Constitution of India
1. The mind of the makers of Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(1) The preamble
(2) The fundamental rights
(3) The directive principles of state policy
(4) The fundamental duties
2. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Council of States
(1) President
(2) Vice President
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Speaker of House of the People
3. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President shall be inquired into and decided by
(1) Prime Minister
(2) Council of Ministers
(3) Supreme Court of India
(4) Election Commission
4. Right to Property is a
(1) Fundamental Right
(2) Legal Right
(3) Social Right
(4) Directive Principles of State Policy
5. The words, “Unity and integrity of the Nation” were incorporated in the preamble of the Constitution of India by which Amendment
(1) 41s'Amendment
(2) 42nd Amendment
(3) 43 Amendment
(4) 44th Amendment
6. Who administers, Oath to President?
(1) The Chief Justice of India
(2) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
(3) The Vice President of India
(4) There is no need to administer oath
7. A money bill can be originated
(1) Only in the Lok Sabha
(2) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(3) In both houses simultaneously
(4) At the joint session of both houses
8. By operation of which Article of the Indian- Constitution the Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India?
(1) Article 140 (2) Article 141
(3) Article 142 (4) Article 143
9. Who shall preside the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
(1) Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
(2) Speaker of the House of People
(3) Vice President of India
(4) The President of India
10. In which one of these cases it was held that smoking in public place, is violation of fundamental rights of life and personal liberty?
(1) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
(2) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India and Others
(3) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
(4) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Civil Procedure Code, 1908
11. A suit filed for compensation for a wrong done to a person or movable property shall be instituted in the Court within whose jurisdiction
(1) the wrong was done
(2) the defendant resides
(3) the defendant personally works for gain
(4) any of the rest three options
12. In a suit against Central Government, the authority to be named as defendant is?
(1) the President
(2) the Prime Minister
(3) the Minister of concerned department
(4) the Union of India
13. In an execution proceeding, what is the liability of the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor?
(1) is under no liability at all
(2) is liable only to the extent of the property (1406) received by him from deceased judgment debtor
(3) has absolute liability co-extensive with that of judgment debtor, no matter that he receives no property from the deceased
(4) none of the above
14. No permission to sue as an Indigent can be granted, if
(1) the application does not disclose a cause of action
(2) any other person has agreed to finance the litigation
(3) the interest of applicant in the subject matter stands transferred to another person
(4) all of the above
15. Attachment of portion of salary can be continued for a maximum period of
(1) 6 months
(2) 12 months
(3) 24 months
(4) 36 months
16. Under which of the following conditions a plaint can not be rejected:
(1) if fails to disclose a cause of action
(2) it is not filed in duplicate
(3) the plaintiff fails to comply with the provision of Order 7 Rule 9 CPC
(4) it is filed in a court of incompetent jurisdiction
17. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Temporary injunctions may be granted only at the time of institution of suit
(2) Temporary injunctions may be granted at any stage of suit
(3) Temporary injunctions are regulated by the code of civil procedure 1908
(4) Temporary injunctions are form of preventive relief
18. An ex parte decree can be set aside
(1) under order 9, rule 10 C.P.C.
(2) under order 9, rule 7 C.P.C.
(3) under order 9, rule 13 C.P.C.
(4) under order 9, rule 11 C.P.C.
19. Under Section 100 C.P.C. second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate court to High Court if it Involves?
