U.P. Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination, 2018

1. To encourage voter’s participation in the democratic process ‘National Voter’s Day’ is celebrated in India on—

(a) 1st November

(b) 5lh June

(d) 25th January

2. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below—

List-I List-II

(A) Fundamental Duties (1) Article 17

(B) The concept of Basic Features of the Constitution (2) Article 368

(D) Amendment of the Indian Constitution (4) Kesawanand Bharati Case

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 3 2

(a) 3 4 1 2

(a) 3 2 1 4

(a) 3 2 4 1

3. The maximum duration of ‘Zero - Hour’ in the Lok Sabha is—

(a) 30 minutes (b) 60 minutes

4. Who advises the state government on legal matters?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(d) None of the above

5. The courts in India can interfere in electoral matter only:

(a) On the basis of Public interest petition.

(b) On the basis of Election petition.

(d) On the basis of Group interest petition.

6. Given below are two statements; one labelled as Assertion (a) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A): The President is a part of Parliament.

Reason (R): A bill passed by the two Houses of parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President.

In the context of the above statements which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.

(b) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not a. correct explanation of 'A'

(d) 'A' is false but 'R' is true.

7. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Prohibition

(d) Certiorari

8. Which one of the following tasks is not performed by the Election Commission?

(a) Preparing the electoral rolls.

(b) Setting up polling-booths.

(d) Supervising the Panchayat Elections.

9. Which of the following articles was judicially reviewed in the ‘S.R. Bommai’s Case’ by the nine Judges Bench of the Supreme Court?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356

10. is the guardian of public fund in India?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(d) Comptroller and Auditor General

11. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution is:

(a) a permanent provision

(b) a regular provision

(d) None of the above

12. Consider the following terms and arrange them in Chronological order—

(I) Law (II) Bill

(III) Proposal (IV) Act

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

(a) ii, iii, i, iv (b) iv,ii,iii,.i

13. Which one of the following features is not correct about the writ-committee of the Indian Parliament?

(a) It consists of 15 members.

(b) All members are nominated by the speaker.

(d) If Deputy-Speaker is its member, he heads the committee.

14. Choose your correct answer from the options given below regarding the number of states and Union Territories in India?

(a) 28 States and 6 Union Territories

(b) 29 States and 7 Union Territories

(d) 28 States and 5 Union Territories

15. Which of the following is not included in the list of Fundamental Duties in the Article 51 (a) of the Indian Constitution?

(a) To Caste Vote in general elections.

(b) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

(d) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

16. Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission of India and give the correct answer—

(a) It was organised in 1993.

(b) Its president and members are appointed by the President of India.

(d) All of the above are correct.

17. Which of the following is not found today a general characteristic of the party system in India?

(a) Fragmentation and polarisation of parties.

(b) Most of the parties are based on ideology and concerned with national interest.

(d) Mushroom growth of political parties.

18. In which of the following years ‘Swavalamban Scheme’ was launched as a function of the welfare state in India?

(a) October 2012

(b) September 2014

(d) September 2010

19. Which of the following fundamental rights is not available to foreign citizens?

(a) Equality before law.

(b) Freedom of expression.

(d) Right against exploitation.

20. With reference to the reservation of seats for women in Panchayat Raj institutions, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) It is provided for in Article 243D (3)of the Indian Constitution.

(2) The reservation shall cease to have effect on expiration of the period specified in Article 334.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

21. Which sector contributes maximum share in the National Income of India?

(a) Agricultural Sector

(b) Industrial Sector

(d) None of the above

22. Taxes raised are credited into:

(a) Consolidated Fund

(b) Contingency Fund

(d) Private Accounts

23. Which Five Year Plan has laid emphasis on “Faster, Sustainable and Inclusive growth”?

(a) Eleventh Five Year Plan

(b) Twelfth Five Year Plan

(d) Ninth Five Year Plan

24. The economic development process is concerned with-

(a) a rise in per capita income.

(b) a rise in percentage of G.D.P.

