Uttarakhand Judicial Services (Pre.) Examination, 2006

Part-I

General Knowledge

1. In which one of the following cases, where whole-hearing Was conducted by the Trial Court through the Vedio Conferencing first time in India?

(A) Abdul Kareem Mulla 2006

(B) Abdul Kareem Telagi 2006

(D) Telephone Tapping Case 2006

2. Who was the First Secretary General of the United Nations?

(A) Trigve Lie (B) U. Thant

3. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(D) Election Commission

4. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution invest extraordinary power in the Supreme Court of India?

(A) Articles 32,137 and 142

(B) Articles 32,136 andT42

(D) Articles 226,137 and 142

5. The Vice-President of India also holds of office the followings?

(A) Chairman of Finance Commission

(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(D) Chairman of Privileges Committee

6. Right to Property in India is:

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Legal Right

(D) None of the above

7. What is the name of Frontier Gandhi?

(A) Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi

(B) Indira Gandhi

(D) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

8. On which date ‘Law Day’ is celebrated in India?

(A) 26th November

(B) 28th October

(t)) 15th August

9. Who is empowered to set up Commission for the promotion of Human Rights under the U.N. Charter?

(A) The General Assembly

(B) The Economic and Social Council

(D) The Secretary General

10. Which Committee is responsible for Tax Reforms?

(A) Janakiraman Committee

(B) Narasimhan Committee

(D) Chelliah Committee

11. Which one of the following cases decided by Supreme Court led to First Amendment in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Chintamani Rao v. State of M.P.

(B) Bihar Rajya v. Kameshwar Singh

(D) State of Madras v. Champakan Dorairajan

12. Members of International Court of Justice are elected for a period of:

(A) 5 years (B) 3 years

13. Manu Smriti is related with:

(A) Economics

(B) Political Science

(D) Law

14. INSAT-4A, the First Satellite of the Fourth generation, INSAT series, was launched on:

(A) 22nd March, 2000

(B) 28th September, 2003

(D) None of the above

15. Who has been appointed the First Chief Information Commissioner, under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

(A) Wajahat Habibullah

(B) Irfan Habib

(D) Najma Heptulla

16. Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India?

(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(B) The Government of India Act, 1915

(D) The Government of India Act, 1935

17. Stockholm Conference on ‘Human Environment’ was held in the year:

(A) 1972 (B) 1973

18. Who has been appointed the First Chairperson of the ‘National Knowledge Commission’ launched in the year 2005?

(A) Kuldip Nayar

(B) Sam Pitroda

(D) Bharat Jhunjhunwala

19. The power of Governor of a State to promulgate ordinance is given in Constitution of India in:

(A) Article-123 (B) Article-212

20. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(Event)

A. World Library Day

B. United Nations Day

C. Internatidnal Human Rights Day

D. Hiroshima Day

List-II

(Days)

1. 6th August

2. 5th September

3. 24th October

4.. 10th December

Code:

A B C D

(A) 1 4 3 2

(B) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

21. By which Amendment of the Constitution the number of Ministers was limited to 15% of the total number of the House?

(A) 91st

(B) 92nd

(D) None of the above

22. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.

List-I

(Articles)

A. Article 39 A

B. Article 43

C. Article 44

D. Article 50

List-II

(Provisions)

1. Living wages for workers

2. Uniform Civil Code

3. Seperation of Judiciary from executive

4. Free Legal Aid

Code:

A B C D

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 4 1 3 2

(D) 1 4 3 2

23. Which of the following cases is related to Constitutionality of Right to death?

(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(B) Gain Kaur v. State of Punjab

(D) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.