(1) Question of law
(2) Question of fact
(3) Mixed question of law and fact
(4) A Substantial Question of law
20. Pleadings shall contain
(1) Material facts only
(2) Only Law
(3) Facts and Law Both
(4) Evidence
21. An executing court
(1) can go behind the decree
(2) cannot be behind the decree
(3) it depends on Discretion of the court
(4) None of the above
22. In which proceedings rule 3,4 & 8 of Order 22 of CPC shall not apply:
(1) Civil Suit
(2) Civil Appeal
(3) Miscellaneous Appeal
(4) Execution of Decree
23. No preliminary decree is passed
(1) in a partition suit
(2) in a suit seeking specific performance of sale agreement
(3) in a suit seeking the relief of foreclosure
(4) in a suit seeking a relief of redemption
24. Right to lodge Caveat is provided under the provision of
(1) Section 87-A of CPC
(2) Section 87-B of CPC
(3) Section 135-A of CPC
(4) Section 148-A of CPC
25. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders from any accidental slip may be corrected by the Court under which section of CPC
(1) Section 151 (2) Section 152
(3) Section 153 (4) Section 144
Transfer of Property Act, 1882
26. Under Section 3 of Transfer of Property Act an instrument is defined as
(1) a testamentary instrument
(2) a non testamentary instrument
(3) an official document
(4) all of them
27. Whether one co-owner of immovable property can transfer his share without partition?
(1) he can transfer his share but not a particular portion of the immovable property
(2) he cannot transfer his share without partition
(3) he can transfer his share as well as particular portion of the immovable property
(4) none of the above
28. Does agreement to sale convey title to the purchaser?
(1) No, intending purchaser has right to get conveyance in the terms of the agreement.
(2) Yes, if intending purchaser has paid full consideration.
(3) Yes, if attested.
(4) Does not provide any rights.
29. A gift comprising both the existing and future properties is
(1) void as to the first part only
(2) void as to the second part only
(3) void as to both the parts
(4) not void at all
30. Whether a Hindu person can ‘gift’ his immovable property orally?
(1) Yes, if possession is delivered.
(2) No
(3) It is upon discretion of the donee
(4) None of these
31. Who may sue for redemption?
(1) Mortgagor (2) Mortgagee
(3) Both of them (4) None of them
32. By which of these modes an actionable claim can be transfered?
(1) By registered instrumfent
(2) By an execution of instrument in writing signed by the Transferor
(3) By an instrument attested by two witnesses
(4) By all of them
Indian Contract Act, 1872
33. A contract with or by minor is
(1) valid
(2) void
(3) voidable
(4) voidable at the option of either party
34. In which case fraud is committed by silence?
(1) A did not disclose Bat the time of selling his car that he had stolen the car
(2) A did not tell B at the time of selling wheat about its quality
(3) A did not let B know that price of Gold is likely to fall at the time of selling gold to him
(4) A did not reveal Bat the time of sale that the new Edition of the Book has been published
35. An agreement to ‘sale of goodwill’ for a specified area, to which the purchaser agreed is
(1) Void
(2) Voidable
(3) Valid
(4) None of the above
36. A contract is void if
(1) it is caused by fraud
(2) it is caused by coercion
(3) its consideration is unlawful
(4) All of these
37. A contract is not void If it is made
(1) in restraint of the marriage of a person, not being minor.
(2) in restraint of any trade if the goodwill of trade is not sold
(3) by way of wager
(4) to pay a time barred debt
38. A employs B to beat C and agrees to indemnify him against all the consequences of the act. B thereupon beats C, B is sued for damages by C, which is correct in given options
(1) A is liable to indemnify B for those damages
(2) Only A is liable to C to pay those damages
(3) A is not liable to indemnify B for those damages
(4) None of the above
39. “Contract of indemnity” is defined in which section of Indian Contract Act
(1) Section 124 (2) Section 125
(3) Section 126 (4) Section 127
40. The provision which provides for Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract is provided in
(1) Section 51 of Contract Act
(2) Section 63 of Contract Act
(3) Section 73 of contract Act
(4) Section 125 of Contract Act
Specific Relief Act, 1963
41. Under Section 6 of specific relief act if any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, to recover possession
(1) He has to prove his title.
(2) He has to prove his prior possession.
(3) He has to prove both his title and prior possession.
(4) None of the above
42. In order to succeed in the suit for the specific performance of a contract for sale, the plaintiff has to aver and prove that:
(1) His readiness and willingness to perform the contract
(2) Only, his readiness to perform the contract
(3) Only, his willingness to perform the contract
(4) Only his potential to perform the contract.