(d) all of the above

25. The Central Banking Functions in India are performed by:

(a) Central Bank

(b) SBI

(d) Both (b) and (c)

26. The income tax in India is:

(a) Direct and Proportional

(b) Indirect and Progressive

(d) Indirect and Proportional

27. Consider the following statements:

(1) India has attained self-sufficiency in almost all consumer goods.

(2) For capital goods India still depends on imports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Codes:

(a) 1 is true but 2 is false.

(b) 2 is true but 1 is false.

(d) Both 1 and 2 are false.

28. If the Cash Reserve Ratio is lowered by the R.B.I., what will be its impact on credit - creation?

(a) Will get decreased.

(b) Will get increased.

(d) None of the above impacts.

29. Which institute estimates National Income of India?

(a) I.S.I.

(b) R.B.I.

(d) NABARD

30. ‘Gilt - edged’ market means:

(a) market of guns.

(b) market of government securities.

(d) market of pure metals.

31 .‘ECOMARC’ symbol is related to:

(a) Export goods.

(b) Import goods.

(d) Goods safe for environment.

32. Fill-in the blank from the codes given below:

‘During the last decade, a perception is

growing in the World that China and India are becoming two major in the world’.

Codes:

(a) economic superpowers

(b) atomic, superpowers

(d) None of the above

33. Which of the following commodities has highest export from India in 2017?

(a) Agriculture and allied products.

(b) Chemicals.

(d) Textiles.

34. ‘TRAP is a regulatory body associated with which of the following sectors:

(a) Transport

(b) Tourism

(d) Technical Education

35. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit of Indian' Government as a percentage of GDP was higher in 2017-18 as compared to Budget estimates.

Reason .(R): Growth in indirect tax collection was relatively lower during 2017-18 on account of introduction of GST.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (a) is false but (R) is true.

36. ‘Special Drawing Rights’ (SDRs) is available at:

(a) IBRD/World Bank

(b) IMF

(d) OECD

37. The main reason for the high growth of money supply in India since 1990 is:

(a) Taxation

(b) Foreign borrowing

(d) Budgetary expenditure

38. Which one is the apex institution in the sphere of agricultural financing in India?

(a) Corporation Bank

(b) Co-operative Bank

(d) NABARD

39. The author of ‘Planned Economy for India’ is:

(a) Sir M. Visvesvaraya

(b) Dr. K. P. Mathur

(d) C. V. Raman

40. India gets the largest share of its G.D.P. from which of the following sectors?

(a) agriculture Sector

(b) Industry Sector

(d) None of the above

41. Which of the following is not the function of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Issue of bank notes.

(b) Banker to Government.

(d) Custodian of cash, reserves of Commercial Banks.

42. The Data Security Council of India (DSCI) of NASSCOM signed an agreement with which state-government to set up the ‘Centre of Excellence’ for cyber security?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) Karnataka

43. The W Finance Commission recommended, among other things, to raise the share of states in the net proceeds of divisible pool of central tax to:

(a) 32% (b) 29.5%

44. The first ‘Deendayal Handicraft Sankul’ trade facilitation centre is located at:

(a) Prayagraj (b) Agra

45. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) 110 (b) 111

46. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): India’s position is second in the world in fresh water fish production.

Reason (R): In India there are more than 18000 types of fishes found

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Code:

(a) (a) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (a) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (a) is false and (R) is correct.

47. With reference to the ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ which of the following statement/s is /are correct?

(1) To increase livelihood security through water security in rural areas.

(2) Adoption and utilization of traditional knowledge in water conservation and its management.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Much labour is not required for cultivation of wheat.

Reason (R): In the cultivation of wheat, equipments are used more.

Give the correct answer with the help of codes given below:

(a) (a) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (a) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (a) is false and (R) is correct.

49. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List -I List-II

(State) (Atomic Power station)

(a) Gujarat (1) Rawatbhata

(b) Maharashtra (2) Kaiga

(d) Rajasthan (4) Tarapur

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 3 4 2 1

(d) 4 3 1 2

50. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Tank is one of {he main source of irrigation in Peninsular India.

Reason (R): In Peninsular India most of the rivers are seasonal.

