Legal Service Authority

(b) Sessions Judge

(d) District Magistrate

101. Criminal Procedure Code - Evidence rendered in Court is the substantive evidence, it would be impermissible to convict the accused on the basis of the statement made under section 164, Cr.P.C., it was held by the Supreme Court in the case:

(a) Arun v. State of Madhya Pradesh

(b) Rajesh @ Sarkari and another v. State of Haryana

(d) Devkaran v. State of Madhya Pradesh

102. For the application of section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 which one of the following is incorrect

(a) That there must have been a previous trial of the accused for the same offence

(b) For the accused to be acquitted in the previous trial for the same offence

(d) It is not necessary that the Court who conductor the trial was competent or not to try the case

103. Criminal Procedure Code - In which case, the Supreme Court held that No Second FIR can be of same incident, in such case first FIR shall be treated Main FIR and other will be treated as statement under section 162, Cr.P.C.—

(a) Kuldeep Choudhary @ Kuldeep Yadav and another v. State of Madhya Pradesh

(b) Amish Devgan v. Union of India and others

(d) Kaushik Chatterjee v. State of Haryana and others

104.Section 293, Cr.P.C. does not apply to which Government Scientific Expert—

(a) any Chemical Examiner or Assistant Chemical Examiner to Government

(b) the Chief Controller of Explosives

(d) State Examiner for the questioned documents

105.Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 - To whom the Court may appoint as Administrator for management of properties seized or forfeited under Chapter 7A of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973

(a) District Magistrate or officer nominated by District Magistrate

(b) Tehsildar

(d) Station House Officer

106. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - The interim compensation under section 143A(4) shall be paid within days from the date of the order or within such further period not exceeding thirty days as may be directed by the Court on sufficient cause being shown by the complainant

(a) 30 days

(b) 45 days

(d) 90 days

107. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 Which defence may not be allowed in the proceedings under section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881

(a) he had not put the signature on the cheque

(b) the complainant is not the payee or the holder of cheque in due course

(d) he had issued the cheque in connection with the liability which was not legally enforceable

108. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - In appeal against conviction, the appellate Court may order the appellant to deposit fine or compensation awarded by the trial Court

(a) Minimum Five percent

(b) Minimum Ten percent

(d) Minimum Twenty percent

109. Which of the following presumption is prescribed under section 118 Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(a) Of consideration

(b) As to date

(d) All of these

110. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 - In which case Supreme Court held two private individuals are hot included in the term “other association of individuals”, thus section 141 of Negotiable Instruments Act is not applicable to the individuals:

(a) Surendra Singh Deshwal v. Virendra Gandhi and others

(b) Iqbal Singh Marwah v. Meenakshi Marwah

(d) Alka Khandu Avhad v. Amar Syam Prasad Mishra and others

111 TO 130 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

111. General Knowledge - Who won the final of 2021 Wimbledon?

(a) Novak Djokovic

(b) Moteyo Beretni

(d) Roger Faderer

112. General Knowledge - One religion, one cast, . one God for mankind. These words were spoken by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Guru Nanank

(d) Shri Aurbindo Ghosh

113. General Knowledge - Who* received Padmashri “Award 2022” for contribution in field of yoga

(a) B.K.S. lyanger

(b) Swami Sivananda

(d) Tulasi Godwa

114. With which aspect of commerce is the term Bull & Bear associated?

(a) Stock market

(b) Bank

(d) None of these

115. Black revolution is related to?

(a) Coal Production

(b) Black hole

(d) Leather Production

116. Which Greek Ambassador came in India during the ruling of Chandra Gupta Morya?

(a) Hensang

(b) Megasthenes

(d) Fahyan

117.Where the Mahatma Gandhi Gramodaya I Vishwavidyaalaya is located?

(a) Gwalior

(b) Bhopal

(d) Jabalpur

118. “The National Education Policy, 2020” was prepared under Chairmanship of—

(a) Ramesh Pokhriyal

(b) Dr. K. Kasturirangan

(d) Prof. Yashpal

119. General Knowledge - Who made the observation “Jurisprudence is Lawyer’s extraversion”?

(a) Jhon Austin

(b) Julius Stone

(d) C.K. Allen

120. General Knowledge - The headquarter of World Bank is situated at

(a) Geneva

(b) New York

(d) Washington D.C.

