M.P. Judicial Service (Pre) Exam., 2012

LAW & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

(Indian Penal Code, I860)

1. If offence is punishable with imprisonment and fine both, then in default of payment of fine, the maximum term, may be the prescribed maximum term

(A) Equal to (B) Half of

2. Which of the following sections of IPC, Act done in pursuant to judgement or order of a court is not an offence?

(A) Section 78 (B) Section 79

3. ‘A’ by putting ‘B’ in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces ‘B’ to sign on a blank paper and deliver it to ‘A’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(A) Cheating

(B) Extortion

(D) Forgery

4. C, under the influence of passion excited by a provocation given by A intentionally kills A’s child named B. C has committed an offence of:

(A) murder

(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(D) causes the death of 'B' by doing rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide

5. Word ‘Dishonestly’ as defined in Section 24 of IPC means:

(A) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person

(B) With the intention of causing wrongful gain loss, to another person

(C) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person and with the intention of causing wrongful loss to another person

(D) All of the above are true

6. Which one of the following acts is not a mode of abetment under the IPC?

(A) Instigation (B) Aiding

7. The accused was entrusted with some silver for the purpose of making ornaments and he dishonestly mixed copper into the ornaments. The offence committed is:

(A) Fraud (B) Cheating

8. Intention of cause death is not essential under Section 300 (clause):

(A) Firstly (B) Secondly

(Criminal Procedure Code, 1973)

9. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be amended by:

(A) Parliament or any State Legislature

(B) The Parliament only

(D) State Legislature only

10. The Judgment of acquittal passed by judicial magistrate is appealable before Sessions Court in any offence.

(A) Cognizable and non-bailable

(B) Cognizable and compoundable

(D) Non-cognizable and bailable

11. Under Section 313 of the code, purpose of examination of accused is:

(A) to enabling the accused personally to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him

(B) to enabling to accused to know his defence

(D) all of the above

12. FIR (First Information Report) is registered under the following Section:

(A) Section 152 (B) Section 153

13. Under Section 125 of the Court can order to make a maximum monthly allowance for the maintenance up to

(A) Rs. 3,000 (B) Rs. 4,000

14. Where it appears to the Court that the accused do not have sufficient means to engage a pleader, the Court shall assign a pleader for his defence at the expenses of the State. This provision is in:

(A) Section 104 (B) Section 144

15. Any Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may before the judgement is pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of any person. For this he has to take consent of:

(A) Central Government

(B) State Government

(D) All of the three

16. Sentence of death awarded by court of Sessions, the proceedings shall be submitted to confirmation before:

(A) The State Government

(B) The Central Government

(D) The Supreme Court

(Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881)

17. Under Section 138 of the Act, complaint may be made from the date on which the cause of action arises:

(A) 15 days (B) One month

18. Under Section 138 of the Act, maximum term of imprisonment is:

(A) One year

(B) Two years

(D) Depends upon discretion of the Court

19. Which of the following is nota Bill of Exchange?

(A) Share

(B) Demand Draft

(D) None of these

20. The term “a cheque in the electronic form” is defined in the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 under:

(A) Section 6(a)

(B) Section 6(b)

(D) None of these

(General Knowledge)

21. Under which Act public holiday is declared?

(A) Public Employees Act

(B) Contract Act

(D) Consumer Protection Act

22. What is true about the membership of India in the United Nations Security Council?

( A) India is a permanent member

(B) India is a non-permanent member for two years

(D) India is not related to United Nations

23. Financial Emergency has been imposed in India:

(A) Twice (B) Thrice

24. Name of the vitamin that needs no support for its digestion, is:

(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B

25. At ‘Zero Hour’ parliament members can:

(A) seek a vote of no confidence motion

(B) ask questions on any subject without prior notice

(D) vote on finance bills

26. Which state of India was blessed with first woman Chief Minister?

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Bihar

27. Validity of Cheques and Bank Drafts shall be now for from the date of its issuance?

(A) 6 moths (B) 3 months

28. Systolic Pressure occur when the blood pressure is:

(A) Low (B) Maximum

29. The President of Press Council of India is:

(A) Shri Markandey Katju

(B) Shri Pradeep Kumar

(D) Shri Ashok Chawla

30. What is meaning of WLL

(A) Without Land Line

(B) Wireless in Land Loop

(D) With Land Line

31. In which district of M.P. Bandhavgarh National Park is situated?

(A) Shahdol (B) Umariya

32. Which of the dynasty is related to Madhay Pradesh?

(A) Kalchuri (B) Pratihar

33. Which of the following dams is not related to river Narmada?

(A) Maheshwar (B) Indra Sagar

34. Who was the Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh, after recognisation of State of MP in 1956?

(A) Shri Vivian Bose

(B) Shri P.V. Dixit

(D) Shri S.M. Sikri

35. The book, on which the film ‘3 IDIOTS’ is based, has been written by:

(A) Arindam Choudhari

(B) Chetan Bhagat

(D) Amartya Sen

(Computer Knwoledge)

36. Arrangement of data in a predetermined sequence is called:

(A) Processing (B) Sorting

37. Result obtained in computers is called:

(A) Input (B) Output

38. The CPU and RAM (Random Access Memory) are located on the:

(A) Expansion board (B) Motherboard

39. Server of computer that provide resources to other computers are connected to a:

(A) Network (B) Mainframe

40. The operating system is the most common type of software.

(A) Communication (B) Application

(English)

41. Choose the synonym of ‘alert’

(A) Observant (B) Energetic

42. The meaning of ‘locus standi’ is:

(A) a right to be heard

(B) a duty to hear

(D) a fundamental right

43. The phrase “to call in question” means:

(A) To invite a problem

(B) To ask a question

(D) To solve a problem

44. ‘Cold-blooded’ means:

(A) Docile (B) Inactive

45. The proposal of Mohan was accepted by him with open

(A) Mind (B) Arms

46. The word ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were inserted in the preamble of the Indian Constitution by:

(A) 15th Amendment of the Constitution

(B) 49th Amendment of the Constitution

(D) 44th Amendment of the Constitution

47. Within the meaning of under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution the Parliament by law may/ can:

(A) Form new states

(B) Alter areas of states

(D) All of the above

48. The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 of the Constitution of India includes:

(A) A prisoner

(B) Member of Armed Forces

(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is included in the concept of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

(A) Railway Board (B) Judiciary

50. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit the State to make special provision for one of the following which one is that?

(A) Socially and educationally backward classes

(B) A class of specific religion

(D) None of the above

51. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has elaborately issued the guidelines on child labour under Article 23 of the Constitution of India?

(A) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu

(B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India

(D) Both (A) and (B)

(The Transfer of Property Act)

52. The following is not immovable property

(A) Royalty

(B) Right to way

(D) Right to redemption

53. Tangible immovable property of value of this amount or upward, can be transferred only by a registered instrument:

(A) Rs. 100 (B) Rs. 50

54. Transfer of immovable property by way of gift not comprises necessary element is:

(A) Donor and Donee

(B) Acceptance by or on behalf of the donee

(D) Only delivery of the property

55. Which interest is not transferable?

(A) Vested interest

(B) Contingent interest

(D) Interest of the lessee

56. In case of usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagee is placed in possession, he has a right to receive the rents and other profits:

(A) Till the correct is rescinded

(B) Till the mortgage money is paid

(D) For a fixed period of 99 years

57. According to Order VIII Rule 1 the defendant shall file the written statement of his defence within:

(A) 30 days (B) 45 days

58. In second appeal the re-appreciation of evidence is:

(A) permissible

(B) subject of revision

(D) none of these

59. Temporary injunction may be granted:

(A) To restrain any election

(B) To restrain dispossession from property

(D) In all the above circumstances

60. Where may suit for partition of immovable property be instituted?

(A) Where subject matter or property is situated

(B) Where defendant actually and voluntarily resides

(D) Where defendant works for gain

61. Under which of the following circumstances, review of judgment may not lie?

(A) By a decree or order from which an appeal is allowed by this code, but from which no appeal has been preferred

(B) By a decree or order from which no appeal is allowed by this code

(D) Appeal dismissed

62. In which one of the following cases, the court may not issue a commission?

(A) For execution of a decree .

(B) To examine any person

(D) To hold a scientific, technical or expert investigation

63. An ex parte decree can be set aside, under:

(A) Order 9, Rule 10 of CPC

(B) Order 9, Rule 13 of CPC

(D) Order 9, Rule 4 of CPC

64. Right to withdraw the suit, is:

(A) an absolute right of the plaintiff

(B) a qualified right of the plaintiff

(D) Both (B) and (C)

(Indian Contract Act, 1872)

65. In which agreement consideration is necessary?

(A) Contract made on account of natural love and affection

(B) To pay time barred debt

(D) Contract of Indemnity

66. In which of the following circumstances original contract need to be performed?

(A) Novation (B) Rescission

67. ‘A’ contracts to pay ‘B’ a sum of money when ‘B’ marries ‘C’. This is a type of:

(A) Contingent Contract

(B) Vested Contract

(D) Voidable Contract

68. Out of the following agreements which one is not void?

(A) Agreement with handicapped person

(B) Agreement to restrain a marriage

(D) Agreement without consideration

(The Specific Relief Act, 1963)

69. Who may obtain specific performance of contract in his favour?

(A) Any party of the contract

(B) The representative in interest of the principal or any party

(C) When a company has entered into a contract and subsequently becomes amalgamated with another company, the new company which arises out of the amalgamation

(D) All of the above

70. Contract not specifically enforceable:

(A) A contract for the non-performance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief

(B) A contract which runs into such minute or numerous detail

(D) All of the above

71. A suit for possession of an immovable property, under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed within of dispossession.

(A) 6 months

(B) 1 year

(D) 12 years

72. An injunction granted during the pendency of a suit, under section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is known as a:

(A) permanent injunction

(B) mandatory injunction

(D) perpetual injunction

(The Limitation Act, 1963)

73. Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day:

(A) When court reopens

(B) At the residence of judge on the day of vacation

(D) None of the above

74. Acknowledge made after the period of limitation:

(A) Is of no effect

(B) Gives right to an independent and enforceable contract.

(D) None of the above

75. The period for limitation for filing defamation suit is:

(A) 1 year (B) 3 years

76. Counter-claim, under section 3, Limitation Act, 1963, shall be deemed to have been instituted:

(A) on the same day when the suit, in which counter-claim is made, has been filed

(B) on the day on which the counter-claim is field

(D) either (A) or (B) whichever is beneficial to the plaintiff

(M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961)

77. “Accommodation” not includes:

(A) Any land which is being used for agriculture purpose

(B) Garden and grounds

(D) Furniture supplied by the landlord for use in such building

78. A suit shall be filed against the tenant who has neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him within of the date on which a notice of demand for the arrears of the rent has been served on tenant by the landlord.

(A) one month

(B) two months

(D) six months

79. No landlord can institute a suit for eviction against tenant for accommodation let for residential purposes if required bonafidely by the landlord:

(A) for occupation as a residence for himself

(B) for any member of his family

(D) for his married duaghter

80. In the Act under Section 23-J definition of landlord means a “landlord” who is:

(A) A retired Government servant

(B) A widow or a divorced wife

(D) All of these

81. Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, he cannot bring a suit for eviction on the ground specified in clause (e) or (f) sub-section (1) of Section 12 so long the following period has not elapsed:

(A) One year (B) Six months

82. An appeal shall lie against the order passed by Rent Controlling Authority to:

(A) High Court

(B) District Court

(D) State Government

83. Who is nota member of family for the purpose of M.P. Accommodation Control Act?

(A) Unmarried daughter

(B) Unmarried sister

(D) Grandfather

84. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?

(A) Collector

(B) Civil Court

(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be

(M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959)

85. Who is not a Revenue Officer?

(A) Settlement Officer

(B) Revenue Inspector

(D) Naib Tahsildar

86. Whether civil court can decide reinstatement of a Bhumiswami who has been improperly dispossessed under Section 250 of Land Revenue Code?

(A) Yes

(B) No

(D) With the consent of Parties

87. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by the:

(A) Patwari

(B) Kotwal

(D) Tahsildar

88. Under the code a second appeal Against the order passed by Collector shall lie before:

(A) Commissioner

(B) Settlement Commissioner

(D) High Court

89. Who among the following is not authorized under the code to transfer the land through lease?

(A) Widow

(B) Unmarried woman

(D) Co-operative Society

90. The agriculture year will start from:

(A) 1st April (B) 1st June

91. What punishment can be imposed in default of payment of land revenue?

(A) 10% (B) 20%

92. Where a Bhumiswami has been dispossessed unauthorisedly, he will make an application for restitution of possession under Section 250 of the Code, before:

(A) Tahsildar

(B) Sub-divisional Officer

(D) Revenue Inspector

(The Indian Evidence Act, 1972)

93. There is a charge upon ‘A’ committing murder at Calcutta on a certain day. He takes plea that on that day he was at Lahore. This statement of ‘A’ is relevant under which section of the Evidence Act?

(A) Section 8 (B) Section 9

94. During the course of investigation information received from an accused who is in police custody leads to the discovery about arms, cloths, ornament, corpus which are related with the offence are relevant under Section 27 of the Evidence Act. Tfiis principle is laid down in the case law of:

(A) Pulukuri Kottya v. Emperor

(B) Khushal Rao v. State of Bombay

(D) Pakla Naraya Swami v. Emperor

95. Under Section 102 of the Evidence Act burden of proof:

(A) Seldom changes

(B) Never changes

(D) None of these

96. Right to cross-examination of a witness has:

(A) The party who calls him

(B) Adverse Party

(D) None of these three

97. Admissibility of electronic record has been prescribed under section of Evidence Act.