Give the correct answer using the codes given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true-and (R) correctly explains (A).

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(d) (a) is false but (R) is true.

51. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Southern branch of jet-stream influences the formation of winter season in India to a great extent.

Reason (R): This jet - stream plays an important role in the cyclones which appear in North - Western parts of India during the winter season.

Give the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

(d) (a) is false but (R) is correct.

52. Consider the following statements related to ecological farming:

(1) The basic principle of ecological fanning system is to take production from nature to its capacity.

(2) Make minimum interference in the natural activity of nature.

(3) Compensate the exhausted nutrients of land with the natural nutrients of nature.

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

53. In which state of India the percentage of Schedule Castes is highest?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Punjab

54. From the economic point of view most important forests are—

(a) Tidal

(b) Evergreen

(d) Mountainous

55. In India the Golden Revolution is related with:

(a) Woollen Production

(b) Oil Seeds Production

(d) Horticulture

56. Where has the tallest rock - cut image of Nrisimha been found?

(a) Chandpur (b) Dudhai

57. Which of the following books is known as “Shatsahastri Samhita”?

(a) Brihatsamhita

(b) Mahabharata

(d) Manusmriti

58. Who has given an excellent description of the surgical instruments in ancient India?

(a) Charaka

(b) Aryabhatta

(d) Vamanacharya

59. How many images of Yoginis are preserved in the “Chaunsatha Yogini Temple” at Bheraghat?

(a) 64 (b) 54

60. Which of the following book/books are not written by Kalidas?

(1) Ritusamhara

(2) Kiratarjuniya

(3) Mrichhkatikam .

(4) Malvikagnimitram

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 both

61. Which one of the following temples has been described as ‘a landmark in the evolution of the building art’ by Percy Brown?

(a) Brihadishvara temple at Tanjore

(b) Brihadishvara temple at Gangai - kondacholapuram

(d) Kailasa temple at Ellora

62. Which of the following Greek historians has been called the ‘Father of History’?

(a) Nearchus (b) Herodotus

63. Which of the following kings of Rashtrakuta dynasty built the famous Kailash temple of Ellora?

(a) Dantiverman (b) Krishna I

64. Who amongst the following was also a poet and a musician and took delight in his title of ‘Kaviraja’ or The king of Poets’?

(a) Chandfagupta

(b) Samudragupta

(d) None of the above

65. Which of the following ruler of the Chalukyas of Vatapi also maintained diplomatic relations with Iran?

(a) Jayasimha

(b) Pulakesinll

(d) Vikramaditya II

66. From which city of Indus Valley Civilisation do we get the evidence of the conservation of potable water?

(a) Mohan Jodaro (b) Lothal

67. Which Indian ruler appointed ‘Dharmamahamatra’ for the first time?

(a) Chandragupta Maurya

(b) Samudragupta

(d) Ashoka

68. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer ding the code given below:

List-I

(a) Vaishesik Philosophy

(b) Sankhya Philosophy

(d) Nyaya Philogophy

List-II

describes the rules for Jaina monks?

(a) Acharangasutra

(b) Bhagavati-sutra

(d) Bhadrabahucharita

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 3 2 4 1

(d) 3 2 1 4

69. Which one of the following Jain texts own signature on it?

(a) Madhuban inscription

(b) Banskheda inscription

(d) Sonipat inscription

70. Which inscription of king Harshvardhan has his own signature on it?

(1) Gautam

(2) Patanjali

(3) Kartada

(4) Kapila

71. Who of the following kings has been called ‘Saptam Chakravarty’?

(a) MihirBhoja

(b) Bhoja Paramar

(d) Kama Kalachuri

72. Consider the following events and arrange these in a chronological order:

(1) Battle of Ghaghra

(2) Birth of Akbar

(3) Battle of Chausa

(4) Hamayun's Kalinjar expedition.

