BIHAR JUDICIAL SERVICE (PRE.) EXAM, 2016

PAPER I GENERAL STUDIES

1. Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society?

a. Jyotiba Phule

b. Firoz Shah Mehta

c. M.G. Ranade

d. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. The manuscript of Arthashastra was discovered by

a. Sir William Jones

b. Shamshastri

c. Ram Gopal Bhandarkar

d. James Mill

3. Who was the author of the famous text, Mudrarakshasa?

a. Vishakhadutta

b. Kalidas

c. Sudraka

d. Rajshekhar

4. The first Buddhist Council was summoned by

a. Chandragupta Maurya

b. Ashoka

c. Ajatasatru

d. Kanishka

5. Mahatma Buddha gave his first sermon at

a. Lumbini

b. BodhGaya

c. Samath

d. Kapilvastu

6. Which archaeological site is associated with the Mauryan palace?

a. Kaushambi

b. Taxila

c. Hastinapur

d. Kumrahar

7. Which Rock Edict of Ashoka mentions the Kalinga War?

a. (XII) Thirteenth

b. (VIII) Eighth

c. (II) Second

d. (V) Fifth

8. Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore is the finest example of which architecture?

a. Pallava

b. Chalukya

c. Chola

d. Pahdya

9. The system of ‘Dagh’ and ‘Huliya’ was introduced by

a. Illutmish

b. Ala-ud-din Khilji

c. Balban

d. Firuz Shah Tughlaq

10. English traveller William Hawkins visited India during the time of which Mughal emperor?

a. Shah Jahan

b. Akbar

c. Aurangzeb

d. Jahangir

11. The ‘Iqtadari’ system was introduced by

a. Balban

b. Illtumish

c. Ala-ud-din Khilji

d. Firuz Shah Tughlaq

12. What was the name of the Persian translation of Mahabharata?

a. Sakinat-ul-Auliya

b. SirrulAsrar

c. Anwar-i-Suhaili

d. Razmnama

13. Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagar empire was a contemporary of

a. Akbar

b. Firuz Shah Tughlaq

c. Babur

d. Balban

14. Baburnama was composed in which language?

a. Turkish

b. Persian

c. Arabic

d. Urdu

15. ‘Servants of Indian Society’ was founded by

a. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

c. Mahatma Gandhi

d. Goyind Ranade

16. Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was passed during the time of which Governor-General?

a. Lord Minto

b. Lord Hardinge

c. Lord Curzon

d. Lord Linlithgow

17. Who was the author of History of British India!?

a. James Mill

b. V. A. Smith

c. V.D. Sayarkar

d. R.C. Majumdar (1288)

18. Which was the first newspaper published in India?

a. Bengal Gazette

b. Calcutta Gazette

c. Bombay Herald

d. Bengal Journal

19. ‘Go back to the Vedas’. Who gave this slogan?

a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

b. Keshav Chandra Sen

c. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

d. Swami Dayanand Saraswati

20. Arya' Samaj was established in

a. 1870

b. 1872

c. 1873

d. 1875

21. The worst famine in India under the British rule occurred during

a. 1860-1861

b. 1876-1878

c. 1896-1897

d. 1899-1900

22. Who among the following women was associated with the revolutionary movement?

a. Toru Dutt

b. Ramabai

c. Bhikaji Cama

d. Gangabai

23. Simon Commission visited India in

a. 1927

b. 1928

c. 1929

d. 1930

24. Under which Act were the Muslims provided separate electorates in British India?

a. Indian Council Act, 1892

b. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

c. Indian Council Act, 1861

d. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919

25. Who among the following woman social reformers was called ‘Pandit’?

a. Gangabai

b. Ramabai

c. Annie Besant

d. Sister Subbalakshini

26. Where did the Indigo Revolt take place?

a. Orissa

b. Uttar Pradesh

c. Bengal

d. Maharashtra

27. Queen Victoria’s proclamation took place in

a. 1856

b. 1858

c. 1859

d. 1860

28. Who among the following authors has called the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence?

a. R.C.Majumdar

b. S.N. Sen

c. V.D.Savarkar

d. Ashok Mehta

29. ‘Abhinav Bharat’ founded in 1904 was

a. a secret organization of revolutionary activities

b. a newspaper

c. a cultural organization

d. a trade union movement

30. “History is a continuous process of interaction between past and present”. Who said this?

a. E.H. Carr

b. Charles Firth

c. Karl Marx

d. V. A. Smith

31. The famine code for India was recommended by which Commission?

a. MacDonnell Commission

b. Campbell Commission

c. Lyall Commission

d. Strachey Commission

32. Who was associated with the newspaper, Mooknayak?

a. JyotibaPhule

b. B.R.Ambedkar

c. M.N.Roy

d. Annie Besant

33. Who among the following has called Tilak as ‘Father of Indian Unrest’?

a. Mahatma Gandhi

b. Jawaharlal Nehru

c. Powell Price

d. Valentine Chirol -

34. Who among the following persons was considered by Gandhiji as his ‘Political Guru’?

a. Dadabhai Naoroji

b. M.G. Ranade

c. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

d. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

35. New India and Commonweal newspapers were associated with

a. R.C. Dutt

b. Mahatma Gandhi

c. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

d. Annie Besant

36. ITCZ stands for

a. Inter Temperate Convergence Zone

b. Intra Tropical Convergence Zone

c. India-Thailand Convergence Zone

d. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone

37. On which river, the Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is constructed?

a. Ghaghara

b. Kosi-

c. Yamuna

d. Chambal

38. Amarkantak is the source head of

a. Son, Narmada and Mahanadi

b. Son, Chambal and Betwa

c. Narmada, Ben Ganga and Kene

d. Mahanadi, Tapti and Son

39. Match the following:

(a) Bhotiya                                  (1) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujjar                                     (2) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Gaddi                                      (3) Kashmir