43. An instrument is not “settlement” under the Specific Relief Act
(1) whereby an interest in the property is devolved by a will
(2) whereby devolution of an interest in a movable property is disposed of.
(3) whereby devolution of successive interests in an immovable property is disposed of.
(4) whereby devolution of interest in an immovable property is only agreed to be disposed of.
44. A plaintiff, in a suit based upon contract for sale, may. seek the relief of rescission of contract
(1) in alternative to the relief of specific performance
(2) even after the decree for specific performance, under certain circumstances
(3) if it is voidable by him
(4) in all of them
45. “The Jurisdiction to decree of specific performance is discretionary and the Court is not bound to grant such relief merely because it is lawful to do so”. These words are taken from which section of Specific Relief Act 1963?
(1) Section 19 (2) Section 20
(3) Section 21 (4) Section 22
46. Section 39 of Specific Relief Act 1963 is related with
(1) effect of declaration
(2) temporary injunction
(3) perpetual injunction
(4) mandatory injunction
Limitation Act, 1963
47. Section 5 of limitation Act applies to?
(1) suits
(2) execution of decree
(3) appeal and application
(4) all of the above
48. In which section it is provided that, In computing the period of limitation for appeal, review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining copy of the decree or order appealed shall be excluded under
(1) Section 12(1) (2) Section 12(2)
(3) Section 13(3) (4) Section 14(4)
49. Which among the following is not a legal disability under Section 6 of Limitation Act, 1963
(1) imprisonment (2) idiocy
(3) minority (4) insanity
50. Limitation to file suit for possession of immovable property is
(1) 1 year (2) 3 years
(3) 12 years (4) 5 years
M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
51. A landlord who recovers the possession of an accommodation under a Court s decree passed under section 12(1)(e) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act can re-let it within two years of obtaining such possession
(1) with the permission of the Court
(2) with the permission of the Rent Controlling Authority
(3) with the permission of both of them
(4) without the permission of anyone
52. Which proposition is correct:
(1) A landlord can file a suit for eviction on bonafide ground.
(2) Owner can not filed a suit for eviction on bonafide ground.
(3) The landlord must be owner of the accommodation to file a suit for eviction on the ground of bonafide need.
(4) Either landlord or owner can file suit for eviction on the ground of bonafide need.
53. If tenant denies the title of the landlord and setup title in himself In the written statement, Its ground for eviction under section?
(1) 12(l)(b) M.P.A.C.A.
(2) 12(l)(c) M.P.A.C.A.
(3) 12(l)(d) M.P.A.C.A.
(4) 12(l)(k) M.P.A.C.A.
54. If any Land lord contravenes the provisions of sub-section 1 of Section 38 of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
(1) 15 days (2) 1 month
(3) 2 months (4) 3 months
55. A land lord has acquired an accommodation by transfer. He can not sue for eviction on the ground of bona fide requirements under the Section of 12(1)(e) or (f) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 before completing the period of?
(1) 6 months (2) 1 year
(3) 2 years (4) 3 years
M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
56. “Abadi” means
(1) The area reserved in a village in an urban area for the purpose for residence of the inhabitants
(2) The area reserved in a village in a non- urban area for the residence of the inhabitants.
(3) Agriculture land in non-urban area.
(4) Land held as occupancy tenant in non- urban area.
57. Whether Civil Court can declare the entries In the record of rights as null and void?
(1) No, only revenue courts has jurisdiction.
(2) Yes, civil court has jurisdiction.
(3) Jurisdiction of civil court is barred under section 257 M.P.L.R.C.
(4) Yes, but with the prior permission of the High Court
58. The Tehsildar, before whom a dispute of title is raised, in the partition proceeding of an agriculture holding, should
(1) dismiss the proceeding and direct the parties to resolve the title dispute through Civil Court
(2) ignore the question and proceed to partition the holding in accordance with the entries in the record-of-rights.