121. Which of the following is the softest metal?

(a) Calcium

(b) Lead

(d) Silver

122. Which of the following is known as the Golden Quadrilateral?

(a) Rail lines joining metropolitan cities

(b) National Highway Projects

(d) Gold Trading ways

123. Which Sultan had established a separate department (Deewan-E-Amir Kohi) for the supervision of agriculture—

(a) Khijra Khan

(b) Tugni Beg

(d) Muhammad Bin Tuglak

124. First one day international double century was scroed by ‘Sachin Tendulkar’ on which ground of Madhya Pradesh—

(a) Captain Roop Singh Stadium

(b) Nehru Stadium

(d) Gwalior International Cricket Stadium

125. General Knowledge - Asiragh Fort is situated in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

(a) Gwalior

(b) Bhopal

(d) Shahdol

126. General Knowledge - Which is the State animal of Madhya Pradesh

(a) Lion

(b) Swampdeer

(d) Bear

127. What is the name of the initiative launched by India to bring back Indians stranded in Ukraine—

(a) Operation Ganga

(b) Operation Kiev

(d) Operation Bharat

128. “Pingali Venkaya” is related to which of the following?

(a) Indian Army

(b) India's National Flag

(d) India's Constitution

129.ln which Indian State “Khangchendzonga” National Park situated—

(a) West Bengal

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Tripura

130. The DOGE-1 mission to the moon will be launched by which company in 2022?

(a) Space X

(b) ISRO

(d) Roscosmos

131 TO 140 COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

131. A collection of records on a particular topic in a database are stored as—

(a) file

(b) record

(d) field

132. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are keys.

(a) Modifier

(b) Function

(d) Adjustment

133. To insert header and footer click on which menu?

(a) File

(b) Format

(d) Insert

134. Undo and Redo button are in the following too bar?

(a) Standard toolbar

(b) Format toolbar

(d) Status toolbar

135. Computer Knowledge - Which one of the following shortcut key is used to paste a file?

(a) Ctrl + C

(b) Ctrl + V.

(d) Ctrl + X

136. Computer Knowledge - Virtual Memory is—

(a) memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as extended RAM

(b) in RAM

(d) a backup device for floppy disks

137. Computer Knowledge - The term bit is short for

(a) megabyte

(b) binary language

(d) binary number

138. Computer Knowledge - Shortcut for displaying the full page as they are printed

(a) Ctrl + Fl

(b) Ctrl + F2

(d) Shift + F2

139. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage—

(a) KB

(b) TB

(d) GB

140. Computer Knowledge - “http” stands for—

(a) hyper text transfer protocol

(b) hyper transfer topology protocol

(d) high triple topology phase

141 TO 150 ENGLISH

141. Choose the correct spelling

(a) commennsurate .

(b) commensurate

(d) comensurate

142. Appropriate synonym FOSTERING is—

(a) Safeguarding

(b) Neglecting

(d) Nurturing

143.One who hates women is called—

(a) philanthropist

(b) ascetic

(d) misogamist

144.One word substitution for— A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain salvation—

(a) Sceptic

(b) Ascetic

(d) Antiquarian

145.Sentence correction , The Moscow State orchestra “had been performing” in Cheltenham for the next 3 weeks.

(a) Is performing

(b) Are performing

(d) Have performing

146. Antonym of word ‘Arraignment’ is—

(a) Incriminate

(b) Exonerate

(d) Indict

147. “Procrastination” means

(a) Action of delaying

(b) Action of Whispering

(d) Advancement

148. ‘Modus operand)’ means?

(a) the mode of behaving

(b) way of counselling

(d) mode of travelling

149. One who walks in sleep is?

(a) Hypocrite

(b) Imposter

(d) Sarcastic

150.Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase “A moot point”?

(a) All too clear point

(b) A fixed belief point

(d) A debatable point

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