(d) Dafla (4) Uttarakhand

a. 4,3,2,1

b. 2,1,3,4

c. 1,3,4,2

d. 3,2,1,4

40. The largest reserves of sal forest is found in

a. Nilgiri hills

b. Dim valley

c. Aravallies

d. Assam

41. Telangana State is surrounded by which of the following groups of States?

a. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

b. Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra and Karnataka

c. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

d. Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

42. Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates

a. Ganga Plain and Siwaliks

b. Siwaliks and Lesser Himalaya

c. Lesser Himalaya and Greater Himalaya

d. Greater Himalaya and Trahs-Himalaya

43. The valley of flowers is located in

a. Himachal Himalaya '

b. Garhwal Himalaya

c. Kashmir Himalaya

d. Nepal Himalaya

44. In India, coal is found in the geological formation of

a. Dharwar

b. Vindhyan

c. Gondwana

d. Kadapa

45. Rohtang pass connects the valleys of

a. Bhagirathi and Alakananda

b. Kali and Dholi

c. Kulu and Spiti

d. Jhelam and Ravi

46. The basic reason of winter rainfall in northwestern part of India is

a. south-west monsoon

b. trade wind

c. retreating of monsoon

d. western disturbances

47. Laterite soil mostly found in

a. Karnataka

b. Punjab

c. Uttar Pradesh

d. West Bengal

48. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?

a. Bhakra Nangal Dam—Sutlej

b. Sardar Sarovar Dam—Narmada

c. Hirakund Dam—Mahanadi

d. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam—Godavari

49. Which river valley was severely affected by the disaster in June, 2013?

a. Alaknanda

b. Mandakini

c. Nandakini

d. Bhagirathi

50. Match the following:

(a) Tarapur atomic (1) Karnataka power station
(b) Rawatbhata atomic (2) Gujarat power station
(c) Kakapada atomic (3) Rajasthan power station
(d) kaiga atomic (4) Maharashtra

a. 1,2,3,4

b. 3,4,1,2

c. 4,3,2,1

d. 2,1,4,3

51. Which of the following countries recently became a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

a. Sudan

b. Afghanistan

c. Bhutan

d. Ethiopia

52. Which of the following organizations has sanctioned $ 1.5 billion loan to support the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)?

a. World Bank

b. IMF

c. ADB

d. Japan Bank for International Cooperation

53. In which of the following Indian States Lokayukta has been appointed by the Supreme Court of India by using its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution?

a. Uttar Pradesh

b. Bihar

c. Karnataka

d. Andhra Pradesh

54. Satellites of which of the following countries have been successfully launched by using ISRO’s PSLV C29?

a. Canada

b. Singapore

c. Indonesia

d. Saudi Arabia

55. As per the 2015 Human Development Report (HDR), what was India’s rank in Human Development Index (HDI) for 2014?

a. 121

b. 130

c. 132

d. 138

56. India’s largest National Cancer Institute is set up in which of the following States?

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. Haryana

c. Gujarat

d. West Bengal

57. Which of the following countries has hosted the International Neutrality Conference?

a. India

b. Sri Lanka

c. Turkmenistan

d. Pakistan

58. Which of the following committees has been appointed to look into dispute between ONGC and RIL on KG gas fields?

a. Pradhan Committee

b. A.P. Shah Committee

c. M.B. Shah Committee

d. Deshmukh Committee

59. Which of the following is the first bank to tie up with Indian railways to sell rail tickets through its web-site?

a. State Bank of India

b. ICICI Bank

c. Axis Bank Ltd.

d. Punjab National Bank

60. Which of the following banks is the World’s largest bank by assets?

a. Bank of America

b. Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC)

c. BNP Paribas

d. Bank of China

61. Which of the following space agencies has launched the LISA Pathfinder?

a. Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

b. NASA

c. European Space Agency

d. China National Space Administration

62. The new Parliament building of which of the following countries is built by India?

a. Bhutan

b. Afghanistan

c. Nepal

d. Maldives

63. Which of the following committees suggested initiatives on Revisiting and Revitalizing PPP Model?

a. Dinesh Pachori Committee

b. Arun Pasricha Committee

c. Vijay Kelkar Committee

d. Deepak Mohanty Committee

64. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director-General of National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG)?

a. Arvind Subramanian

b. Bibek Debroy

c. Gyanendra Bandgaiyan

d. Sanjay Madhav

65. Which of the following States is planning to construct the first ever underwater road tunnel in the country?

a. Tamil Nadu

b. Gujarat

c. Andhra Pradesh

d. Kerala

66. Which of the following countries has announced to adopt Chinese Yuan as its legal currency?

a. Greece

b. Egypt

c. Zimbabwe

d. Namibia

67. Salma Dam project is being under reconstruction in which of the following countries?

a. Nepal

b. Bhutan

c. Afghanistan

d. Bangladesh

68. Which of the following countries has launched the DAMPE satellite?

a. China

b. Russia

c. Japan

d. USA

69. Which of the following countries has approved world’s first dengue vaccine?

a. United Kingdom

b. Canada

c. Mexico

d. France

70. Which of the following American Universities bias launched the A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Fellowship for Indian students?