74. The famous literary work ‘Kitabul Hind’ was written by:

(a) Alberuni

(b) Badayuni

(d) Kaphi-klian

75. Who built kabulibagh Mosque at Panipat?

(a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb

76. What was the real name of Birbal?

(a) Ramdas (b) Shyamdas

77. Who was the Sultan of Delhi at the time of Timur’s invasion?

(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(b) Feroz Tughlaq

(d) Nasiruddin Mahmud Tuglaq

78. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

(a) Royal Title Act

(b) Indian Civil Services Act

(d) Indian Universities Act

List-II

(1) 1861 (2) 1929

(3) 1904 (4) 1876

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 3 2 4

79. Which of .the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Pindari War—Lord Hastings

(b) First Afghan War—Lord Auckland

(d) Second Sikh War—Lord Hardinge

80. By which rule the Sati-Pratha was stopped?

(a) Rule XII (b) Rule XIV

81. Who amongst the following brought out “Voice of India”?

(a) Surendra Nath Bannerjee

(b) Dada Bhai Naoroji -

(d) Christopher Paul

82. When was the “Dak-Khana Act” passed?

(a) 1852 (b) 1853

83. Who amongst the following leaders published “New Lamps for Old”?

(a) Bipin Chandra Pal

(b) SurendraNath Bannerjee

(d) Aurobindo Ghosh

84. The working of LED system is based on which principle?

(a) Fluorescence

(b) Phosphorescence

(d) None of the above

85. Which of the following is not true for nano materials?

(a) Nano-carbon is stronger than steel

(b) Nano-fibre cloths do not get dirty.

(d) Homeopathy uses nano-materials

86. Which of the following has the highest pH?

(a) Gastric juice

(b) Bile in the gall bladder

(d) Saliva

87. Which gas plays main role in the Green House effect?

(a) H2 (b) N2

88. In information technology HTML represents:

(a) Human Text Markup Language

(b) High Text Markup Language

(d) Hyper Text Markup Language

89. Which of the following diseases are/is caused by bacteria?

(1) Leprosy

(2) Plague

(3) Mumps

(4) Polio

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 3 are correct

(b) 1 and 2 .are correct

(d) All are correct

90. The largest organ of human body is:

(a) Liver

(b) Intestine

(d) Skin

91. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I (Name of Test)

(A) MontouxTest

(B) ElisaTest

(D) Tourniquet Test

List -II (Name of disease)

(1) AIDS.

(2) Dengue fever

(3) Tuberculosis

(4) Typhoid

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 4 1 2 3

(d) 3 1 4 2

92. Which of the following statements is not true about the optical fibres?

(a) They provide longer number of. connectivity for telephones.

(b) They are less noisy,

(d) They have longer life-time.

93. Jarvic 7 is:

(a) Pacemaker

(b) Artificial limb

(d) Artificial Cornea

94. Sun is getting energy from which of the following?

(a) Nuclear Fission

(b) Chemical Reaction

(d) Photoelectric Effect

95. The core of the transformer is laminated so as to:

(a) reduce energy loss due to eddy current.

(b) make it robust and strong,

(d) make it light weight

96. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) In solar cooker concave mirror is used.

(2) In loud speaker electrical energy is converted into sound energy.

(3) In motor electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Codes:

(a) only 1 and 2 , (b) only 2 and 3

97. Which of the following is the strongest force in nature?

(a) Gravitational force

(b) Nuclear force

(d) Magnetic force

98. Which of the following celestial bodies contains abundant quantities of Helium - 3, a potential source of energy?

(a) Earth (b) Saturn

99. Which of the following causes more severe burns?

(a) Boiling water

(b) Hot water

(d) Melting iceberg

100. About what percentage of the World’s fresh water is in Antarctica?

(a) 50 (b) 40

101. What is true for RADAR?

(a) This is a technique to see hidden objects.

(b) This is a method to detect fighter planes.

(d) This method is only for night vision.

102. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I

(a) 98.4°F '

(b) 76 cm of Hg

(d) 32Ib

List-II

(1) Atmospheric pressure

(2) Human blood pressure .

(3) Body Temperature

(4) Tyre - pressure of Car.

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 2 3 1

103. In which kind of pot food will be cooked faster?

(a) Steel (b) Copper

104. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

(1) Agni-5 is country's longest-range surface to air Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)

(2) Its full range is more than 5000 k.m.