24. Which of the following States, has implemented VAT with effect from 1-10-2005?

(A) Chhattisgarh

(B) Uttranchal

(D) Uttar Pradesh

25. The meaning of ‘Lex Loci’ is:

(A) Law of the Land is Supreme

(B) Law of Land

(D) Law of England -

26. The principle of basic structure in the Constitution was established in:

(A) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(B) Minerva Mills y. Union of India

(D) None of the above

27. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of ‘National Child Labour Abolition Authority’?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Labour Minister

(D) Social Welfare Minister

28. Jain Community has been declared as a minority community in which of the following States?

(A) Bihar

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Chhattisgarh

29. ‘Proper’ respect is shown to National Anthem by standing up when the National Anthem is sung. It will not be right to say that dis-respect is shown by not joining in the signing”. It has been held in:

(A) Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala

(B) Surya Narian v. U.O.I.

(D) Keshvanand Bharti v. U.O.I.

30. The Right to Information Act, 2005 extends to:

(A) The Whole of India

(B) The Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir

(Cl The Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir and Punjab

(D) None of the above

31. In which case the Dissolution of Bihar Legislative Assembly by Governor before formation of Government was declared. unconstitutional?

(A) Rameshwar Prasad v. U.O.I. (W.P. 257 of 2005)

(B) K.C. Vasant Kumar v. State of Karnataka (AIR 1985 SC 1495)

(D) Banarsi Das v. Teeku Datta & Sons

32. VAT is related to:

(A) Banking Service

(B) Business Tax System

(D) None of the above

33. How many members are nominated in Lok Sabha by the President?

(A) 1 (B) 2

34. How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Indian Constitution?

(A) 10 (B) 11

35. ‘Right to Education’ is a Fundamental Right under:

(A) Article-14 (B) Article-19

36. NACO stands of one of the following:

(A) National AIDS Control Office

(B) National AIDS Control Organization

(D) None of the above

37. Which Environmentalist is honoured with Padma Shri by President?

(A) Chandi Prasad Bhatt

(B) BabaAmte

(D) None of the above

38. Which of the following is related to SEBI?

(A) Banking

(B) Share Market

(D) Banking and Insurance

39. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to abolition of untouchability?

(A) Article-17 (B) Article-15

40. On which day World Environment Day is celebrated? .

(A) 5th June (B) 10th June

41. Which one of the following judges referred to emergency as the ‘darkest chapter of the democratic history of India’?

(A) Justice H.R. Khanna

(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

(D) Justice Krishna Iyer

42. For negating the mandate of which Constitutional Provision, the Supreme Court of India had held the Illegal Migrates (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983 as unconstitutional?

(A) Article-249

(B) Article-355

(D) Article-359

43. What was the number of original members of the United Nations?

(A) 52 (B) 55

44. ‘The Constitution establishes a System of Government which is almost quasi-federal’. This was a statement of:

(A) Sir Ivor Jennings

(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

45. For how many days in a year the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 provides for right to Unemployment Allowance?

(A) 125 days (B) 150 days ,

46. Which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 contains the functions of the National Human Rights Commission?

(A) Section-14 (B) Section-13.

47. The Finance Commission consists of:

(A) A Chairman and Four members

(B) Five members

(D) A Chairman and Seven members

48. Who amongst the following is known as the ‘Father of the Law of Nations’?

(A) Grotius (B) Oppenheim

49. What Is Euro-lll?

(A) European Currency

(B) Group of European Countries

(D) Pollution Control Scale

50. The definition of “Information" is given In the Right to information Act, 2005 unddr:

(A) Section 2(g) (B) Section 2(a)(i)

Part-II

Law

51. The statement, “while there is no rose which has not thorn but if what you hold is all thorn and no rose, better throw it away”, relates to:

(A) Restitution of conjugal rights

(B) Judicial separation

(D) Irretrievable break down of marriage theory of divorce

52. Which of the following Section was not inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the Information Technology Act, 2002?

(A) Section-81 A

(B) Section-114 A

(D) Section-47 A

53. ‘A’ wishes to prove dying declaration by ‘B’, ‘A’ must prove B’s death. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides so?

(A) Section 32(1)

(B) Section 103

(D) Section 105

54. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related to dowry death?

