5. Amartya Sen
(A) Pakla Narain Swamy v. King Emperor
(B) Inayatullah v. State of Maharashtra
(C) State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyaya
(D) P. Kottayya v. King Emperor .
5. The Principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root:
(A) As an exception-to. fhe doctrine of consideration in the law of contract
(B) As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract
(C) As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract'
(D) None of the above
6. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to which of the following?
(A) Confession
(B) Dying declaration
(C) Entries in the books of account
(D) Relevancy of judgments
7. “The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all were given on either side?
This provision is contained in which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section-101
(B) Section-111
(C) Section-102 .
(D) Section-113
8. The principle that possession is prime facie proof of ownership is provided under:
(A) Section-109 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section-111 of the Evidence Act
(C) Section-110 of the Evidence Act
(D) Section-112 of the Evidence Act
9. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that confession of co-accused are very weak evidence and no conviction can be based solely .on such confession?
(A) Nathu v. State of U.P.
(B) Ram Prakash v. State of Punjab
(C) Kashmira Singh' vs State of M.P.
(D) None of the above
10. Which of the following does not find a mention as showing state of mind under Section-14 of the Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Ill will
(B) Motive
(C) Good faith
(D) Negligence
11. A witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writingin the open court; evidence so given shall be deemed to be
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Documentary evidence
(D) Oral evidence
12. Provisions have beez made under certain Sections of the Indian Evidence Act regarding relevancy of certain facts. Match the entries of List-1 and List-Il below and write the correct answer using the codes:
List-I (Facts) List-II (Sections)
A. Opinion of Handwriting Expert 1. 22
B. State of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found 2. 47
C. Previous good character in criminal cases 3. 32
D. Oral admissions as to contents of documents 4. 53
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 1 3 2
13. Legitimacy of child born during valid marriage is presumed under which Provision of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section-115
(B) Section-114
(C) Section-112
(D) Section-113
14. “A barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit.This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit.”
This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Sectibn-149 (B) Section-153
(C) Section-147 (D) Section-145
15. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Matrimonial communication/ Section 122
(B) Official communication Section 124
(C) Professional communication . Section 126
(D) Confidential communication with legal advisers Section 127
16. ‘Decree holder’ means any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made. This definition of the term ‘decree holder’ is mentioned under:
(A) Section-2(2), C.P.C.
(B) Section-2(3), C.P.C.
(C) Section-2(4), C.P.C.
(D) Section-2(d), C.P.C.
17. “Rejection of Plaint” is mentioned under:
(A) Order VII Rule 11
(B) Order VI Rule 13
(C) Order VII Rule 12
(D) Order VIII Rule 4
18. Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched?
1. Execution of decree Sec. 77, C.P.C.
2. Letter of request Sec. 82, C.P.C.
3. Legal representative Sec. 50, C.P.C.
4. Institution of suit Sec. 28, C.P.C.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (3) and (4)
(D) (2), (3) and (4)
19. Which one of the following cases is on second appeal?
(A) Madan Lal v. Bai Krishna
(B) Sudhir G. Angur v. M. Sanjeev
(C) Sheodan Singh v. Daryao Kunwar
(D) Harshad Chiman Lal Modi v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
20. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:
(A) Order V Rule 9A, C.P.C.
(B) Order V Rule 9, C.P.C.
(C) Order IV Rule 7, C.P.C.
(D) Order VI Rule 6, C.P.C.
21. Section-115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the following:
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) Appeal to the Supreme Court
22. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code applies to the following:
(A) Withdrawal of suits
(B) Appeals
(C) Execution proceeding
(D) All the above
23. Under which explanation of Section-11 of Civil Procedure Code Constructive Resjudicata has been explained?
(A) Explanation-I (B) Explanation-II
(C) Explanation-Ill (D) Explanation-IV
24. Section-18 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for
(A) Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of one court
(B) Place of instruction of suit in respect of immovable property where the property is situated in the jurisdiction of different courts
(C) Place of institution of suits in respect of immovable property where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain
(D) All the above
25. A decree may be executed by:
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the Court which passed it or to which it is sent
26. Objection as to place of suing shall be allowed in the court of first instance is the essence of:
(A) Section-21 A of C.P.C.
(B) Section-20 of C.P.C.