(3) It was launched from Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh)

(4) India joined the elite club of U.S.A., Russia, France and China by successfully test firing nuclear capable Agni.

Select the correct answer from the code:

Codes:

(a) 1,2,3

(b) 1,2,4

(d) 2,4.1

105. Name the missile test-fired successfully on May 21, 2018 from the Odisha coast, which was an Indo-Russian joint venture.

(a) Agni-5 (b) Brahmos

106. Match List-I with List-Il and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

List-I

(a) Internet speed

(b) Pen - drive memory

(d) Yahoo

List-II

(1) 8G.B.

(2) Mbps

(3) E-mail

(4) Social media

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 1 2 3 4

107. Which of the following is not caused by bacteria?

(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid

108. With reference to cancer, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) biopsy is related to cancer.

(2) Carbon-di-oxide laser is used for removing brain tumour.

Select the correct answer using the cod given below.

Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

109. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) In 1968 first case of AIDS was detected in India. -

(2) In 1992 India's first AIDS control programme (1992-1999) was launched and also National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) was constituted to implement the program.

(3) The National Council on AIDS is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Code: ;

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

110. Which kind of engine is likely to have minimum pollution?

(a) Petrol engine

(b) Gas engine

(d) Kerosene engine

111. With reference to human blood which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) In a healthy male the percentage of haemoglobin is more as compared to what it is in a normal healthy female.

(2) The normal value of platelet counts in human blood ranges from 2,00,000 to 4,50,000 c.m.m.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

112. Match List-I with List-Il and select correct answer from the codes given below.

List-I List-II

(A) Atom bomb (1) Heat energy

(B) Melting of ice (2) Nuclear energy

(D) Sunrise (4) Sound energy

A B CD

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 4 1 3 2

(d) 1 2 3 4

113. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Passive euthanasia was made legal in India by Supreme Court of India in 2018.

(b) For passive euthanasia, patients must consent through a living will.

(d) For passive euthanasia patients must be either terminally ill or in a vegetative state.

114. Diamond is hard because—

(a) It cannot be burnt.

(b) It is made up of carbon atoms.

(d) All the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atom by covalent bonds.

115. ‘Athelete’s foot’ is a disease caused by

(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi

116. Which of the following is correct pledge set for the countries to limit their temperature by 2050 by a U.N. body?

(a) to reduce temperature by 1.5° C.

(b) to reduce temperature by 2° C.

(d) None of the above

117. Consider the following statements and give the correct answer using the codes given below.

(1) The United Nations Secretary-General declared 2019-2028 as the Nelson Mandela Decade of Peace' on Sept. 25, 2018.

(2) He also unveiled statue of Nelson Mandela at the U.N. on Mandela's 100th birth anniversary.

Code:

(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) 2 only

(d) None of the above

118. The World Cup Hockey Tournament which was organized in Nov. 2018 in which of the following cities of India?

(a) New Delhi

(b) Bhubaneshwar

(d) Kolkata

119. Two Indians, Dr. Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuk, received a prestigious award on 31s1 August, 2018. Name the award.

(a) World Excellence Award, 2018

(b) Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018'

(d) Ramon Magsaysay Award, 2018

120. Who Won the Women Single’s title in the U.S. Opens Tennis Tournament, 2018?

(a) Serena Williams

(b) Anastasija Sevastova

(d) Elena Vesnina

121. The “Me Too” campign has been initiated to help which of the following?

(a) Below Poverty Line Women.

(b) SC/STCategory.

(d) SC/ST Women.

122. Which country levied a tax on WhattsApp and Facebook in June 2018?

(a) Uganda (b) Zambia

123. The book entitled “Twilights Children” is based on the lives of people suffering from?

(a) AIDS

(b) Down Syndrome

(d) Blindness

124. Which of the following will be the host country for the official World Tourism Day Celebrations in 2019?

(a) Spain (b) Thailand

125. Which country has become a popular hub of medical tourism?

(a) Mexico (b) India

126. The International Women—Entrepreneurs Summit was held from Sept. 3,2018 to Sept. 5,2018 in which country?

(a) India (b) U.K.

127. Who has been awarded the United Nations ‘UNEP Champions of the Earth’ award, 2018?

(a) Kailash Satyarthi

(b) Narendra Modi

(d) Donald Trump

128. In which of the following countries referendum was held in May 2018 to make abortion law flexible?

(a) Netherlands (b) Sweden

129. While Validating “Aadhar” the Supreme Court of India makes it essential for which of the following?

(a) Bank-account

(b) Credit-card

(d) Filing Income-tax Return

130. Prof. G. D. Agrawal, who expired on Oct 10, 2018, was on a fast unto death for which cause?

(a) Deforestation

(b) Plastic - free India

(d) Swachchta Abhiyan

131. ‘Paryatan Pafva’ was organized nation wide in India from 16 to 27, September, 2018. Which of the following was not among the three main components of the ‘Parva’?

(a) Dekho Apna Desh.

(b) Tourism for All.

(d) Tourism and Digital Technology.

132. Name the woman who created history on Feb. 22, 2018 by becoming the 1st Indian Woman Fighter pilot to fly solo—

(a) Taniya Sanyal

(b) Avani Chaturvedi

(d) Manika Batra

133. “Hamara Swasthya, Hamari Awaaz” campaign has been initiated by whom?

(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

(b) Family Planning Association of India.

(d) World Health Organisation

134. Food Safety and Standards has allowed use of which gas for ripening of fruits in Regulation, 2015?

(a) Methane (b) Ethylene

135. An appeal to “Gift a Skill” was made by Minister for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship on the occasion of:

(a) Reksha Bandhah

(b) Vishwakarma Pooja

(d) International Labour Day

136. What has the Kailash Sodhani Committee recommended in its report in Oct. 2018?

(a) More democracy on Campuses.

(b) Sports Philosophy to be taught as a subject.

(d) Compulsory revival of student's > Unions.

137. The Union Ministry of Social Justice released its data about beggars in the country on March 23, 2018. Which Indian State has the highest number of beggars according to it?

(a) Bihar .

(b) West Bengal

(d) Tamil Nadu

138. Name the dissenting judge of the Supreme Court verdict in the Sabarimala Devasthanam Case.

(a) Justice Chandrachud

(b) Justice Leela Seth

(d) Justice Deepak Mishra

139. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(1) "Titli" is the name given to the severe cyclonic storm rising from the Bay of Bengal on 11.10.18.

(2) The two Indian states worst hit by it are Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Codes:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

140. Union Cabinet has approved establishment of National Institute of Mental Health and Rehabilitation in:

(a) Sehore District (Madhya Pradesh)

(b) Deoria District (Uttar Pradesh)

(d) Katni District (Madhya Pradesh)

141. Which of the following is not correctly matching.

National Parks States

(a) Intauki Nagaland

(b) Singlila West Bengal

(d) Tadoba Maharashtra

142. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I, List-II

(Dam Project) (State)

(A) GhatPrabha (1) Odisha

(B) Ukai (2) Maharashtra

(D) Koyana (4) Gujarat

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 1. 3 2 4

(d) 2 1 3 4

146. Which of the following states has largest production of rice?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) West Bengal

(d) Andhra Pradesh

147. World’s highest road is in India where is it?

(a) Leh and Srinagar

(b) Leh and Manali

(d) Jammu and Shimla

148. On what percentage of the total agricultural land food crops are grown in India?

(a) 60% (b) 70%

149. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the codes given below.

(1) Sunderbans

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Himachal Pradesh

(4) Silent Valley

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 2 1

150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List-I'

(A) Tropical Forest

(B) Coniferous Forest

(D) Deciduous Forest

List-II

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Himachal Pradesh

(4) Silent Valley

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 2 1

1. The constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly on—

(a) 24 January, 1950

(b) 26 November, 1949

(d) 10 December, 1948

2. The short title of the Constitution “Constitution of India” is mentioned under Article—

(a) 1 (b) 5

3. In educational institutions reservation of seats in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by—

(a) Article 15(4) of the Constitution

(b) Article 16(4) of the Constitution

(d) Article 14 of the Constitution

4. Which of the following has been described by Justice Gajendragadkar as the “very foundation and corner stone of the democratic way of life ushered in this country by the Constitution”?