a. Harvard University

b. University of South Florida

c. University of California, Berkeley

d. University of Chicago

71. Which of the following acids does not contain oxygen?

a. Nitric acid

b. Sulphuric acid

c. Hydrochloric acid

d. All of the above

72. Which of the following is not biodegradable?

a. Domestic sewage

b. Lab detergents

c. Soap

d. Plant leaves

73. The atomicnucleus was discovered by

a. Rutherford

b. Dalton

c. Einstein

d. Thompson

74. The branch of Physics that deals with the motion of a very small particle is called

a. Field Theory

b. Particle Physics

c. Quantum Mechanics

d. Atomic Physics

75. Which of the following foods provides the nutrient for the growth of new tissues in the human body?

a. Fruits

b. Vegetables

c. Cheese

d. Sweets

76. Which of the following is the largest air pollutant?

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Carbon monoxide

c. Sulphur dioxide

d. Hydrocarbons

77. In binary code, the number 7 is written as

a. 110

b. 11

c. 101

d. 100

78. Anthophobia is fear of which of the following?

a. Boss

b. Fire

c. Flowers

d. Dogs

79. Clove, is obtained from

a. root

b. stem

c. fruit

d. flower bud

80. Which of the following fights infection in the body?

a. RBC

b. WBC

c. Blood plasma

d. Haemoglobin

81. Green Revolution means

a. use of green manure

b. grow more crops

c. high yield variety programmes

d. green vegetation

82. Pedology is the science related to the study of

a. atmosphere

b. soil

c. pollutants

d. seeds

83. The unit of electrical resistance of a conductor is

a. farad

b. volt

c. ampere

d. ohm

84. The step that produces largest number of ATP molecules in our system is

a. glycoysis

b. Kerbs cycle

c. terminal respiratory chain

d. hydrolysis

85. Brass is an alloy of

a. copper and iron

b. zinc and iron

c. copper and zinc

d. iron and nickel

86. When beams of red, blue and green lights fall on the same spot, the colour of the light becomes

a. violet

b. red

c. yellow

d. white

87. Which organ of the human body does the Alzeimer’s disease affect?

a. Ear

b. Brain

c. Eye

d. Stomach

88. How many units of electricity will be consumed if you use a 60 watt electric bulb for 5 hours everyday for 30 days?

a. 12

b. 9

c. 6

d. 3

89. Soda water obtained by passing carbon dioxide in water is

a. an oxidising agent

b. basic in nature

c. acidic in nature

d. a reducing agent

90. 8Which of the following is not a kharif crop?

a. Groundnut

b. Maize

c. Masoor

d. Paddy

91. The radioactive isotope used to control leukemia is

a. Phosphorus 32

b. Cobalt 60

c. Iodine 131

d. Sodium 24

92. White rust is an important fungal disease of

a. wheat

b. mustard

c. rice

d. bajra

93. Liver fluke lives in the bile duct of

a. horse

b. cow

c. man

d. sheep

94. 8Nucleus of helium contains

a. only one proton

b. two protons

c. two protons and two neutrons

d. one proton and two neutrons

95. Of the following diseases, which one is caused by insect bite?

a. Scurvy

b. Dengue

c. Pneumonia

d. Asthma

96. The class of food having highest caloric value per unit weight is

a. vitamin

b. fat

c. carbohydrate

d. protein

97. 8Baking soda is

a. sodium carbohydrate

b. sodium bicarbonate

c. sodium sulphate

d. sodium hydroxide

98. Density of water is the highest at the temperature of

a. 0°C

b. 4°C

c. 50°C

d. 100°C

99. In which of the following organs bile is stored?

a. Spleen

b. Pancreas

c. Appendix

d. Gallbladder

100. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes the disease of slow blood clotting?

a. Vitamin C

b. Vitamin D

c. Vitamin E

d. Vitamin K

Paper II Law

1. ‘Rule against perpetuity’ given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not affect any rule of

a. Hindu Law

b. Muhammadan Law

c. Christian Law

d. None of the above

2. Standing Timbers under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 are

a. immovable properties only so long as not severed from the earth

b. immovable properties unless there is a contract to sever the same from the earth

c. not immovable properties

d. immovable properties if value exceeds Rs. 100

3. Instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means

a. a testamentary instrument

b. a testamentary as well as a non- testamentary instrument

c. a non-testamentary instrument

d. any written document

4. For valid attestation of an Instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, it is necessary that

a. each attesting witness must see the executant sign the instrument or affix his mark

b. the executant must see the attesting witness signing the instrument

c. each attesting witness must sign the instrument in the presence of the executant

d. All of the above

5. A has a wife B and a Son C. C in consideration of Rs. 5 lakhs paid to him by his mother B executes a deed by a registered instrument releasing his share of inheritance to A’s property. A dies and C claims his share in A’s property. Which of the following is correct?

a. C is bound by his instrument and cannot claim his share in A's property

b. C is not bound by his instrument and can claim his share in A's property

c. C is bound by his instrument if instrument is attested by at least two witnesses

d. C can claimi the share in properties of A only after the death of his mother

6. A agrees to sell to B a certain quantity of gunny bags deliverable on a future day. Before the due date, B assigns his beneficial interest in the contract to C. A commits a breach of contract. Which of the following is correct?

a. C is entitled to sue A for damages for not delivering the gunny bags 7

b. C is not entitled to sue for damages as it will amount to transfer of mere right to sue by B

c. C is not entitled to sue A for damages as there is no privity of contract between A and C

d. C is entitled to sue only to get his money back from B

7. Provision based on doctrine of acceleration under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is

a. Section 29

b. Section 28

c. Section 27

d. Section 30

8. A owns two adjoining properties X and Y. A sells the property X to B and imposes a condition that for the more beneficial enjoyment of the property Y, B shall keep open a portion of property X and will not build upon it. Which of the following is correct?