(C) Section-22 of C.P.C.
(D) Section-21 of C.P.C.
27. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his written statement is ordinarily within:
(A) 60 days from service of summons
(B) Always 90 days from service of summons
(C) 30 days from service of summons or 90 days if allowed by the court
(D) 15 days from service of summons
28. A person may sue a foreign state:
(A) With the consent of the State Government
(B) Only with the consent of the Central Government
(C) With the consent of Central or State Government
(D) With the consent of the President of India
29. Certain topics under the Code of Civil Procedure are described hereunder in List-1 while their Section/Order numbers are mentioned in List-Il. Match the entries of List- I and List-ll and write the correct answer using the codes below:
List-I List-II
A. Affidavit 1. Order 26
B. Arrest before Judgement 2. Order 33
C. Commission to examine witnesses 3. Order 19
D. Suit by indigent persons 4. Order 38
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
30. Which of the following determinations does not come under the definition of “decree”?
(A) An adjudication which conclusively determines the rights of the parties with' regard to some of the matters in issue before the court
(B) Rejection of a plaint
(C) Determination of any question under Section-144 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Dismissal of a suit for default
31. The Amendment of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in the year 2002 amended:
(A) Section-100 (B) Section-106
(C) Section-108 (D) Section-110
32. Which one of the following is not an essential element for a valid transfer of property?
(A) Competent transferor
(B) Transferable property
(C) Transferee may not be competent To take the transfer
(D) Object of transfer must be lawful
33. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Rule against perpetuity Section-14
(B) Conditional transfer Section-24
(C) Vested Interest Section-19
(D) Contingent Interest Section-21
34. Section-4 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is the statutory application of the law of estoppel. The statement is:
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true
(D) None of the above
35. Which of the following cases is related to the right of redemption?
(A) Stanley v. Wilde
(B) Noakes v. Rice
(C) Kreglinger v. New Pentagonia Meat and Cold Storage Co. Ltd.
(D) All the above cases
36. Which of the following Sections of Transfer of Property Act contain exception to the maxim “Nemo dat quod not habet”?
(A) Sections-41 and 42
(B) Sections-43 and 44
(C) Sections-41 arid 44
(D) Sections-41 and 43
37. A doctrine, which requires that the transferor must deliver the subsequently acquired property to the transferee who acted upon his false representation and did harm to himself by paying money for what he could not get it, is called:
(A) Rule against unjust enrichment
(B) Implied consent
(C) Feeding the grant by estoppel
(D) Doctrine of substantial compliance
38. Section-37 of the Transfer of Property Act on right to proceeds of revenue compensation on acquisition is based on:
(A) Doctrine of election
(B) Doctrine of substituted security
(C) Doctrine of marshalling
(D) Doctrine of contribution
39. Rule against perpetuity is not applicable to a case where:
(A) Property is transferred for the benefit of the public.
(B) Interest in property is created “generation after generation’.
(C) Transfer of property purport to be effective beyond minority of ultimate transferee, who is not in existence at the date of transfer ,
(D) Contingent interest are created transfer
40. In case of gift the donee dies before acceptance, then:
(A) Gift is valid
(B) Gift is void
(C) Gift is voidable
(D) Court has to decide
41. The doctrine of election is applicable to:
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims
(C) Christians (D) All the above
42. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument:
(A) Must bear the burden
(B) Must not bear the burden
(C) Burden is not the subject of election
(D) None of the above
43. ‘A’ lets a house to ‘B’ for five years. ‘B’ underlets the house to ‘C’ at a monthly rent of Rs. 1000/-. The five years' expire, but ‘C’ continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to‘A’. The lease of'‘C’:
(A) Is renewed for a further period of five years,
(B) Is renewed from month to month
(C) Is terminable at any time
(D) Is renewed from year to year
44. Remedy of ‘Foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?
(A) Usufructuary mortgage
(B) Mortgage by conditional sale
(C) Simple mortgage
(D) English mortgage
46. In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unlesh the contrary is shown”. This view was expressed in:
(A) Sherras v. De Rutzen
(B) R. v. Dudley & Stephen
(C) Harding v. Price
(D) R. v. Prince
47. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Mens Rea R. v. Prince
(B) Necessity D.P.P. v. Beard
(C) Insanity Mc’Naughten case
(D) Intoxication Basudeo v. State of Pepsu
48. In which case the Supreme Court-has struck down Section-303 of the Indian Penal Code as unconstitutional?
(A) Machchi Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) Bachchan Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Santa Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Mithu Singh v. State of Punjab
49. Which one of the following statements is not defamatory?
(A) ‘A’ says about a woman ‘B’ that she has paramour wherever she goes ,
(B) ‘A’ publishes a photograph with a false caption ‘Goonda’
(C) ‘A’ says, “I am not surprised that ‘B’s book is foolish for he is a libertine”
(D) ‘A’ in the course of a police investigation says, ‘B’ maybe involved in the murder of ‘D’ because both of them were bitter enemies
50. Assertion (A) Homicide is the killing of a human being by another human being
Reason (R) Homicide is always unlawful
Give the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of-.(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
51. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under:
(A) Section-363,I.P.C.
(B) Section-509,I.P.C.
(C) Section-511,I.P.C.
(D) Section-354,I.P.C.
52. ‘B’ and ‘C’ were on the railway platform. ‘B’ . had taken a ticket from Allahabad to Delhi. ‘B’,an illiterate woman handed over the ticket to ‘C’ in order to ascertain whether she had a right ticket. ‘C under the pretence of returning the ticket to Delhi substituted it for the ticket of shorter journey and returned that as ‘B’s ticket. In this case, ‘C’ is liable for
(A) Cheating ‘B’
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Theft
(D) Criminal breach of trust
53. The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of:
(A) Theft and dacoity
(B) Culpable homicide and murder
(C) Kidnapping and abduction
(D) ‘Abetment and conspiracy
54. ‘A’ commits theft on the property in the possession of ‘B’, and while committing this theft he has a loaded pistol under his garment, kept for the purpose of hurting ‘B’ in case ‘B’ should resist.
The offence committed by ‘A’ is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Section-382 (B) Section-379
(C) Section-390 (D) Section-381
55. Information Technology Act, 2000 has made amendments in
(A) Only Section-463,I.P.C.
(B) Only Section-466 and 477-A, I.P.C.
(C) Section-463,466 and 477-A, I.P.C.
(D) Section-462; I.P.C. only
56. ‘A’ promises to'marry ‘B’ his student and induced her to cohabit with him. He has given her a false assurance of marriage and also fraudulently gone through certain ceremonies of marriage, making ‘B’ believe that she was a lawfully wedded wife of ‘A’. Later ‘A’ refused to recognize her as his wife. What offence has been committed by ‘A’?
(A) Rape
(B) Adultery
(C) Outraging modesty of a woman
(D) ‘A’ has committed no offence
57. ‘A’, a police officer, tortures ‘B’ in order to induce ‘B’ to confess that he committed a crime. Under which Section of the I.P.C., the police officer is guilty of an offence?
(A) Section-325 (B) Section-326
(C) Section-328 (D) Section-330
58. ‘A’ picked up a revolver and believing it to be loaded, pulled the trigger with the criminal intention of shooting ‘B’ dead. Fortunately the revolver was not loaded and ‘B’ escaped unhurt. *A’ has committed the offence of:
(A) Murder
(B) Attempt to murder
(C) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) ‘A’ has committed no offence
59. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched?
1. Mehboob Shah v. Common Object Emperor
2. State of Maharashtra v. Mens Rea M.H. George
3. Director Public Defence of Prosecutor v. Beard Insanity
4. P. Rathiman v. Union Dowry Death of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (4) (B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2) and (4)
60. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
A. Criminal Breach of Trust 1. Section- 396
B. Public Nuisance 2. Section-354
C. Dacoity with murder 3. Section-405
D. Assault with intention to outrage modesty of
woman 4, Section-268
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1 . 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
61. Which one of the following is not provided in Section-4 of the Contract Act, 1872?
(A) Communication of a proposal
(B) Communication of acceptance
(C) Communication of revocation
(D) Revocation of proposals and acceptance
62. ‘B’ says to ‘A—“If you do not deny it, I shall assume tha| the horse is sound”. ‘A’ says nothing. Here ‘A’s silence is equivalent to , speech.
This illustration is based on
(A) Section-17 (B) Section-18
(C) Section-19 (D) Section-20.
