Constitution of India
1. In which case amendment in the Constitution, shall also be required to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one half of the States to that effect, where such an amendment is in respect of:
(a) Articles 54,55,73,162, or Article 241
(b) Any of the lists in the seventh schedule
(c) Representation of states in Parliament
(d) Provisions relating to Part XII Chapter I
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) (a),(b)&(c)
(3) Only(c)&(d)
(4) (b),(c)&(d)
2. Which among the following is not a fundamental right—
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Equal justice & free legal aid
(1) (a),(b)&(c) (2) Only (a)
(3) Only (d) (4) Only (b)
3. In the Sixth schedule of the Indian Constitution, provisions with regard to administration of tribal areas of some states have been made. Which of the following states is not included therein—
(1) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram
(3) Tripura (4) Manipur
4. Article 17 of Indian Constitution deals with
(1) Education
(2) Health
(3) Abolition of untouchability
(4) Food guarantee
5. Criminal Procedure Code is subject of which list of Constitution of India?
(1) Central list
(2) State list
(3) Concurrent list
(4) Residual list
6. Under Civil Procedure Cede, a Court may not issue a commission—
(1) For elucidating any matter in dispute
(2) For ascertaining the market value of any property
(3) For assessing the amount of any mesne profits or damages
(4) For framing of issue
7. Under which of the following Orders of C.P.C., provisions regarding a suit by indigent persons has been given—
(1) Order XXX (A)
(2) Order XXXIII
(3) Order XXXII
(4) Order XXXIV
8. Under order 43 of Civil Procedure Code, against which order an appeal shall not lie—
(1) An order to set aside or refusing to set aside a sale
(2) An order rejecting an application for permission to sue as an indigent person
(3) An order on an objection to the draft of a document
(4) When the subordinate court has exercised its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity
9. Which Provision (Order) of Civil Procedure Code deals with summons and attendance of witness?
(1) Order 5 CPC
(2) Order 10 CPC
(3) Order 16 CPC
(4) Order 21 CPC
10. Which Provision (Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with production, impounding and return of documents?
(1) Order 13 CPC
(2) Order 5 CPC
(3) Order 17 CPC
(4) Order 24 CPC
11. Under Civil Procedure Code, a litigant having a grievance of Civil nature has a right to institute a Civil suit if cognizance is
(1) Not expressly barred
(2) Impliedly barred
(3) Expressly and Impliedly barred
(4) None of these
12. Under Civil Procedure Code, defendant can ask for temporary injunction against the plaintiff if
(1) Plaintiff threatens the defendant to dispossess him from the suit property
(2) The plaintiff threatens to dispose off the property with a view to defrauding his creditors
(3) If property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by the plaintiff
(4) If defendant threatens the plaintiff to dispose off the property
13. Under C.P.C. 1908, on death of either parties to the suit between the conclusion of the hearing and the pronouncing of the judgment, the suit .....
(1) shall abate
(2) shall not abate
(3) may abate with the permission of the Court
(4) may abate with the consent of the other party
14. Under Civil Procedure Code, who is not exempted from personal appearance in the Civil Court?
(1) Vice-President of India
(2) Ministers of Union and States
(3) Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts
(4) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
15. Under Order 32 Rule 1 of Civil Procedure Code a minor means a person who has not attained his majority within the meaning of
(1) Juvenile Justice Act
(2) Civil Procedure Code
(3) Indian Majority Act
(4) Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act
Transfer of Property Act
16. Which among the following is false statement about the term “Clog on Redemption”
(1) It is an absolute right
(2) It is a statutory right
(3) It can be fettered by any condition
(4) Any condition contained in mortgage deed, which obstructs the right of redemption will be null and void
17. What is the effect of “Holding over”?
(1) The lease becomes illegal
(2) The lease is renewed
(3) The lease becomes extinguished
(4) The lease becomes void
18. Which of the following do not convey title?
(1) Registered exchange deed
(2) Registered will
(3) Registered gift deed
(4) Registered sale deed
19. Within the meaning of Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferee:
(1) is not entitled to value of improvements
(2) is entitled to value of improvements
(3) has conditional entitlement to value of improvements
(4) None of these
20. Which Section of T.P. Act preserves the rule of Mohammedan Law and excludes the applicability of Section 123 of T.P. Act which mandates that the gift of immovable property must be effected by a registered instrument as stated therein—
(1) Section 126
(2) Section 127
(3) Section 128
(4) Section 129
21. Which of the following is not a quasi contract?
(1) Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non gratuitous act
(2) Responsibility of finder of goods
(3) Quantum meruit
(4) Novation
Indian Contract Act
22. ‘A’ contracts to sell and deliver 500 bales of cotton to ‘B’ on a fixed day. ‘A’ knows nothing of B’s mode of conducting his business. ‘A’ breaks his promise and ‘B’, having no cotton is obliged to close his mill. Is ‘A’ responsible for the loss caused to ‘B’ by the closing of Mill?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) To the extent of the loss caused
(4) None of these
23. ‘X’ hires a carriage of ‘Y’. The carriage is unsafe, though ‘Y’ is not aware of it and ‘X’ is injured. For the injury to ‘X’, *Y’ is—
(1) Liable
(2) Not liable
(3) Liable to the extent of 50%
(4) None of these '
24. ‘A’ enters into a contract with ‘B’ to sell him 100 bales of cotton, and afterwards discovers thab'B’ was acting as agent for ‘C’. For the price of the cotton ‘A’ may sue
(1) Only' against 'C'
(2) Only against 'B'
(3) Against "B' or 'C' or both
(4) Neither against "B' nor 'C'
25. Under Indian Contract Act, goods displayed in a shop window with a prize label will amount to—
(1) An offer
(2) An acceptance
(3) An invitation to offer
(4) Counter offer
Specific Relief Act
26. An injunction granted during the pendency of the suit under section 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 is:
(1) Perpetual injunction
(2) Mandatory injunction
(3) Temporary injunction
(4) Permanent injunction
27. Under Specific Relief Act, when injunction can be granted
(1) to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would be specifically enforced
(2) to prevent, on the ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance
(3) to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(4) when the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter
28. As per Section 40 of the Specific Relief Act, ' where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations the court may in a proper case-
(1) cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue
(2) cancel it in whole
(3) cannot cancel any part
(4) None of these
29. The grant of decree of specific performance for the court is:
(1) Discretionary
(2) Mandatory
(3) Arbitrary
(4) Obligatory
30. Under Limitation Act, which of the following shall not be counted for computation of period of limitation:
(1) The day from which the period is to be counted
(2) Time taken by the advocate to prepare memorandum of appeal
(3) Time taken to obtain copy of judgment/order/award
(4) Time taken for obtaining leave to sue as an indigent person
31. A fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgement was
(1) Signed before expiration of prescribed period
(2) Signed after expiration of prescribed period
(3) Oral agreement before expiration of prescribed period
(4) Oral agreement after expiration of prescribed period
32. Whether a court can grant extension of period of limitation under Section 5 on the ground of ‘sufficient cause’ in case of an application under order XXI of the C.P.C.
(1) No
(2) Yes
(3) With the permission of High Court
(4) With the consent of both parties
M.P. Accommodation Control Act
33. If after the tenant has delivered possession on or before the date specified in he order under clause (g) or clause (h) of sub section (1) of section 12 of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, landlord fails to commence the work of repairs or building or rebuilding within of the specified date on an application made to it, Court may order landlord to place the tenant in occupation of the accommodation or part thereof.
(1) Two months (2) Three months
(3) One month (4) Six months
34. Under which Section of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 is provided for fixation of provisional rent?
(1) Section 12(1) (2) Section 12(2)
(3) Section 13(2) (4) Section 13(6)
35. - If a landlord receives any rent in excess of the standard rent as fixed by the Rent Controlling Authority, he shall be punished with simple Imprisonment for a term which may extend to
(1) Three months
(2) Six months
(3) One year
(4) One month
36. Which one is not the correct answer: The Government may, by notification, exempt any accommodation from all or any of the provisions of the M.P. Accommodation Control Act—
(1) which is owned by any educational institution
(2) which is owned by any religious institution
(3) which is owned by any charitable institution
(4) which is owned by any cultural institution
37. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under 12(1)(e) or (12(1)(f), unless a period of has elapsed from the date of acquistion.
(1) One year
(2) Two year
(3) Three years
(4) Five years
M.P. Land Revenue Code
38. Which Revenue Officer is competent to take action under Section 248,250 M.P. L.R.C.
(1) Tahsildar Revenue
(2) Sub-Divisional Officer Revenue
(3) Collector
(4) Civil Judge Class-II
39. Under M.P. Land Revenue Code, what rights of village entered in Wajib-ul-arz record?
(1) Only the right to irrigation
(2) Only right of way
(3) Only other easement
(4) All of these
40. Under Section 113 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, clerical errors which have been made in the record of rights may at any time be corrected by the
(1) Tahsildar
(2) Sub-Divisional Officer
(3) Revenue Inspector
(4) Collector
41. According to Section 57 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, where a dispute arises between the State Government and any person in respect of any right under sub-section (1) such dispute shall be decided by the—
(1) Sub-divisional Officer
(2) Collector
(3) Civil Court
(4) State Government
42. According to M.P. Land Revenue Code, who is not a Revenue Officer?
(1) Naib Tahsildar
(2) Revenue Inspector
(3) Settlement Officer
(4) Assistant Superintendent Land Records
Indian Evidence Act
43. Under Indian Evidence Act 1872, which among the following does hot come under the category of privileged communications?
(1) Communications made during marriage
(2) Communications made by a witness who is unable to communicate verbally
(3) Official communications
(4) Professional communications
44. In which Section of Indian Evidence Act principle of “Res gestae” is enshrined?
(1) Section 6 (2) Section 7
(3) Section 5 (4) Section 9
45. Under Indian Evidence Act 1872, what is not a Primary Evidence?
(1) Document made by printing
(2) Document made by Lithography
(3) Document made by Photography
(4) Document copies of common original
46. Indian Evidence Act 1872:
(A) 'A' agrees absolutely in writing to pay 'B' Rs. 1000 on the 1st March, 2010. The fact that at the same time an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till the thirty-first March, cannot be proved.
(B) 'A' Sells 'B' a horse and verbally warrants him sound. 'A' gives 'B' a paper in these words "Bought of 'A', a horse for Rs. 500". 'B' may prove the verbal warranty.
(1) (A) incorrect, (B) correct
(2) (B) incorrect, (A) correct
(3) Both correct
(4) Both incorrect
47. Under Section 45 of Evidence Act, Opinion of expert witness is
(1) A conclusive proof
(2) is not relevant
(3) is not admissible
(4) is not a conclusive proof
48. Presumption as to electronic agreements is provided in section of Evidence Act.
(1) 85
(2) 85-A
(3) 85-B
(4) 85-C
49. A dying declaration under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act is admissible in evidence:
(1) Only when it is reduced in writing
(2) Even when it is made to a police officer
(3) Only when it is made to a Judicial Magistrate-
(4) Only when it is made to a Executive Magistrate
50. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket: Under the Indian Evidence Act, the burderi of proving that he had a ticket, is on—
(1) Prosecution
(2) Accused,
(3) Complainant
(4) Prosecution witness
51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the statement of hostile witness—
(1) is irrelevant
(2) can be acted upon
(3) cannot be acted upon
(4) has no evidentiary value
52. Under Evidence Act, confession of one accused is admissible in evidence against co-accused—
(1) If they are tried jointly for the same offence
(2) if they are tried jointly for different offences
(3) if they are tried for the same offence but not jointly
(4) if they are tried for different offences and also not jointly
Indian Penal Code, 1860
53. Under Section 230 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the 'following is not or has not been a “Coin”—
(1) The coin denominated as the company's rupee.
(2) The 'Farrukhabad Rupee'
(3) A metal used for the time being as money and stamped and issued by the authority of some state or sovereign power
(4) Lumps of unstamped metal used as money
54. Under Indian Penal Code, which of the following amounts to defamation—
(1) To convey a caution intended for good of person, to whom conveyed or for public good
(2) To make an imputation concerning a company or an association or collection of persons as such
(3) Censure passed in good faith by person having lawful authority over others
(4) Publication of reports of proceedings of court
55. ‘A’ without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. Although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any particular individual. ‘A’ committed offence of
(1) Section 299 IPC
(2) 'Section 300 IPC
(3) Section 304 IPC
(4) Section 304A IPC
56. After Criminal Law (Amendment), 2013 to the Indian Penal Code the offence of Gang Rape is punishable under section:
(1) 376(2)(g)
(2) 376B
(3) 376C
(4) 376D
57. Removal of ornaments dishonestly from the body of the deceased person is
(1) Robbery under Section 392 of I.P.C.
(2) Theft under Section 378 of I.P.C.
(3) An offence under Section 404 of I.P.C.
(4) An offence under Section 416 of I.P.C,
58. Section 511 of Indian Penal Code will apply to
(1) Attempt to commit murder
(2) Attempt to commit suicide
(3) Attempt to commit theft
(4) Attempt to commit robbery
59. Under Indian Penal Code, which of the statement represents the correct position of law? To constitute abetment it is
(1) necessary that the act abetted must be committed
(2) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
(3) necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor
(4) None of these
60. ‘A’ cuts down a tree on ‘B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of ‘B’s possession, without ‘B’s consent. Which offence is committed by ‘A’?
(1) Robbery
(2) Criminal breach of trust
(3) Extortion
(4) Theft
61. Under Indian Penal Code, a married man commits adultery if he has intercourse with a/an—
(1) Unmarried woman
(2) Married woman other than his wife
(3) Any woman except his wife
(4) Unmarried woman without her consent
62. ‘A’ prepares a mark sheet with an intention1 to get a job thereby he committed the offence of—
(1) mischief
(2) cheating
(3) forgery
(4) falsification of accounts
Criminal Procedure Code
63. Under Criminal Procedure Code, the maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a “Summary Trial” is
(1) One month
(2) Three months
(3) Six months
(4) One year
64. Under Criminal Procedure Code, which irregularity vitiate proceedings & shall be void if any Magistrate not being empowered by law
(1) demands security to keep the peace
(2) issues a search warrant under section 94Cr.P.C.
(3) hold an inquest under section 176
(4) sells property under section 458 or Section 459 Cr.P.C.
65. Under Criminal Procedure Code, the period of limitation for taking cognizance of any offence shall be three years
(1) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years
(2) if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three - years but not exceeding seven years
(3) if the offence-is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding ten years
(4) ' if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
66. In M.P. offence under section 317 and 318 of IRC is triable by which Court
(1) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(2) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(3) Court of Session
(4) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
67. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under section 125 of Cr.P.C.’
(1) Wife living in adultery
(2) Major married daughter who can not maintain herself
(3) Both husband and wife living separately by mutual consent
(4) all of these
68. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
(1) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(2) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(3) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 4 years
(4) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 2 years
69. An application filed under section 257 of Criminal Procedure Code is allowed, so the accused will be
(1) Released (2) Discharged
(3) Convicted (4) Acquitted
70. Who can withdraw a case from the prosecution under Section 321, Cr.P.C.?
(1) The State Government
(2) Public Prosecutor Incharge of. a case with the permission of Court
(3) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case even without permission of Court
(4) District Magistrate
71. Can a person discharged under section 258 of Criminal Procedure Code be tried again for the same offence
(1) No he Can't be tried
(2) He can be tried with the consent of the court by which he was discharged ;
(3) No since principle of double jeopardy’ would be applicable
(4) Yes by the consent of the State Government
72. An Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant remand under Section 167 Cr.P.C. for a maximum period of—
(1) 15 days (2) 7 days
(3) 60 days (4) 90 days
Negotiable Instruments Act
73. Offences under the Negotiable Instruments Act are triable by—
(1) Sessions Judge
(2) Judicial Magistrate first Class
(3) Executive Magistrate
(4) Judicial Magistrate Second Class
74. Offence under Negotiable Instruments Act are:
(1) Cognizable & compundable
(2) Non Cognizable & compoundable
(3) Cognizable & Non compoundable
(4) Non Cognizable & non compoundable
75. Which section provides that the offences under the Negotiable Instrument Act are compoundable—
(1) Section 137 (2) Section 141
(3) Section 147 (4) Section 149
General Knowledge
76. Which one is the ‘Open Defecation Free State’ in India?
(1) M.P. (2) Kerala
(3) Goa (4) Sikkim
77. In which state Garampani sanctuary is located?
(1) Gujarat
(2) Assam
(3) Nagaland
(4) Sikkim
78. Bansagar dam is situated on the river
(1) Sone (2) Chambal
(3) Parvati (4) Banganga
79. One Nautical Mile is equal to
(1) 1005 Meter (2) 1250 Meter
(3) 1575 Meter (4) 1852 Meter
80. Who won the Gold Medal for Men’s Javelin Throw in Rio Paralympics games 2016 for India?
(1) Devendra Jhaijharia
(2) Mariyappan Thangavelu
(3) Varun Singh Bhafi
(4) JituRai
81. What is ‘TEJAS’
(1) Air to air missile
(2) Remote operated
(3) Space launching vehicle
(4) First Indian made fighter plane
82. What is ‘Lithotripsy’?
(1) Art of writing on stone
(2) Breaking of Kidney stone through waves
(3) Carbon dating of stone
(4) Breach of calligraphy
83. What is the maximum fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 220 (2) 230
(3) 238 (4) 250
84. World Consumer Right Day is observed every year on
(1) 9 November (2) 5 September
(3) 15 March (4) 10 December ,
85. Who among the following wrote Sanskrit grammar?
(1) Kalidasa (2) Charaka
(3) Panini (4) Aryabhat
86. Who won the first ever Olympic Medal for Women’s Wrestling In Rio Olympic for India?
(1) P.V.Sindhu (2) Dipa Kanhakar
(3) Sakshi Malik (4) Saina Nehwal .
87. Which one of the following Expressway is the longest In India?
(1) Yamuna Expressway
(2) Mumbai-Pune Expressway
(3) Western Expressway
(4) Agra-Lucknow Expressway
88. What is not found in animal cell?
(1) Cell wall of cellulose
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Robosome
89. Where In Madhya Pradesh All India Classical Dance Festival is organized every year?
(1) Pachmarhi (2) Khajuraho
(3) Orachha (4) Gwalior
90. The Ozone Layer restricts
(1) Visible light
(2) Infrared rediation
(3) X-ray and gamma rays
(4) Ultraviolet radiation
Computer Knowledge
91. Full form of URL is—
(1) Uniform resource Locator
(2) Uniform resource Link
(3) Uniform registered Link
(4) Uniform resource Lab
92. IC chips used in computers are made of—
(1) Silicon (2) Chromium
(3) Lead (4) Silver
93. ‘Word Processing’, ‘Spread Sheet’ are ‘Photo Editing’ are example of—
(1) Application Software
(2) System Software
(3) Operating System Software
(4) Platform Software
94. Computer Speed is measured in which of the following?
(1) TB (2) MB
(3) KB (4) MIPS
95. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
(1) mainframe (2) supercomputer
(3) network (4) client
English Knowledge
96. Find out the correct Antonym jof the word ‘Veracity’—
(1) Flasehood (2) Heinous
(3) Ruined (4) Composed
97 the cover of darkness, the enemy crept.......
(1) in, over (2) in, over
(3) under, up (4) through, upon
98. Word which best express the! meaning of the “Nebulous”
(1) Vague (2) Tiny
(3) Insignificant (4) Inadequate
99. What does the Phrase ‘In one’s true colours’ mean—
(1) In point of
(2) In one's favour
(3) As distinct from what one pretends to be
(4) In the end
100. Find the correct spelt word
(1) Aquisition (2) Acquizition
(3) Acquisition (4) Acquisision