a. The condition is not valid since A has sold the property which is an absolute transfer and hence A cannot impose any condition on the mode of enjoyment of the property X

b. The condition is valid

c. The condition would have been valid only if 'the transfer had been without Consideration

d. 'The condition will be valid only if A proves the has no other way to reach to. his property Y except through the < open portion of the property X

9. A makes a gift of land to B. C sues A for possession of the land. While the suit is pending, B transfers the land to D. A dies and C obtains a decree for possession against B as legal representative of A. Is D’s title affected by the rule of lis pendens so as to be subject of C’s decree?

a. Yes, because transfer is without consideration

b. No, because B was not a party to the suit at the time of transfer by B to D.

c. B is not legal representative of A for C's decree

d. After gift made to B; C cannot sue A for possession of the land

10. Handing over the possession of mortgaged property is required in

a. mortgage by conditional sale

b. English mortgage

c. mortgage by deposit of title deeds

d. None of the above

11. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser— Section 81

b. Right of mortgagor to redeem—Section 60A

c. Right of usufructuary mortgagor to recover possession—Section 62

d. None of the above

12. Relief from Equity Court could be obtained

a. before adjudication in the Common Law Courts

b. after decision by the Common Law Courts

c. both before or after decision by the Common Law Courts

d. None of the above

13. Equity Court could be approached

a. as a matter of right

b. as a matter of grace

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

14. An equitable interest is an interest recognised by

a. the Court of Chancery

b. the Conunon Law Courts

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

15. A transfers Rs. 10,000 in four percent to B, in trust to pay the interest annually accruing due to C for her life. A dies. Then C dies. Which of the following is correct?

a. B holds the fund for the benefit of C's legal representative

b. B holds the fund for the benefit of A's legal representative

c. B may now enjoy the fund for himself

d. Fund is liable to be forfeited by the State

16. Where the trust property consists of money and cannot be applied immediately or at an early date to the purposes of the trust, the trustee is bound (subject to any direction contained in the instrument of trust) to invest the money on the specified securities and on no others. Which Section of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 contains this provision?

a. Section 18

b. Section 19

c. Section 20

d. Section 21

17. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Trust Act deals with liability for breach of trust?

a. Section 20

b. Section 21

c. Section 22

d. Section 23

18. The words and expressions used in the Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the Act, have meaning as defined in the

a. General Clauses Act

b. Indian Contract Act

c. Transfer of Property Act

d. Civil Procedure Code

19. Which of the following Sections of the Specific Relief Act deals with recovery of specific movable property?

a. Sections

b. Section?

c. Sections

d. Section9

20. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Contracts not

b. Section 15

c. by the failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance

d. All of the above

21. Which one of the following is correct?

a. AU agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties for a consideration specifically enforceable

b. Power to award —Section 21 compensation in certain cases

c. Liquidation of —Section 23 damages not a bar to specific performance

d. Temporary and —Sections? Perpetual injunctions

22. Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other is

a. an offer

b. an agreement

c. an acceptance

d. a contract

23. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor

a. when it is put in the course of transmission

b. when the proposer conveys the acceptance to the acceptor

c. when it is communicated to the acceptor that the acceptance has reached the proposer

d. when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

24. A ‘tender’ is

a. an offer

b. an invitation to offer

c. an invitation for discussion

d. a promise

25. An agreement in restraint of marriage is

a. valid

b. illegal

c. void

d. voidable

26. In order to convert a proposal into a promise

a. the acceptance of proposal must be absolute and unqualified

b. the acceptance of proposal may be varied

c. the acceptance of proposal may be conditional

d. the acceptance of proposal may be absolute, varied or conditional

27. A proposal can be revoked by the proposer

a. by the communication of notice by the proposer to the other party "by the lapse of lime prescribed in such proposal for its acceptance been made between the parties for a consideration

b. AU agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties with their free consent

c. AU agreements are contracts once they have been made between the competent parties

d. A11 agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract for lawful consideration and lawful object and not expressly declared by law to be void

28. A valid contract at the initial stage ceases to be enforceable subsequently due to intervention of unforeseen factors. The contract will

a. remain valid

b. be voidable at the option of either party to the contract, when it ceases to be enforceable

c. become void since the time of its inception

d. become void since the time it ceases to be enforceable

29. In Indian Law, a wagering contract is

a. treated as voidable

b. treated as void

c. treated against public policy

d. treated as valid

30. A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody is subject to responsibility in the same way as a/an

a. owner thereof

b. pledgee thereof

c. bailee thereof

d. custodian thereof

31. An agency under the Contract Act is terminated by

a. principal revoking his authority

b. the death of either principal or agent

c. principal being adjudicated an insolvent

d. AII of the above

32. The liability of the surety under the contract of guarantee is

a. several with that of the principal debtor

b. alternate with that of the principal debtor

c. coextensive with that of the principal debtor

d. AU of the above

33. A agrees to sell a horse of worth Rs. 5,000 for Rs. 1,000 to B. A’s consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement

a. a contract

b. not a contract for inadequacy of consideration

c. not enforceable

d. against the provision of the Contract Act

34. Which one is the famous case related with the general offer?

a. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

b. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose

c. CarlUl v. CarboUc Smoke BaU Co.

d. MacPherson v. Appanna

35. Consent will be said to be free, when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The term ‘free consent’ has been defined in which Section of the Contract Act?

a. Section 14

b. Section 15

c. Section 16

d. Section 17

36. Which statement is correct for an act of tort?

a. It is a civil Wrong

b. AU civil wrongs are not tort

c. It gives a right in rem

d. A11 of the above

37. A tort is a breach of duty, which is

a. imposed by the parties

b. imposed by the law

c. imposed by the penal law

d. imposed by the society

38. Who said that liability in law of tort arises only when the wrong is covered by any one or the other nominated tort?

a. Fraser

b. Winfield

c. Blackstone

d. Salmond

39. Qui tacit per alium tacit per se, a maxim in law of tort, is related with which act of tort?

a. Capacity to sue

b. Negligence

c. Vicarious liability

d. Defamation

40. In A suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution, what is required to be proved by the plaintiff?

a. That he has been prosecuted by the defendant

b. That the prosecution was instituted without reasonable and probable cause

c. Proceedings for malicious prosecution terminated in favour of the plaintiff

d. All of the above

41. The maxim ubi jus ibi remedium means

a. where there is remedy there is right

b. where there is right there is remedy

c. where there is fault there is remedy

d. where there is no fault there is no remedy

42. Which one of the following cases is related to an exception to the application of the doctrine of volenti non fit injuria based on ‘rescue’ cases?

a. Haynes v. Harwood

b. Padmavati v. Dugganaika

c. Ashby v. White

d. Wooldridge v. Sumner

43. In which case, the principle of absolute liability was laid down?

a. Bhim Singh v. State of J&K

b. Rylands v. Fletcher

c. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

d. Lloyd v. Grace, Smith & Co.

44. Res ipsa loquitur is a rule of

a. criminal law

b. statutory law

c. substantive law

d. evidence law

45. The standard of care required on the part of defendant in the tort of ‘negligence is of

a. highly skilled person

b. any person of least understanding

c. a reasonable and prudent man

d. a person having legal understanding

46. The rule regarding the principle of negligence was laid down in the leading case of

a. Glasgow Corp v. Muir

b. Donoghue v. Stevenson

c. Winterbottom v. Wright

d. Ishwari Devi v. Union of India

47. Where a person willfully and without any justification is dealing with the goods in such a manner that another person, who is entitled, to its immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that, is known as

a. tort of conversion

b. tort of detinue

c. tort of trespass to goods

d. tort of nuisance

48. For application of the rule of strict liability, which of the following essentials is required?

a. Keeping or storing the dangerous thing by a person on his land

b. Non-natural use of the land by the person

c. Escape of the dangerous thing out of the land of the person storing or keeping it and causing damage or injury

d. All of the above

49. Which statement is correct?

a. A public nuisance is a civil wrong as well as a crime

b. A private nuisance is a civil wrong as well as a crime

c. A public nuisance is a crime and not a civil wrong

d. A private nuisance is ;a crime and not a civil wrong

50. The leading case in which the test ot - directness for determining the remoteness of-damages was finally established in

a. Smith v. London South-Western Railway Co.

b. Wagon Mound Case

c. Re Polemis and Furness Withy & Co.

d. Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. y. Morts Dock & Engineering Co. Ltd.

51. In a contract for the sale of specific goods, if at the time of the contract the goods have, without the knowledge of the seller, perished, then

a. the contract is legal for the buyer

b. the contract is voidable at the option of the buyer

c. the contract is void for both the parties

d. the contract has become illegal

52. In an agreement to sell the goods on the terms that the price is to be fixed by the valuation of a third party but such third party fails to make the valuation, then

(A) the valuation may be made by the seller

(B) the valuation may be made by the buyer

(D) the buyer and the seller cannot make the valuation and the contract becomes void

53. Sohan, a fraudulent person posing himself a respectable person, purchased a valuable ring from Mohan, a shopkeeper by giving him a cheque. The cheque was dishonoured but before the fraud could be detected, Sohan pledged the ring with Rohan who acted in good faith and without notice of Sohan’s defect of title. What is the correct position?

(A) Mohan can sue Sohan, the buyer, to recover the ring

(B) Rohan's title to the ring is good against Mohan and Sohan, hence he will retain the ring

(D) The contract is based on fraud, hence can be declared void and no liability of parties will arise in the vbid contract

54. A, a toy dealer, displayed in his shop window some plastic toy catapults. B, a child of six years of age, was attracted to the toys and one plastic toy catapult was bought from the x shop after discussion with the shopkeeper.

While the child was using it, the toy catapult broke off and entered the left eye of the child ~ which had to be removed. The case is filed against the seller for damages. There is contention that

(A) it was a. sale by description; hence the seller is table for damages as the toy was not of merchantable quality

(B) it was a normal sale and the principle let the buyer beware' applies and the seller is not liable for damages

(D) after sale, the property in goods was transferred to the buyer, hence the seller cannot be held responsible for the negligence of the buyer

55. A sold the goods on credit to B and delivered the goods to the buyer’s shipping agent who had put them on board a ship. However, the goods were returned to the seller for repacking. When the goods were still with the seller, the buyer became insolvent. The seller being unpaid refuses to return the goods. Examine the following options and decide the correct one.

(A) As the buyer has become insolvent, he is unable to pay the cost, hence he cannot sue the seller for goods

(B) As the seller is still impaid and he is in possession of the goods, he has lien on goods and hence he has right to rtetain the goods

(C) Thotighthebuyerhasbecomeinsolvent but the seller too has lost his right of lien on goods and the goods belong to the buyer

(D) The seller will resell the goods and out of the sale proceeds will retain original price and refund the extra to the original buyer

56. In negotiable instruments, the great element of negotiability Is the acquisition of property by party’s own conduct and not by another’s, i. e., if you take it bona fide and for value, nobody can deprive you of it. Which one of the following is the authority of this proposition?

(A) Whistler v. Forster

(B) Raphael v. Bank of England

(D) Roberts v. Peake

57. The law requires that every party to a negotiable instrument must be capable of contracting according to the law of the contract. What happens when a minor becomes party to the instrument as drawer or maker or indorser?

(A) The whole instrument is void and all parties are discharged of their liability instrument

(B) The instrument is voidable and every party has right to declare it void

(D) The minor is not liable on the instrument but it remains binding upon all other parties

58. Where an instrument requires indorsement and it has been indorsed, then what is the rule creating liability on it among the following options?

(A) Every indorser incurs liability to all tne parties that are subsequent to him

(B) Only the first indorser and not the subsequent indorsers will be liable to all the parties

(D) If an indorser shows that the instrument had already been altered before he received it, he will be exempted from his liability

59. Which of the following options is not correct? A bill of exchange may have to be presented for acceptance before it is prescribed for payment. Presentment for acceptance is necessary only where

(A) the bill is payable at a given time after

(B) the bill expressly stipulates that it shall be presented for acceptance before presentment for payment

(D) the drawer and the drawee have common interest in presenting the bill for acceptance

60. When the holder of the cheque receives information from the bank that the cheque has been dishonoured, he should make a demand by giving a notice in writing to the drawer of the cheque for payment of the money

(A) within fifteen days

(B) within thirty days

(D) within forty-five days

61. A small company may be one whose turnover as per its last Profit and Loss Account did not exceed of such higher amount as may be prescribed which cannot be more than

(A) Rs. 2 crores, Rs. 10 crores

(B) Rs. 2 crores, Rs. 50 crores

(D) Rs. 5 crore, Rs. 50 crores

62. Inactive company means a company which has not been carrying on any business or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during

(A) the last three financial years

(B) the last two financial years

(D) the last five financial years

63. The Companies Act, 2013 has provided that in listed companies, appointment or independent directors is mandatory and the independent directors will be appointed

(A) from the list provided by the Company Law Board .

(B) from the list of persons given by the Ministry of Law and Company Affairs

(D) from the list of persons nommated by the shareholders of the company

64. The Companies Act, 2013 has done a tremendous ob by providing Company s Social Responsibility (CSR) as a mandatory activity. A company has to comply with mandatory CSR norms where .

(A) the net worth of the company is INK (Indian National Rupee) 1,000 crores or

(B) the turnover of the company is INR 1,000 crores or more .

(D) its paid-up share capital is INR 200 crores or more

65. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal consists of judicial and technical members. The Chairperson is one who is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court. The maximum number of members in the NCLAT has been provided as

(A) eleven members

(B) nine members

(D) seven members

66 A. B and C enter into an agreement for partnership at will. The Partnership contains the following provisions Which one of the following provisions of the deed is inconsistent with partnership at will?

(A) That there will be option for a surviving partner to purchase a deceased partner s share at a fixed valuation

(B) That disputes between the partners, it any, shall be referred to arbitration

(D) That if any partner wants to retire from partnership, notice of a certam fixed time will be required before retirement

67 By implied authority, each partner binds all 6 other partners by his acts In all matter a which are within the scope and objects of partnership. In a partnership of general commercial nature, which of the following is

(A) That every partner may pledge or sell the partnership property

(B) That any partner may admit any liability in a suit against the firm

(D) That every partner may engage servants for the partnership business

68. If a person who is minor according to the law to which he is subject is admitted to the benefits of a partnership, it is claimed that

(A) his share in the firm's property is not liable to the firm's debts

(B) he can sue the partners to show the accounts

(D) he can sue the partners for payment of his share of profits of the firm

69. Where a partner becomes insolvent, he ceases to be partner in the firm

(A) on the date on which he declares himself as insolvent

(B) on the date which is agreed by him with other partners for declaring him insolvent

(D) on the date on which order of adjudication is made

70. A, B and C enter into an agreement for partnership in which C remains a sleeping partner. It is found that C is in adulterous relationship with 's wife. What is the correct line of action?

(A) B insists that the firm be dissolved on this ground and advances his action for it

(B) A advises to terminate C from the firm and insists B to continue the firm's business

(D) A opposes dissolution of the firm as it was not a fit ground of dissolution and advises to continue the business afresh

71. Communication made 'without pre udice' is protected

(A) under Section 22 of the Evidence Act

(B) under Section 23 of the Evidence Act

(D) under Section 21 of the Evidence Act

72. 'Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of’ evidence is contained in

(A) Section 31 of the Evidence Act

(B) Section 32 of the Evidence Act

(D) Section 61 of the Evidence Act

73. Delhi High Court issued guidelines for the protection of witnesses in

(A) Neelam Katara Case (2003)

(B) Naina Sahni Case (2007)

(D) Parliament Attack Case (2006)

74. A prosecutes for adultery with C, A's wife denies that C is A's wife, but the court convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A's lifetime. C says that she never was A's wife. The judgment against B is

(A) relevant as against C

(B) irrelevant as against C

(D) None of the above

75. Which of the following chapters of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ’witnesses'?

(A) Chapter VI

(B) Chapter VII

(D) Chapter IX

76. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act was omitted by the Amendment Act of 2002?

(A) Section 155(2)

(B) Section 155(3)

(D) Section 155(5)

77. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term ’ Judicial proceeding'?

(A) Section 2(i)

(B) Section 2(j)

(D) Section 2(1)

78. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has issued specific guidelines regarding arrest?

(A) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan

(B) A.R. Antulay's Case

(D) Nandini Satpathy's Case

79. What is the maximum amount of maintenance which can be ordered by a Magistrate as monthly allowance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Rs. 1000

(B) Rs. 500

(D) No limit

80. Under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the victim of rape shall be sent to registered medical practitioner for examination within from the time of

receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence

(A) 6 hours

(B) 12 hours

(D) 36 hours

81. Which of the following Sub-sections was/were inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 in Section 176 of Cr.P.C.?

(A) 176(1A)

(B) 176(1A) and 176(1B)

(D) 176(1A) and 176(5)

82. The period of limitation prescribed in the Code of Criminal Procedure is not applicable to the offences under

(A) the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961)

(B) the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962)

(D) All of the above

83. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the recommendations of

(A) Santhanam Committee

(B) Malimath Committee

(D) None of the above

84. Which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of res judicata in writ petitions?

(A) Satyadhan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi

(B) Daryao v. State of UP

(D) None of the above

85. A court can return the plaint, when the court has got

(A) no territorial jurisdiction

(B) no pecuniary jurisdiction

(D) Any of the above

86. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on

(A) 1st April, 2002

(B) 1st June, 2002

(D) 1st July, 2002

87. The provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under

(A) Section 32 of the related Act

(B) Section 36 of the related Act

(D) None of the above

88. The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint arbitrator within

(A) thirty days

(B) sixty days

(D) ninety days

89. The decrees or orders made by Small Causes Court are revisable by

(A) the District Court

(B) the High Court

(D) None of the above

90. Who is authorised to abolish Courts of Small Causes?

(A) The concerned High Court

(B) The concerned State Government

(D) The concerned District Court after consultation with the concerned High Court and the State Government

91. In which of the following cases, it was contended that the Preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star in its interpretation and hence any law made under the Article 21 should be held as void if it offended against the principles of natural justice?

(A) Gopalan v. State of Madras

(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(D) Excel Wear v. Union of India

92. Which of the following cases upheld 'secularism' as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word 'secular' was inserted in the Preamble? .

(A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(D) Samathav. State of AP

93. In which of the following cases, the consensus of the majority of the judgment was that the basic structure of the Constitution could not be destroyed or damaged by amending the Constitution in exercise of the power under the Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Waman Rao v. Union of India

(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(D) None of the above

94. A person who or whose father was not born in the territory of India but "who a has his domicile'intheterritoryof India', and b has been ordinarily residing 'within the territory of India'for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution" is considered as lndian citizen. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes it?

(A) Articles

(B) Article5B

(D) Article 5C

95. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution which was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?

(A) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(B) Edward Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Ajmer

(D) Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India

96. Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of judiciary?

(A) Judicial review

(B) Impartial appointment of judges

(D) Original jurisdiction

97. The test of reasonableness is not a wholly test and its contours are fairly indicated by the Constitution

(A) subjective

(B) objective

(D) summative

98. Taxation is a/an power of the State and there is no fundamental right to be immune from taxation.

(A) independent

(B) statutory

(D) administrative

99. 'Protection in respect of conviction for offences' is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 22

(B) Article 21

(D) Article 19

100. According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of

(A) public order

(B) morality

(D) All of the above

101. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the post of the Prime Minister in India?

(A) Article 73

(B) Article 74

(D) Article 74(1)

102. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of the Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Schedule.

(A) Sixth

(B) Eighth

(D) Tenth

103. Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by

(A) impeachment

(B) the President

(D) the House of the People

104. Which of the following has been held to be questions of fact and not of law?

(A) Whether a fact has been proved when evidence for and against has been properly received

(B) Whether a statutory presumption has been rebutted

(D) All of the above

105. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Governor

(D) Vidhan Sabha

106. Absolutism means

(A) the state or quality of being absolute

(B) a sort of government in which public power is vested in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution

(D) Allof the above

107. Mandamus

(A) is issued to check the performance of duties of a public nature

(B) is issued to impede the performance of duties of a private nature

(D) None of the above

108. Which among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public Service Commission?

(A) The Governor

(B) The State Legislator

(D) The Advocate General

109. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation

(I) the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised

(II) the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws on the subject which is not enumerated in the Union List.

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

(A) Only (I)

(B) Only(II)

(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

110. The Governor must remain conscious of his constitutional obligations and not sacrifice either political responsibility or parliamentary conventions on the altar of 'political expediency'. In which of the following cases, the constitutional obligations of the Governor were mentioned?

(A) S.R. Chaudhari v. State of Punjab

(B) B.R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu

(D) None of the above

111. "Administrative Law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of the administrative authorities." Who among the following jurists has given the above definition?

(A) Ivor Jennings

(B) K.C. Davis

(D) Keith

112. State the similarity between constitutional and administrative laws

(A) Both constitutional and administrative laws are private laws

(B) Both constitutional and administrative laws regulate the highest norms of the State

(D) Both constitutional and administrative laws are public laws

113. The privilege to withhold the documents/ information under the administrative law is enacted in which of the following Sections of the Evidence Act?

(A) Section 120

(B) Section 126

(D) Section 98

114. According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?

(A) Equality after law

(B) Equality of fixed rules of law

(D) Equality before law

115. K.C. Davis in his book, Administrative Law gave several meanings of the term 'rule of law'. Choose the correct option accordingly.

(A) Fixed rules of law

(B) Exclusion of discretion

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

116. The doctrine of 'separation of powers' can be explained by which of the following?

(A) Same person should not form the part of more than one of the three organs of the govemmenjt

(B) Same person should not form the part of more than two of the three organs of the government

(D) None of the above

117. In modern States, the executive function is further classified as quasi-legislatiye, quasi-judicial, ministerial and purely administrative functions. This observation is based on which of the following cases?

(A) Harishankar Bagla v. State of MP

(B) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(D) All of the above

118. Delegated legislation in India can be decided for post-Constitution period. This was held by

(A) Queen v. Burah

(B) Re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 [AIR 1951 SC 332]

(D) Both (A) and (C)

119. Choose the function which cannot be delegated under the administrative law.

(A) Power to give retrospective effect

(B) Appointed day or commencement of the Act

(D) Suspension of operation of all/any of the provisions of the Act

120. What is the disadvantage in delegated legislations?

(A) In case of gross violation of rights of the people, delegated legislation can be withdrawn/amended suitably without much delay

(B) There are chances to misuse the powers which are given by parent act and thereby the executive may enjoy more power than the Parliament

(D) Neither.(A) nor (B)

121. Conditional legislation under the administrative law is

(A) also known as subordinate legislation. While making legislation the subordinate authorities can use their discretion

(B) also known as contingent legislation. No discretion can be enjoyed as there is no rule-making power

(D) Both (A) and (B)

122. "The principle of natural ustice is one proeeduralruleforthe administrative action." Considering the above statement, which of the following is/are justified?

(A) No man should be judged in his own cause

(B) All men should be judged in their own cause

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

123. The courts in almost all the democratic countries enjoyed the power to decide the validity of the delegated legislation under the administrative law and apply the test. The above is related to which of the following?

(A) Test of substantive ultra vires and test of procedural ultra vires

(B) Where the parent act itself is unconstitutional and delegated legislation is unconstitutional

(D) Both (A) and (B)

124. The rule against bias can be discussed under the following heads:

(I) Pecuniary bias

(II) Personal bias

(III) Bias as to subject-matter

The personal bias is decided by the Supreme Court under which of the following cases?

(A) Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal

(B) Gullapalli Nageswara Rap v. APSRTC

(D) Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand

125. Habeas corpus literally means 'have the corpus' or 'bring the body'. Under which case, habeas corpus was not be issued?

(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

(B) Batul Chandra v. State of West Bengal

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

126. The essential of audi alteram partem is

(A) issuance of notice without hearing

(B) taking adverse action against him

(D) notice

127. What is the essential condition of mandamus?

(A) The petitioner must have legal right which can be judicially enforceable

(B) The public authority concerned must do his duty

(D) None of the above

128. According to the constitutional provisions regarding contractual liability of the State, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to make a contract valid, in which the government is a party?

(A) The contract made has to be executed on behalf of the President or the government as the case may be

(B) Any executive entering the contract on his own

(D) All of the above

129. "Tribunals deal with the service matter only." Choose the correct option among the following which is true for the above statement.

(A) It is presided over by the Judge or Magistrate

(B) CPC and rules of evidence must be followed

(D) None of the above

130. What is the qualification of Ombudsman?

(A) Lokpal shall not hold any office of profit

(B) Lokpal shall be a Member of Parliament

(D) None of the above

131. Hindu Law is

(A) Civil Law

(B) Personal Law

(D) Criminal Law

132. The ancient source(s) of the Hindu Law is/ are

(A) Sruti

(B) Smriti

(D) AU of the above

133. Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for

(A) monogamy

(B) bigamy

(D) polyandry

134. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Judicial separation' has been provided?

(A) Section 9

(B) Section 10

(D) Section 13

135. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the legitimacy of the children of

(A) void marriages

(B) voidable marriages

(D) valid marriages

136. A Hindu marriage may be solemnized according to the customary rites and ceremonies of

(A) bride

(B) bridegroom

(D) either party (bride and bridegroom) thereto

137. 'Son', in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not include

(A) adopted son

(B) stepson

(D) None of the above

138. Which of the following is correct under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 for the surviving sons, surviving daughters and mother of the male intestate?

(A) Each shall take one share

(B) AU will take one share

(D) AU the sons and daughters shall take one share and mother shall take no share

139. Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired by her before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as a

(A) full owner

(B) limited owner

(D) None of the above

140. According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, 'minor' means a person who has not completed his or her age of

(A) 14 years

(B) 16 years

(D) 21 years

141. A female Hindu who is major and is of sound mind is legally capable to take in adoption, a son or a daughter, if

(A) she is widow or divorced woman

(B) she is unmarried woman

(C) her husband has completely and finally renounced the world or has ceased to be a Hindu or has been declared by a court of competent jurisdiction to be of unsound mind

(D) AU of the above

142. A junior male member of a Hindu undivided family may be its ’Karta'

(A) when he is able and intelligent

(B) without the consent of the coparceners of the family if he is able and clever

(D) only with the order of the mother

143. What are the main sources of the Muslim Law?

(A) Koran

(B) Sunnat and Ahadis

(D) All of the above

144. By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?

(A) Hindu

(B) Muslim

(D) None of the above

145. With whom a "Shia’ Muslim man is entitled to perform a temporary marriage, i.e., 'Muta'?

(A) Muslim woman

(B) Christian woman

(D) Any of the women stated above

146. Whether a Muslim may give 'Talaq' in the state of intoxication or under pressure?

(A) Yes, recognized under the 'Sunni' Muslim Law

(B) Yes, recognized under the'Shia'Muslim Law

(D) Yes, according to the "Usuli' Law

147. By the third pronouncement (utterance) of 'Talaq', which kind of 'Talaq' becomes effective?

(A) Talaq-e-Hassan

(B) Talaq-e-Ahsan

(D) None of the above

148. Acknowledgement of paternity once made under Muslim Law

(A) cannot be revoked

(B) can be revoked

(D) None of the above

149. In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate children will be kept?

(A) Father

(B) Mother

(D) Maternal grandmother

150. Which of the following gifts is not valid?

(A) Gift in future

(B) Conditional gift

(D) All of me above

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