63. Wagering agreements are:
(A) Void but enforceable by law
(B) Void and not enforceable by law
(C) Voidable and illegal but enforceable by law
(D) Voidable and illegal but not enforceable by law.
64. A proposal is revoked:
(A) Only by the death or insanity of the proposer itself
(B) By the death or insanity if the fact of the death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
(C) By the death or insanity of the proposer i if the fact of his death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance
(D) None of the above is correct
65. Which one of the following combinations is correctly matched?
(1) Responsibility of finder of goods Sec. 71
(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128
(3) Sub-agent Sec. 191
(4) Bailee’s particular lien Sec. 171
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
(A) (1), (2) and (4) (B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (3), (4) and (1)
66. Which of the following is the correct meaning of the “privity of contract” principle?
(A) Parties must maintain the privity of contract
(B) Main objective of the contract must be maintained
(C) Only parties to the contract may sue on it
(D) Only the parties know in which circumstances the contract was made
67. Match the following:
A. Me Gregor v. Mc Gregor 1. General Proposal
B. Weeks v. Tybald . 2. Intention to contract
C. Henderson v Stevenson 3. Consideration
D. Currie v. Misa 4. Reasonable notice
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: Codes:
A B C D
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 - 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
68. The words “Consensus ad item” means:
(A) No agreement can have more than one meaning
(B) To agree in the same way
(C) To agree on the same thing in the same sense
(D) To agree for different objects in the same sense
69. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?
(A) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(B) Entire concealment of a fact
(C) A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
(D) A promise made without intention, of performing it
70. A right to sue on “Quantum Merit” arises:
(A) When a party has fully performed the contract
(B) When a party partly performed the contract and is discharged by the other party
(C) When a contract is discharged by impossibility of performance
(D) When a contract becomes illegal
71. Change of the nature of the obligation in a contract is known as/
(A) Rescission
(B) Novation
(C) Renovation
(D) Alteration
72. The judicial basis of quasi-contractual obligation can be explained through the principle of:
(A) Voluntary benefits
(B) Just and reasonable solution
(C) Unjust enrichment
(D) “Indebitus—assumpsit”
73. The principle of assessment of damages for breach is given in:
(A) Hadley v. Baxendale
(B) Scarf v. Zodine
(C) King v. Horr
(D) Hyde v. Wtench
74. Which statement is wrong regarding “agency” under the Indian law of contract?
(A) Principal should be competent to contract
(B) The authority of agent may be expressed or implied
(C) Consideration is necessary to create an agency
(D) Guardian of a minor can appoint an agent for him
75. The case of Hochester v. De La Tour deals with:
(A) Quasi-contract
(B) Doctrine of promissory estoppel
(C) Anticipatory breach of contract
(D) Quantum-merit
76. Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment extending upto:
(A) 5 years (B) 7 years
(C) 3 years (D) 10 years
77. Which provision of the Cr.P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus Writ?
(A) Section-91 (B) Section-93
(C) Section-97 (D) Section-96
78. Which Section of the Cr.P.C., 1973 applies when the officer-in-charge of a police station receives information that a person has committed suicide?
(A) Section-174 (B) Section-181
(C) Section-154 (D) Section-147
79. Under which Section of Cr.P.C., inherent powers can be exercised by the High Court?
(A) Section-482
(B) Section-483
(C) Section-484
(D) Section-480
80. Which one of the following offences has not been enumerated under Section-110 of the Cr.P.C., 1973 which empowers an Executive Magistrate to require such person to show cause why he should not be ordered to executed bond for his good behaviour ?
(A) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
(B) Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
(C) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
(D) Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
81. The Chapter of “Plea Bargaining” is added to the Cr.P.C. by the:
(A) Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment)-Act, 2005 (Act No. 25 of 2005)
(B) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (Act No. 2 of 2006)
(C) Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2006
(D) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2003
82. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Police to prevent cognizable offences Sec. 149
(B) Power to arrest to prevent the commission of cognizable offence Sec. 151
(C) Power to certain armed forces officers to dispense assembly Sec. 131
(D) Arrest by Magistrate Sec. 45
83. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Information in cognizable offence Sec. 154
(B) Police Officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses Sec. 161