(3) stay the partition proceedings for a period of three months to facilitate parties to institute a civil suit for determination of the dispute
(4) decide the dispute of the title himself
59. “Agricultural year” as defined in Section 2(c) of the M.P. Land revenue code commence
(1) from 1stJanuary
(2) from 1st April
(3) From 1st July
(4) From 1st September
60. Who among of these is not authorized under section 168(2) of M.P.L.R.C. to transfer the whole holding through Lease?
(1) A married woman who is living below poverty line
(2) A married woman who has been deserted by her husband
(3) A widow
(4) A person in the service of Armed forces of the Union
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
61. Principle of “ Falsus in uno falsus In omnibus” Is
(1) rule of law
(2) rule of caution
(3) not applicable in India
(4) Both (2) & (3) above
62. The conduct of accused Is relevant under
(1) Section 8 Indian Evidence Act
(2) Section 10 Indian Evidence Act
(3) Section 11 Indian Evidence Act
(4) Section 12 Indian Evidence Act
63. A discovery of fact under section 27 of Evidence Act includes
(1) the object produced
(2) the place from which the object is produced
(3) knowledge of the accused to existence of that object
(4) All of these
64. To prove call details report (CDR) of the mobile calls, condition of which section is to be fulfilled
(1) Section 63 Evidence Act
(2) Section 65 Evidence Act
(3) Section 65B Evidence Act
(4) Section 67 Evidence Act
65. How many witnesses are required to prove a fact?
(1) Two
(2) One
(3) At least one eye witness and complainant
(4) No particular number
66. According to Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act “Courts” do not include
(1) Judges
(2) Magistrates
(3) Arbitrators
(4) Persons legally authorise to take evidence
67. Fact judicially noticeable need ....
(1) to be proved like other fact
(2) to be proved like special fact
(3) not to be proved
(4) to be proved as an expert's opinion
68. A fact is said to be “not proved”
(1) Court either believe it does not exist
(2) Court considers its non existence so provable that a prudent man under the circumstance of the particular case, to act upon the supposition that it does not exist
(3) Court believes its existence
(4) When the facts are neither proved nor disproved
69. Under Section 146 of the Indian Evidence Act, which kind of questions can not be asked during cross examination?
(1) To test the veracity of witness
(2) To discover the witness's position in life
(3) To shake credit of witness
(4) Previous sexual experience of victims of offence of rape
70. As per Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 a “Leading question” means
(1) Any question informing the answer
(2) Any question suggesting the answer
(3) Any question directing the answer
(4) Any question declaring the answer
71. Whether a judge can ask questions during examination of witness?
(1) No
(2) Yes
(3) Judge should sit as a spectator during recording of evidence
(4) None of the above
72. News paper report is a evidence
(1) Hearsay
(2) Circumstantial
(3) Primary
(4) Secondary
73. Which of the following is not a competent witness
(1) Dumb
(2) Deaf
(3) Minor
(4) A person unable to understand the questions put to them or unable to giving rational answers to those questions
74. C child was born after dissolution of marriage between F & M. The legitimacy of child C will be taken as conclusive proof only when child C was born with days after dissolution.