(A) Section-113 A (B) Section-113 B

55. Match the following and tick the correct code.

List-I

(Section of IEA)

A. Section-7

B. Section-8

C. Section-11

D. Section-14

List-II

(Relevant Facts)

1. Motive of relevant facts

2. Facts inconsistent with relevant fact

3. Cause of relevant facts

4. Fact showing existence of any state of body

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 1 2 4

(D) 4 3 2 1

56. Which one of the following cases is a case of estoppel?

(A) Sita Ram v. Statepf U.P.

(B) Bal Krishan Das'v. Legge '

(D) Vibhavati v. Ramendra Kumar

57. Wherein a Judicial proceeding the handwriting of a teacher is in question, the opinion of his student may be relevant under which Section of Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section-45

(B) Section-47

(d) Section-46

(D) None of the above

58. In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 27 was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

(A) State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu

(B) Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor

(D) Queen Emperor v. Abdullah

59. Which of the following Section defines public documents?

(A) Section-34 (B) Section-35

60. The general rule is that admissions are proved against the maker. Which of the following Provisions of the Evidence Act provide for exception to the rule?

(A) Section 17 (B) Section 18

61. Match the following and tick the correct code.

List-I (Section of Evidence Act) List-II

A. Section-60 1. Leading question

B. Section-141 2. Hostile Witness

C. Section-154 3. Refresh memory

D. Section-159 4. Oral evidence

Codes:

A B C D

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

62. Which Section of Evidence Act provides that judge will decide as to admissibility of evidence?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 23

63. Under which Section of Evidence Act the witness has been given right to refresh his memory?

(A) Section 145 (B) Section 159

64. ‘A’ is accused of murder of ‘B’ by pistol alleged to by purchased on 15th September at Dehradun. A makes a statement that on 15th September he was at Lucknow, not at Dehradun. A’s Statement is a relevant fact under:

(A) Section 8 (B) Section 11

65. Who amongst the following is an accomplice?

(A) A spy

(B) A person giving bribe under coercion

(D) A prostitute

66. Which of the following judgments is irrelevant under Section 43 of the Evidence Act?

(A) Judgment of an Insolvency Court

(B) Judgment of an Matrimonial Court

(D) Judgment of a Criminal Court

67. Which Section of Evidence Act is based on the Maxim “Salus populist sum remalex”?

(A) Section 119

(B) Section 120

(D) Section 123

68. The Evidence Act provides for exception to the hear-say rule under:

(A) Sections 17-39

(B) Sections 32-33

(D) All the above Sections

69. Which Provision of the Evidence Act provides that birth during marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy?

(A) Section 110

(B) Section 111

(D) None of the above

70. Point out the incorrect answer Evidence may be:

(A) Direct and indirect

(B) Primary and secondary

(D) Procedural and substantive

71. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act?

(A) Sir H.S. Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act.

(B) Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act.

(D) None of the above

72. Cooper v. Cooper (1874) relates to:

(A) Rule against property

(B) Doctrine of election

(D) Transfer for the born child

73. The doctrine of Lis-pendens is based on the principle of:

(A) Public policy

(B) Judicial policy

(D) Delay to be avoided in justice delivery system

74. Which of not specifically mentioned as a kind of Mortgage in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) Equitable Mortgage

(B) Anomalous Mortgage

(D) English Mortgage

75. What can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) An easement along with the dominant heritage

(B) Political pension

(D) Stipends allowed to the civil pensioners of the Government

76. In which of the Section of Transfer of Property Act, the ‘Doctrine of Consolidation’ is incorporated?

(A) Section-60 (B) Section-61

77. Concept of ‘onerous gift’ is embodied in which section of TP Act?

(A) Section-125 (B) Section-127

78. Duration of Agriculture lease in the absence of written contract or local usage under Section 106 of TPA shall be deemed to be a lease:

(A) from the month to month

(B) one eleven months

(D) of twelve year

79. State the correct answer, the familiar rule “redeem up fore-close down” is a combination of Provisions of:

(A) Section 89 and 91

(B) Section 91 and 92

(D) Section 91 and 94

80. ‘A’ gives Rs. 500 to ‘B’ on condition that *B’ shall marry A’s daughter ‘G’. On the date of transfer ‘G’ was dead. The transfer is void under which Section of Transfer of Property- Act?