(C) Search by Police Officer Sec. 166
(D) Cases to be sent to Magistrate when evidence is sufficient Sec. 171
84. Which one of the following combinations are not correctly matched?
A. Anticipatory bail . Sec.-437, Cr.P.C.
B. Summary Dismissal of appeal Sec.-384, Cr.P.C.
C. Appeal in case of acquittal Sec.-376, Cr.P.C.
D. Reference to High Court Sec.-397, Cr.P.C.
Select correct answer using the codes given below: -
Codes:
(A) A-1; B-2 and D-4
(B') A-1; C-3 and D-4
(C) A-1; B-2 and C-3
(D) B-2; C-3 and D-4
85. Who of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section-125(4) of the Cr.P.C.?
(A) Wife living in adultery
(B) Wife living separately by mutual consent
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Either (a) or (b)
86. Save in exceptional circumstances, no woman shall be arrested after Sunset and before Sunrise, and where such exceptional circumstances to arrest exist, the woman police officer shall obtain the prior permission of the following:
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Superintendent of Police
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) Sessions Judge
87. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under Section-125 Cr.P.C.?
(A) Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
(B) Unmarried sister
(C) Adoptive mother
(D) Illegitimate minor child
88. When the High Court or any Sessions Judge calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as:
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) None of the above
89. A report of person arrested without warrant shall be given by the officer-in-charge of police station to:
(A) Only District Magistrate
(B) Only Sub-divisional Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of First Class
(D) Either to the District Magistrate or Sub- divisional magistrate
90. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may under Section 166-A of the Cr.P.C. issue a:
(A) Search warrant
(B) Letter of requisition
(C) Letter of request
(D) Written order
91. Analytical positivism does not mean that:
(A) Laws are in the nature of commands
(B) Law as it is and as it ought to be have to be separated
(C) Certain inherent moral quality is an essential feature of law
(D) Analysis of legal concepts is distinct from critical evaluation
92. “Nature has placed man under the empire of pleasure and pain”. It has been said by:
(A) Bentham (B) Austin
(C) Pound (D) Hobbes
93. Who has written the following words: “Law grows with the growth of people, strengthens with the strength of people and finally it dies away as the nation loses its nationality”?
(A) Hart (B) Savigny
(C) Bentham (D) Spencer
94. Who defined law as the “de psychologised command”?
(A) Kelsen (B) Bentham
(C) Austin (D) Salmond
95. The principal jurist of the Philosophical School was:
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) Sir Henry Maine
(C) Max Waber
(D) Hegel
96. Name the jurist who is called as “Darwinian before Darwin” and “Sociologist before Sociologists”
(A) Kelsen (B) Savigny
(C) Pound (D) Gray
97. “Law should continue to support minimum morality” has been pleaded by:
(A) Lord Devlin (B) Hart
(C) Lon Fuller (D) Dwarkin
98. Who said that “Ownership is a plenary control over an object”?
(A) Hibbert (B) Austin
(C) Holland (D) Salmond
99. The concept of “Living Law” was expounded by which jurist?
(A) Austin
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Pound
(D) Holland
100. Who wrote that “the only right which a man can possess is the right always to do his duty”?
(A) Duguit (B) Gray
(C) Comte (D) Lundstedt
101. Which one of the following is not a theory of legal personality?
(A) Fiction theory
(B) Concession theory
(C) Interest theory
(D) Bracket theory
102. How did Aristotle describe justice in restoring equality when this has been disturbed? '
(A) Distributive justice
(B) Corrective justice
(C) Universal justice
(D) Natural justice
103. In which one of the following cases, the court pierced the veil of the corporate personality?
(A) Solomon v. Solomon case
(B) Smith, Stone and Knight’s case
(C) Daimler Company v. Continental Tyre Co. case
(D) People’s Pleasure Park Co. v. Rohleder case
104. Analysis of rights into four juristic correlative was done by:
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Radin
(C) Hohfeld
(D) Kokourek
105. Which one of the following is not a correct classification of possession?
(A) Possession in fact and possession in law
(B) Mediate and immediate possession
(C) Corporeal and incorporeal possession
(D) Direct and indirect possession
106. The U.S.A, led armed attack on Iraq in March 2003 was:
(A) Justified in international law
(B) Was not justified in international law
(C) To destroy weapons of mass destruction found by the UN team
(D) In self defence of the USA
107. Which one of the following signed the United Nations Convention on use of Electronic Communications in International Contracts in September 2006?