(1) 280 (2) 290
(3) 295 (4) 300
75. Which evidence is not a secondary evidence?
(1) Copies made from original
(2) Copies compared with the original
(3) Counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them
(4) Counterparts of documents as against
Indian Penal Code, 1860
76. Right to private defence extends to
(1) defence of body only
(2) defence of property only
(3) defence of body and property both
(4) none of the above
77. Under Section 320 of IPC which of following kinds of hurt is not designated as “Grievous Hurt”
(1) Emasculation
(2) Privation of any joint
(3) Permanent disfiguration of the chest
(4) Dislocation of tooth
78. ‘Dowry Death’ is an offence under
(1) Section 304A of IPC
(2) Section 304 of IPC
(3) Section 304B of IPC
(4) Section 302 of IPC
79. Voluntarily causing hurt on grave and sudden provocation to a person is punishable under?
(1) Section 331 (2) Section 332
(3) Section 333 (4) Section 334
80. As defined in I.P.C. a "Woman” denotes a female human being of
(1) 16 years of age & above
(2) 18 years of age & above
(3) 21 years of age & above
(4) of any age
81. ‘A’ instigate ‘B’ to burn ‘Z’ house. *B’ sets fire to the house and at same time ‘B’ commits theft of property there. ‘A’ is guilty of
(1) Abetting the theft
(2) Abetting the burning of house
(3) Abetting the theft & burning
(4) 'A' is not guilty because offence was committed by 'B'
82. Which is not the ingredient of offence of Dowry Death defined under l.P.C.
(1) Unnatural Death
(2) Death within 7 years of marriage
(3) Women was subjected to cruelity or harassment by her husband or by any other person
(4) Cruelity or harassment with women should be in connection with demand for dowry
83. ‘A’ in good faith believing property of ‘Z’ to be own property, takes the property out of ‘B’s possession. Here ‘A’ commits?
(1) Theft
(2) Criminal Misappropriation of Property
(3) Criminal Breach of Trust
(4) No offence
84. Generally preparation of an offence defined in I.P.C. is not punishable but preparation of is punishable under I.P.C. as an offence.
(1) Theft
(2) Extortion
(3) Robbery
(4) Dacoity
85. Robbery is an aggravated form of
(1) Only theft
(2) Only extortion
(3) Either theft or extortion both
(4) None of them
86. ‘A’ falsely pretends to be in Civil Service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’ and thus dishonestly includes ‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay ‘A’ commits the offence
(1) False Representation
(2) Cheating
(3) Attempt of Extortion
(4) Attempt of Theft
87. Maximum Punishment for Gang-Rape under 376D of IPC is
(1) 10 years
(2) 20 years
(3) Imprisonment for Life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person's natural life
(4) Punished with Death
88. Section 87 of IPC is based on the legal maxim of
(1) De minimis non curat lex
(2) Volenti non fit injuria
(3) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
(4) Doli incapax
89. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion is punishable under which section of the IPC?
(1) 153 (2) 153-A
(3) 153-AA (4) 153-B
90. Voluntarily attempting to throw acid on any persons is punishable under which section of IPC?
(1) 324 (2) 326-A
(3) 326-B (4) None of these
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
91. “Police Report” means
(1) Report lodged by the complainant in the police station
(2) Report sent by officer in charge of police station to superior officer
(3) A report forwarded by police officer to a magistrate under section 173(2) of Cr.P.C.
(4) Report entered in a case diary
92. “Summon case” means a case relating to
(1) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(2) Imprisonment which may extend to two years
(3) Imprisonment for life
(4) None of the above
93. The closure report in a murder case can be accepted by
(1) The magistrate
(2) The court of sessions
(3) The High Court
(4) None of the above
94. Maximum period of Police remand of an Accused Is?
(1) 7 days (2) 9 days
(3) 12 days (4) 15 days
95. Power to grant Anticipatory bail can be exercised by
(1) High Court
(2) Court of sessions
(3) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(4) High Court and Court of Sessions both
96. No order under section 144 of Cr.P.C. shall remain in force for more than
(1) One month (2) Two months
(3) Three months (4) One year
97. If a person who is otherwise competent to compound an offence under section 320 of Cr.P.C. dies then
(1) Offence can be compounded by Complainant
(2) Offence can be compounded by the eye witness
(3) Offence can be compounded by the legal representative of such person with the consent of court
(4) No one is competent to compound the offence
98. The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of?
(1) Death
(2) Imprisonment for life
(3) Imprisonment for a term of ten years
(4) Imprisonment for a term of five years
99. Court may alter the charges framed against the accused
(1) Before beginning of prosecution evidence
(2) Before beginning of defence evidence
(3) Before examination of accused under section 313 of Cr.P.C.
(4) At any time before judgment is pronounced
100. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders may be taken by the Executive Magistrate under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973?
(1) Section 110 (2) Section 107
(3) Section 108 (4) Section 112
101. By which provision of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 the High Court has inherent powers?
(1) Section 474 (2) Section 480
(3) Section 481 (4) Section 482
102. In Criminal Procedure Code 1973 for “PLEA BARGAINING” which new chapter is added
(1) Chapter XXIA'
(2) Chapter XXIIA
(3) Chapter XXIIIIA
(4) Chapter XXIVA
103. What is right about Section 127 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973?
(1) The Magistrate can increase the monthly allowance for the maintenance
(2) The Magistrate can decrease the monthly allowance for the maintenance
(3) The Magistrate can cancel the order of maintenance
(4) All options are correct
104. How many rupees can be ordered as maximum amount for monthly payment for maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973?
(1) 3000/- (2) 5000/-
(3) 10000/- (4) No limits set
105. In Madhya Pradesh offence under section 435 of IPC is triable by which Court?
(1) Any judicial magistrate
(2) Court of session
(3) Chief judicial magistrate
(4) Judicial magistrate of the first class
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
106. An offence under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is Compoundable
(1) If the cheque amount is upto one lakh rupees.
(2) If the cheque amount is upto five lakhs rupees.
(3) If the cheque amount is upto ten lakhs rupees.
(4) Cheque of any amount.
107. A Court can take the cognizance of an offence under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act?
(1) Upon Police Report
(2) Upon Complaint
(3) Upon self Knowledge of Magistrate
(4) Upon other's knowledge
108. Whether director is liable if the cheque issued on behalf of company is dishonored?
(1) Yes, he is liable, if he was in charge of and was reasonable for the conduct of business of the company.
(2) No, only company is liable.
(3) No, director is not liable.
(4) None of the above.
109. Cheque is a
(1) Promissary note
(2) Bill of Exchange
(3) Both(l)&(2)
(4) None of the above
110. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 Maximum punishment of imprisonment and fine is
(1) 1 year and amount of cheque
(2) 2 year and amount of cheque -
(3) 1 year and twice the amount of cheque
(4) 2 year and twice the amount of cheque
General Knowledge
111. Who was Indian Women Cricket Captain in I. C.C. Women World Cup 2017?
(1) Mithali Raj
(2) Harmanpreet Kaur
(3) Deepti Sharma
(4) Jhulan Goswami
112. G.S.T. Stands for
(1) Goods and Services Tax
(2) Goods and Services Transport
(3) Goods Sales Tax
(4) Goods Surcharge Tax
113. River Chambal originates from
(1) Multai
(2) Amarkantak
(3) Janapao Hills (Mhow)
(4) NearRaisen
114. Which of the following place Is famous for Sun Temple?
(1) Amarkantak (2) Konark
(3) Mandu (4) Somnath
115. How many states touch the boundary of Madhya Pradesh?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7
116. India’s first Bullet Train proposed project connects?
(1) Mumbai-Ahmedabad
(2) Mumbai-Pune
(3) Delhi-Ahmedabad
(4) Delhi-Bangalore
117. The last Mughal Emperor was
(1) Shah Jahan
(2) Mir Kasim
(3) Sirajuddaulah
(4) Babdur Shah Zafar
118. Attorney-General of India is appointed by?
(1) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(2) President
(3) Law Minister
(4) Prime Minister.
119. Diabetes is caused by
(1) Liver Malfunction
(2) Kidney Disorder
(3) Pancreas Disorder
(4) Intestinal Parasites
120. In Indian Polity which one is supreme
(1) Supreme Court of India
(2) Parliament of India
(3) Constitution of India
(4) President of India
121. Boundary line drawn on map between India & China is known as
(1) Mc Mohan Line
(2) Red Cliff Line
(3) Durand Line
(4) Red Line
122. “Antyoday” programme is associated with?
(1) Liberation of bonded labourers
(2) Liberation of Child labourers
(3) Upliftment of poorest of the poor
(4) Upliftment of textile labourers
123. Chairperson of “Niti Ayog” is?
(1) President
(2) Vice President
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Minister of Finance
124. Name of Parliament of Israel is
(1) House of Lords
(2) House of representatives
(3) Mossad
(4) Knesset
125. Ice hockey is the National Game of
(1) New Zealand
(2) Canada
(3) Japan
(4) Scotland
126. Where is the First Open Jail in Madhya Pradesh?
(1) Anuppur
(2) Khandwa
(3) Hoshangabad
(4) Jhabua
127. “Badhai” is the Folk Dance of
(1) Bundelkhand
(2) Malwa
(3) Mahakausal
(4) Jhabua
128. When National Law-day is celebrated In India?
(1) 26Janaury (2) 8 October
(3) 26 November (4) 9 December
129. The News paper brought out by Bal Ganga Dhar Tilak to promote Nationalism was
(1) Jugahtar Patrika
(2) Kesari
(3) Anand Bazar Patrika
(4) Hindu
130. Hon’ble Justice Mr. Deepak Mishra is the Chief Justice of India
(1) 44th (2) 45th
(3) 46th (4) 47th
Computer Knowledge
131. Which is correct in following statements
(1) 1KB = 1000 bytes
(2) 1KB = 1024 bytes
(3) 1KB = 1000 MB
(4) 1KB = 1024 Bits
132. Which one of these stores more data than a D.V.D.?
(1) Blu-Ray Disc
(2) Compact Disc
(3) Floppy
(4) Control Unit
133. Brain of any computer system is
(1) Memory (2) C.P.U.
(3) A.L.U. (4) Control Unit
134. In Windows OS Which 6f the following Shortcuts is used to close the currently active application window?
(1) SPACE+ F4
(2) CTRL + F4
(3) SHIFT+ F4
(4) ALT + F4
135. “http” stands for
(1) hyper text transfer protocol
(2) hyper transfer topology protocol
(3) higher text transfer protocol
(4) high triple topology phase
136. Full form of GUI is
(1) Google usual Internet
(2) Guide
(3) Graphical user Interface
(4) Global user Internet
137. To Insert header and footer click on which menu
(1) Insert (2) File
(3) Format (4) Edit
138. Amongst of these, which is the largest unit of storage?
(1) GB (2) TB
(3) KB (4) PB
139. Which of the following devices cannot be shared on a computer network?
(1) Hard Drive (2) Keyboard
(3) CD Drive (4) Printer
140. Computer “Monitor” is also known as
(1) U.V.D. (2) V.D.U.
(3) D.U.V. (4) C.C.T.V.
English Knowledge
141. Find out the correct Synonym for the word “Sporadic”.
(1) Harmless (2) Unruly
(3) Suggestive (4) Random
142. Find out the correct Antonym for the word “Fragile”.
(1) Tall (2) Strong
(3) Broad (4) Heavy
143. Please place the book the desk.
(1) upon (2) on
(3) in (4) over
144. Person who does not believe in existence of God is called
(1) Fanatic (2) Heretic
(3) Athiest (4) Static
145 you apologize, I shall punish you.
(1) Till (2) Untill
(3) Unless (4) Otherwise
146. A disease which spreads by contact is called?
(1) Infectious (2) Contagious
(3) Fatal (4) Incurable
147. Find the correctly spelt word
(1) Abeyence (2) Abayance
(3) Abeyance (4) Abiyance
148. "Procrastination” means
(1) Action of delaying
(2) Action of whispering
(3) Emancipation
(4) Advancement
149. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase— “A blessing in disguise”
(1) An apparent misfortune that eventually has good result
(2) Blessing from bad people
(3) Good luck follows bad result
(4) A curse in disguise
150. “Modus Operand!” stands for
(1) Working with wrong object
(2) Way of working
(3) Manner of non Acting
(4) Projection of future plan