(A) Section 25 (B) Section 26

81. A right to future maintenance in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined:

(A) can be transferred

(B) cannot be transferred

(b) can be vested

82. A gift of future property is:

(A) valid

(B) voidable

(D) irregular

83. Within the meaning of provisions of Section 67 of the Transfer of Property Act the mortgage remedies by suit are:

(A) for foreclosure

(B) for sale .

(D) all are relevant

84. To which of the following Sections 5 to 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 apply?

(A) Transfers of movable property only

(B) Transfers of immovable property only

(D) Specific transfer and not td general principles of transfer of property

85. *A’-transfer Rs. 5000’to ‘B’ on condition that ‘ he shall execute a certain lease within three months after A’s death and if he should neglect to do so, to C. B dies in A’s life time. Which Section of theTransfer of Property Act, 1882 shall apply in deciding the legal right of ‘O’?

(A) Section 29 (B) Section 26

86. Assertion (A): Section 14 of TPA provides for the Rules against perpetuity.

Reasons (R): This rule is based on public

Select the correct from the code given below: Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

87. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons in ‘dacoity’?

(A) 16 years (B) 07 years

88. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, it is omission, and not an act, which is an offence?

(A) Section 491 (B) Section 296

89. Under IPC, which one of the following Sections makes provision of Solitary Confinement?

(A) Section 71

(B) Section 72

(D) Section 74

90. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Case) (Subject)

A. 'Kehar Singh v. Delhi Administration 1. Right of Private Defence

B. Nawab Ali v. State 2. Criminal of U.P. 1 Conspiracy

C. Vishwanath v. State 3. Common of U.P. Intention

D. Mehboob Shah v. 4. Common Emperor Object

Code:

A B C D

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 2 1 4 3

91. Which one of the following offences is not compoundable under IRC?

(A) Section 323

(B) Section 334

(D) Section 307

92. "I believe in operation Valmiki because every Sant has a past and every criminal has a future”. The Statements is of:

(A) Justice Sikri

(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

(D) Justice J.S. Verma

93. Which one of the following is an incomplete crime?

(A) Public Nuisance

(B) Criminal attempt

(D) Riot

94. A, on grave and sudden provocation from ‘Z’ fires a pistol at Z, who does not die, A is guilty of: '

(A) attempt to murder

(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(D) grievous hurt

95. ‘X’ with the intention to kill ‘Y’ supplies him powdered sugar believing it to be poison. ‘Y* eats the powder, ‘X’ is guilty of:

(A) no offence

(B) attempt to commit murder

(D) abetment to commit murder

96. ‘X’ is a good swimmer. He finds, Y, a child of seven years of age drowning in a canal. He could have saved the child but did not do so. the child is drowned. ‘X* is guilty of:

(A) no offence

(B) murder

(D) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

97. An executioner who execute the death penalty is protected from criminal Iiability under which Section of IRC?

(A) Section 97 (B) Section 78

98. ‘A* finds a purse with money on the high-road, not knowing to whom the purse belonging, ‘A’ picks up the purse. He has committed an offence under:

(A) Section 403 IPC

(B) Section 404 IPC

(D) None of the above

99. Just after theft, a man is found in the possession of stolen goods. The matter relates to which one of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Section 114-A

(B) Section 114

(D) Section 111-A

100. In which Section of IPC the law relating to ‘Dowry death’ is contained?

(A) Section 304-B (B) Section 304

101. What is the age of the child to get immunity from criminal liability?

(A) Less than 10 years

(B) Less than 7 years

(D) Less than 14 years

102. In which case the Supreme Court has struck down Section 303 IPC as unconstitutional?

(A) Machchi Singh v. State of Punjab

(B) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

(D) Mithu Singh v. State of Punjab

103. The law relating to criminal misappropriation of property is given under Section:

(A) 403 IPC (B) 404 IPC

104. Assertion (A): Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.

Reasons (R): Crime is revolting to the moral sense of society.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 1 correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

105. ‘A’ shoots ‘Z’ with the intention of killing him. ‘Z’ dies in consequence. ‘A’ commits:

(A) culpable homicide

(B) murder

(D) none of the above

106. Kidnapping of:

(A) one kind (B) two kinds

107. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Common Intention 1. Theft

B. Common Object 2. Abetment

C. 'Instigation 3. Joint Liability

D. Dishonest Intention 4. Constructive Liability

Code:

A B C D

(A) 3 1 2 4

(B) 2 4 3 1

(D) 2 1 3 4

108. ‘X’ sends through his servant a typewriter to be delivered to ‘Y’ his friend. The servant takes the typewriter and uses it over a period of time. The servant is to be guilty of:

(A) Extortion

(B) Theft

(D) Criminal breach of trust

109. ‘B’ takes a gold ring of ‘A’ out of ‘A’s possession without ‘A’s consent with the intention of keeping it till ‘A’ gives ‘B’ some money for is restoration to ‘A’. ‘B’ is guilty of:

(A) Cheating

(B) Criminal breach of trust

(D) Theft

110. ‘X’ with the intention to cause miscarriage, administered a drug to a pregnant lady ‘Y’, the child in the womb died. ‘X’ is guilty of:

(A) murder

(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(D) causing miscarriage

111. It cannot be committed in a private place:

(A) Murder

(B) Riot

(D) Affray

112. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has laid down important guidelines to abate sexual harassment? '

(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

(B) Apparel Export Corp. v. A.K. Chopra

(D) None of the above ;

113. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’s consent. Here ‘A’ intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to ‘Z’.

(A) ‘A’ uses criminal force to ‘Z’

(B) ‘A’ used force to ‘Z’

(D) All of the above

114. ‘A’ enters Z’s house through a window. ‘A’ commits:

(A) Trespass

(B) House trespass

(G) House breaking

(D) All the above

115. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a human-being by a human-being

Reasons (R): Homicide is always unlawful.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

116. ‘A’ has sexual intercourse with his own wife who is living separately from his under a decree of separation 'without her consent. Which Section of India Penal Code covers this matter?

(A) Section 376

(B) Section 376A

(D) Section 376C

117. Which Order under C.P.C. provides detailed rules regarding judgments and decree?

(A) Order XIX (B) Order XX

118. Which of the provision C.P.C. deals with consequences of disobedience of an injunction granted by Court?

(A) Order 39 Rule 1

(B) Order 39 Rule 2

(D) Order 39 Rule 3

119. Order 21 C.P.C. dealing with execution of decrees and orders contains:

(A) 100 Rules (B) 102 Rules

120. Which of the following is not a case on res- judicata?

(A) Duche’s of Kington case

(B) Chhajju Ram v. Neki

(D) Byram Pestonji Kariwala v. Union of India

121. Which provision of C.P.C. deals with enforcement of a decree against legal representative?

(A) Section 50

(B) Section 51

(D) None of the above

122. An original suit for the value of Rs. 20 lac shall be instituted in the Court of:

(A) High Court

(B) District Judge

(D) Civil Judge (Senior Division)

123. Which of the following provisions of C.P.C. provides for adjudication of claims and objections to attachment of property?

(A) Order 21 Rule 59

(B) Order 21 Rule, 58

(D) None of the above

124. Match the following lists and tick the correct s code:

List-I List-II

(Order of CPC) (Subjects)

A. Order XVII . 1. Execution

B. Order XXI 2. Suit by or against Corporation

C. Order XXIX 3. Suit by Indigent

D. Order XXXIII 4. Adjournment

Code;

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 2 4 1

125. Match the following lists and tick the correct code:

List-I List-II

A-l Section 10 1. Inherent Power of the court

B. Section 11 2. Transfer of decree

C. Section 39 3. Res-judicata

D. Section 51 4. Res-subjudice

Code:

A B C D

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 1 2 3 4

(D) 3 4 1 2

126. Which provision of the C.P.C. provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest?

(A) Order 1 Rule 1

(B) Order 2 Rule 2

(D) Order 1 Rule 9

127. The meaning of written statement is:

(A) suit of plaintiff :

(B) suit of defendant

(D) answer by plaintiff of defendant’s suit

128. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on:

(A) 01.07.2002

(B) 01.04.2002

(D) 01.06.2002

129. Which one of the following Section has been newly added by Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 1999?

(A) Section 87 (B) Section 88

130. Under which provision of C.P.C. the collector may be appointed as a Receiver?

(A) Order 40 Rule 1 (B) Order 40 Rule 2

131. ‘Objections as to local or pecuniary jurisdiction shall be raised at the first opportunity’. This is the essence of C.P.C.

(A) Section 21 (B) Section 22

132. The doctrine of res-judicata is not applicable in the case of following writ:

(A) Habeas Corpus (B) Certiorari

133. All orders and notices served on or given to any person under the provisions of C.P.C. shall be in writing is provided under:

(A) Section 141 (B) Section 142

134. Provisions relating to set-off counter claims are contained in which one of the following orders?

(A) Order VI (B) Order VII

135. The court may compel the attendance of any person to whom a summons has been issued under Section 32 C.P.C. and for the purpose may impose a fine upon him not exceeding:

(A) Rs. five hundred

(B) Rs. one thousand

(D) Rs. five thousand

136. No second appeal shall lie under Section 102 C.P.C. from any decree, when the subject matter of original suit is for recovery of money not exceeding:

(A) Rs. three thousand

(B) Rs. five thousand

(D) Rs. twenty five thousand

137. How many minimum number of judges of the •High Court are required to sign the confirmation of death sentence?

(A) 3 (B) 2

138. An irregularity by the Magistrate in which one of the following cases will not vitiate proceedings?

(A) Making an order for maintenance

(B) Demanding security for good behaviour

(D) Trying an offences summarily

139. Order under Section 144 Cr.P.C. is amenable to writ jurisdiction oh violation of any Fundamental Rights. This was held in case of:

(A) Dibakar Naik v. Pushpalata Patel (1997) 3 Crimes 107

(B) Gopalachari v. State of Kerala 1981 SCR 338

(D) Shelam Ramesh v. State of A.P. (1999) 8 SCC 369

140. Classification of compoundable and non- compoundable offences has been provided under Cr.P.C. in:

(A) First Schedule

(B) Second Schedule.

(D) Section 320 Cr.P.C.

141. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on:

(A) 21st July, 2005

(B) 23rd June, 2005

(D) 20th September, 2005

142. Which provision under the Cod6 of Criminal Procedure, 1973 prescribed the mode of execution of sentence of death that “the convict be hanged by the neck until he be dead”?

(A) Section 413

(B) From No. 42.of the Second Scheduled of the Code

(D) Section 414

143. Which Section of Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Section Court prior to its execution?

(A) Section 366 (B) Section 368

144. The appeal against an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Judicial Magistrate first class shall lie to:

(A) The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) The Court of Session

(D) The Supreme Court

145. In which one of the fallowing Sections of Cr.P.C. provisidns for free legal aid is made?

(A) Section 301 (B) Section 306

146. In which case it was held that second wife of a person, whose husband’s first wife is alive cannot claim maintenance from her husband under S. 125 Cr.P.C. 1973?

(A) State of Haryana v. Santra

(B) . Mahera Biswas v. Sewegata Biswas

(D) None of the above

147. The provisions proving conviction is envisaged in which of the following Sections of Cr.P.C.?

(A) Section 296 (B) Section 297

14^. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India.The offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal,Procedure, 1973?

(A) Section 188

(B) Section 183

(D) Section 186

149. The Court may alter the charge:

(A) before the evidence of the prosecution is taken

(B) before the accused enters upon his defence

(D) before the judgment is pronounced

150. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. conditional order for removal of nuisance may be issued?

(A) Section 110 (B) Section 130

151. A minor child claims maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C., 1973 from his father who is in U.S.A. The Court directed the Magistrate to issue warrant for recovery of amount of maintenance from concerned parents in U.S.A, through Indian Ambassador in U.S.A. It was also held by the Court that if father fails to send the amount-of maintenance, then the Magistrate will proceed according to law. This was held in:

(A) Piyal v. Pradeep Kumar Kamboj, 2000

(B) Sargam Bonia Sreenu v. Kamal, 2000

(D) Ashok Kumar v. Kirpal Singh, 2000

152. Inherent power under Section 482 Cr.P.C. can be exercised by:

(A) Any Criminal Court

(B) The. Supreme Court only

(D) The High Court

153. Match the following lists and tick the correct Code:

List-I

A. S. 290 of Cr.P.C.

B. S. 291 of Cr.P.C.

C. S. 292 of Cr.P.C

D. S. 293 of Cr.P.C.

List-II

1. Report of Government Scientific Expert

2. Evidence of Officers of Mint

3. Deposition of Medical < Witness

4. Execution of Foreign Commission

Code:

A B C D

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B ) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 2 3 1

154. For every distinct offence of which any person is accused, there shall.be a separate charge, where is the exception to this rule in Cr.P.C.?

(A) Section 219

(B) Section 220 and 222

(D) Sections 219, 220,221 and 223

155. In which of the following cases, Section 144 .of the Code of Criminal Procedure has been held constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court?

(A) Madhu Limaye v. S.D.M. Mangare

(B) Nanak Chand v. Chandra Kishore

(D) Mithilesh Kumar v. Bindh Wasni

156. Who amongst the following is not entitled for maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C. 1973?

(A) Illegitimate minor child

(B) Divorced wife

(D) Uterine brother

157. The case of Deena v. Union of India relates to:

(A) capital punishment

(B) hanging as mode of execution

(D) hand cuffing

158. Which one of the following Sections provides prosecution of judges under Cr.P.C. 1973?

(A) Section 195 (B) Section 196

159. According to Section 468 Cr.P.C. no court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year:

(A) after the expiry of one year

(B) after the expiry of six months

(D) after the expiry of two years

160. Any statement made by any person to a police officer under Section 162 Cr.P.C. in the course of investigation:

(A) must be signed by the person making it

(B) may not be signed by the person making it

(D) may be signed by person making statement or the witnesses

161. First Information Report under Section 154 Cr.P.C. relates to:

(A) non-cognizable offence

(B) only a cognizable offence

(D) none of the above

162. How many witnesses are essential at the time of marriage in Shia Law?

(A) No witness

(B) Two witnesses

(D) Four witnesses

163. What is recognition of Muta Marriage among Sunni Muslims?

(A) Valid (B) Void

164. Under Sunni law, if husband gives Talaq, under coercion, intoxication and joke. This Talaq is:

(A) Valid.

(B) Invalid

(D) None of the above

165. What minimum amounts is fixed for dower amongst Sunni Muslims?

(A) 10 Dirhms (B) 2 Dirhms

166. A Sunni Muslim marries with Kitabya girl, the Marriage is:

(A) Valid

(B) Void

(D) None of the above

167. Dower is:

(A) essential incidence of marriage

(B) considerable to the marriage

(D) all of the above

168. Under Muslim Law a will may, be made of:

(A) only one fourth of the property

(B) only one third of the property

(D) the entire property

169. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 gives a right of judicial divorce, on any of the grounds mentioned in it, to:

(A) Both husband and wife

(B) Husband only

(D) None of the above

170. If a Shia male marries with a Sunni female, the marriage will be:

(A) Batil

(B) Sahi

(D) None of the above

171. Which of the following is not personal matter within the meaning of Section 2 of Shariat Act, 1937?

(A) Wakf

(B) Guardianship

(D) Maintenance

172. Widow's right of retention for non-payment of her dower is her:

(A) Personal right

(B) Religious right

(D) Right given under Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939

173. On the ground of Fosterage a Muslim Marriage is:

(A) voidable (B) void

174. Talak-UI-Bidat is recognised by the:

(A) Shias (B) Sunnies

175. Which statement regarding gift under Muslim law is correct one?

(A) Gift can be made orally

(B) Gift can only be made in writing

(D) None is correct

176. One of the following, has no right of pre-emption in Muslim Law:~

(A) Shafi-i-Khalit -

(B) Shafi-i-Sharik ,

(D) Shafi-i-Meherban

177. A creates a waqf of Rs: 40,000 for 25 years in Muslim Law. The waqf if:

(A) void (B) invalid

178. A Muslim makes a death-bed-gift of his half property to his son. What will be the effect of this gift? '

(A) valid

(B) invalid

(D) none of the above

179; A son in Muslim Law is entitled to:

(A) 1/2 of the property

(B) 3/4 of the property

(D) is a residuary heir .....

180. Who said, “Divorce good in law though bad in Theology”?

(A) Justice Mittar

(B) Justice Bachloar

(D) Justice Amir Ali

181. Which one of the following is. not a primary source of Muslim Law?

(A) The Quran (B) Shariat

182. “Quran provides a best procedure for divorce.” Who made; this statement?

(A) Justice Krishan Iyer

(B) Justice Ahmadi

(D) Justice Sagheer Ahmad

183. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 is . based on the principles of which-Muslim schools?

(A) Hanafi School (B) Shafi School

184. A groom of 25 years of age marriage to bride of 15 years of age. Under HiadU Law this marriage is:

(A) void

(B) voidable

(D) illegal

185. In Hindu Marriage bride and bride groom has taken 2V2 steps round the Holy fire. Marriage is:

(A) valid (B) voidable

186. Under which Section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1^9§5 husband and wife are allowed to divorce by mutual consent?

(A) Section 13A (B) Section 13B

187. The decree of divorce has been passed between A and B. A celebrate second marriage with C within six months of this decree. This marriage is:

(A) voidable (B) void

188. Which one of the following is not included in the term of ‘Hindu’ used in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) Sikhs (B) Jains

189. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the minimum period of desertion for filing a suit for judicial separation:

(A) Three years (B) Five years

190. Sapinda Relationship extends upto:

(A) Fourth generation through mother

(B) Fifth generation through mother

(D) None of the above

191. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes provisions for 'Notional Partition’?

(A) Section 14 (B) Section 10

192. The case of Hanuman Prasad Pandey v. Mst. Baboee is related to:

(A) Adoption , (B) Marriage

193. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter and widow. His property shall devolve upon:

(A) sons only

(B) sons and daughter

(D) widow only

194. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which one of the following is not a class I heir?

(A) Mother (B) Father

195. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was tested in:

(A) Saroj Rani v. Sudharshan AIR 1984 SC 1562

(B) Shakuntalabai v. Kulkami AIR 1989 SC ' . 1309

.(D) Nandav.VeenaNandaAIR1988SC407

196. A, a Hindu has two wives W, and W2 and one son S>y wife Wj and four sons, S,, S2, S3 and S4 by wife W2. On a partition of coparcenary property W, and W2 will get:

(A) No share, as neither of them is a coparcenary

(B) 1/4 share each

(D) 1/8 share each

197. Who is eligible to adopt a son?

(A) Who has one natural son

(B) Who already has one adopted son

(D) All of the above

198. A Hindu Male of 30 years of age adopts a female child of 15 years of age. The adoption is:

(A) Valid (B) Void

199. In Hindu Law, a father-in-law is bound to provide maintenance to his widowed daughter-in-law:

(A) out of his own resources

(B) if the daughter-in-law is not re-married