(A) Sierra Leone
(B) Egypt
(C) Sudan
(D) None of the above ;
108. Who urged the United Nations to consider the deployment of an “International Security Monitoring Presence” in Lebanon?
(A) G-8 leaders
(B) Arab League
(C) Organization of Islamic countries
(D) SAARC
109. The General Assembly Resolution of 15 March 2006 decided to establish the Human Rights Council, based in Geneva:
(A) As a new and additional subsidiary organ of the General Assembly
(B) As a specialized agency of the UN
(C) In replacement of the Human Rights Commission
(D) None of the above
110; Recently concluded mutual legal assistance treaty between India and the US relates to the area of
(A) Trade and Commerce Law
(B) Oil Exploration
(C) Open Sky Agreement
(D) Criminal Law
111. Asia Co-operation Dialogue (ACD) had been constituted for
(A) Military assistance
(B) Economic co-operation
(C) Transport
(D) Tourism
112. Iran was asked to suspend its nuclear programme by
1. Security Council
2. Security Council and Germany
3. General Assembly
4. Secretary General
Select the correct answer with the help of the codes given below:
Codes
(A) 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 (D) 3 and 4
113. The Word Trade Organization Agreement on agriculture was to be implemented over a period of 6 years beginning from 1995, now it has been, extended for developing countries. What is this period of extension?
(A) 5 years (B) 6 years
(C) 8 years (D) 10 years
114. Who has been elected recently as the next Secretary General of the United Nations?
(A) Shashi Tharoor (B) Ban-ki-Moon
(C) Kofi Annan (D) Kim Jong II
115. “Guantanamo Bay’ has earned international notoriety for what reason?
(A) As Hizbollah headquarter in Lebanon
(B) As Hamas headquarter in Palestine
(C) As the place where Baloch leader Bugti was killed 'by Pakistani forces
(D) As the American detention centre for terror suspects
116. Volker Report deals with which one of the following?
(A) Iran’s nuclear programme
(B) Iraq’s ‘oil-for-food’ scandal
(C) Iraq’s weapon of mass destruction
(D) Terrorist attack on New York World Trade Centre
117. On which date did India and the USA announce Civil Nuclear Co-operation through a joint statement?
(A) 18 July 2005
(B) 18 July 2006
(C) 23 March 2006
(D) 25 December 2005
118. How many States are members of an international group IBSA, of which the first summit was held in September 2006?
(A) 10 States (B) 12 Sates
(C) 3 States (D) 4 States
119. In which country was the XIV Non-Aligned Summit held in September 2006?
(A) Iran (B) Cuba
(C) Venezuela (D) South Africa
120. Portugal has extradited Abu Salem to India under which the following?
(A) Indo-Portugal Extradition treaty
(B) International Convention for the suppression of Terrorist Bombing, 1997
(C) International Convention for the suppression of Financing of Terrorism, 2000
(D) UN Security Council Resolution No. 1373 (2001) declaring terrorism as contrary to the purposes and principles of the UN
121. Which Article of the UN Charter relates to “Domestic jurisdiction”?
(A) Article-2(7) (B) Article-23
(C) Article-51 (D) Article-72
122. Which Article of the UN Charter provides for the expulsion of a Member States?
(A) Article-1(2) (B) Article-6
(C) Article-48 (D) Article-51
123. The budget of the United Nations is approved by:
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) Secretary General
(D) Economic and Social Council
124. The legality of the “Uniting for Peace” Resolution of the General Assembly has been upheld by the International Court of Justice in:
(A) Certain expenses of the United Nations Case
(B) Conditions of membership in the United Nations Case
(C) Military and Paramilitary Case
(D) Reparation Case
125. The United Nations enjoy immunities and privileges in the territories of its Member States under:
(A) Article 20 of the Charter
(B) Article 104 of the Charter
(C) Article 105 of the Charter
(D) Article 106 of the Charter
126. Of which of the following international judicial institutions the seat is not at the Hague?
(A) International Criminal Court
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) Permanent Court of Arbitration
(D) International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea
127. The Permanent Court of Arbitration was established in pursuance of the following:
(A) Hague Conferences of 1899 and 1907
(B) Covenant of the League of Nations
(C) UN Charter
(D) None of the above
128. Which one of the following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?
(A) Universal Postal Union
(B) United Nations Children Fund
(C) International Civil Aviation Organization
(D) International Financial Corporation
129. A non-member of the United Nations can become a member of the statute of the International Court of Justice:
(A) On the recommendation of the General Assembly alone
(B) On the recommendation of the Security Council alone
(C) On the conditions to be laid down by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
(D) On the recommendation of the Secretary General
130. On which date did the General Assembly of the United nations unanimously adopt for the first time a resolution and an annexed plan of action on Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy?
(A) January 1,2006
(B) December 31, 2005
(C) September 8,2006
(D) September 12, 2001
131. The ‘Optional Clause’ in para 2 of Article 36 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice is related to:
(A) Voluntary jurisdiction
(B) Compulsory jurisdiction
(C) Advisory jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
132. In the event of a dispute as to whether the International Court has jurisdiction or not, the matter shall be settled by
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) Decision of the International Court of Justice
(D) None of the above
133. Which one of the following organizations deals with refugees?
(A) UNESCO (B) UNHCR
(C) SWAPO (D) EEC
134. Which Article of the UN Charter recorgnizes the right of individual and collection self- defence to its members?
(A) Article-26 (B) Article-51
(C) Article-73 (D) Article-29
135. Who was the first Secretary General of the United Nations?
(A) Trigve Lie
(B) Kurt Waldheim
(C) U. Thant
(D) None of the above
136. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) To organize Village Panchayats
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to property
(D) Right to move Supreme Court
137. “Article 21-A—Right to education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years” has been inserted in the Constitution by:
(A) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act; 1977
(B) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(C) The Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992 ' '
(D) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992
138. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus is related with:
(A) Article-13 (B) Article-211
(C) Article-245 (D) Article-300
139. In which Article of the constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the President is given?
(A) Article-57
(B) Article-58
(C) Article-59'
(D) Article-60
140. A Professor of a University, who is an eminent jurist, is eligible to be appointed as a judge of the
(A) High Court
(B) Both High Court and Supreme Court
(C) Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the . High court
(D) Supreme Court
141. The quorum for meetings of the House of People constitutes:
(A) l/10th of the total members
(B) l/10th of the total members or 100 members whichever is less
(C) 1 /3rd of the total number
(D) l00 members
142. “Creamy Layer” rule excluding the well placed members of a caste from reservation was first laid down in the case of:
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(C) India Sawhney v. Union of Inida
(D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
143. In which case, the Supreme Court directed the Government to implement the law against female foeticide with full determination?
(A) Parents Association v. Union of India
(B) Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar
(C) CEHAT v. Union of India
(D) Nishi Maghu v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
144. After which one of the following Supreme court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes, introduced by an Amendment of the Constitution of India?
(A) D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat
(B) M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore
(C) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
(D) T, Devadasan v. Union of India
145. Assertion (A) Right to education is a Fundamental Right
Reason (R) Our Constitution has no provision for education before making right to education as Fundamental Right.
Codes; '
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) ((A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
146. “Autre Fois Acquit” principle is related to:
(A) Retrospective-operators
(B) Double Jeopardy
(C) Ex Post Facto Law
(D) Self-incrimination
147. Which one of the following is the correct statement? “Full faith and credit”.clause of the Constitution does not apply to:
(A) Public acts
(B) Public records
(C) Acts of Corporation
(D) Judicial proceedings
148. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill, then the deadlock, is resolved by
(A) A joint sitting of two Houses
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) Special Committee
149. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct .answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. India, that is a 1.Bharat is a Union of States Preamble
B. Liberty of Thought, 2. Expression and Worship Right to Freedom
C. Freedom of Speech 3. and Expression Union and its Territory
D. Protection of Cultural and Educational Rights 4. Interest of minorities
Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
150. The law declared by Supreme, Court of Melia is binding on all courts within the territory of India, but the Supreme Court is not bound by its decision was decided' by the Supreme Court itself in
(A) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of .Kerala
(B) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(C) Madhav Rao Scindia y. Union of Inplia
(D) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar