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Principles of State Policy

5. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017) was decided by—

(a) a Bench of 9 Justices

(b) a Bench of 7 Justices

(d) a Bench of 5 Justices

6. In which of the following case, majority judgement of the Supreme Court held that Aadhar not only gave them a unique identity but also a life dignity?

(a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India.

(b) B. L. Kapoor v. State of Karnataka

(d) None of the above

7. In which case, the Supreme Court has observed that “Social morality also changes from age to age”?

(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(b) NALSAv. Union of India

(d) A. K. Gooalah v. State of Madras

8. Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Article 39A

(B) Artice 213

(D) Article 50

List-II

(1) Ordinance issuing power of the Governor

(2) Uniform Civil Code

(3) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

(4) Free Legal Aid

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 4 1 3 2

(d) 1 4 3 2

9. Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19(2).

Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy have been declared superior to the Fundamental Rights.

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

10. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Power to grant pardon

(B) Executive power of the Union

(D) Appointment of Attorney General

List-II

(1) Article 76 (2) Article 75

(3) Article 53 (4) Article 72

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 3 2 4

11. What is the correct chronological order in which the following provisions were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?

(1) Right to education as fundamental right

(2) Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court

(3) Nagar Palika Act

(4) Free Legal Aid

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) (4), (2),(3),(1)

(b) (4),(3),(2),(1)

(d) (3),(l) (2) (4)

12. The Supreme Court is the guardian of the ‘Rule of Law’. This observation has been made by the Supreme Court in—

(a) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra

(b) In Re, Arundhati Ray

(d) Bejoy Kumar Mohanty v. Jadu

13 Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court of India relating to ‘Personal Liberty’ in correct chorological order.

(i) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(ii) A.D.M. Jabalpur v.Shivakant

(iii) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

(a) (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (ii), (i), (iii)

14. The principle of “Collective Responsibility” has been incorporated in:

(a) Article 75 (b) Article 74

15. Assertion (A): Right to education is a fundamental right.

Reason (R): Our Constitution had no provision for education before making right to education as a fundamental right.

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

16. Which one of the following is not included in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?

(a) Right to die

(b) Right to life

(d) Right to dignity

17. “Persons in possession of an object have better title over it, against the whole world except the real owner”. This principle has been illustrated in which one of the following cases?

(a) Armory v. Delamire

(b) Bridges v. Hawkeswath

(d) R.C. Cohen's case

18. Which one of the following theories has been proposed by Savigny to explain legal personality?

(a) Realist Theory

(b) Fiction Theory

(d) Purpose Theory

19. Which one of the following jurists has rejected customary law as law?

(a) Austin (b) Kant

20. Who is the author of the book “Taking Rights Seriously”?

(a) Hart (b) Dworkin

21. “Some shared morality is essential to the existence of any society” is the assertion of:

(a) Fuller (b) Hart

22. Who propounded that ‘Animus domini’ is an essential element of possession?

(a) Savigny (b) Salmond

23. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Thomas Aquinas

(B) John Austin

(D) Rawls

List-II

(1) Normative Order

(2) Command Theory

(3) Dictates of Reasoning

(4) Theory of Justice

(5) System of Rules

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 4 2 5 1

(d) 3 2 1 4

24. Arrange the following stages of development of law according to Maine:

(1) Customary law

(2) Law made by the ruler under divine inspirations

(3) Codification

(4) Knowledge of law in the hands of priests

Select the correct order of development using the code given below:

(a) 4,. 2Z1,3 (b) 2,1,4,3

25. “Justice is the first virtue of social institutions” is the observation of whom?

(a) R. Pound

(b) Aristotle

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

26. “The search for natural law will continue as long as there perceived to be injustice in the world” is the statement of:

(a) Hobbes

(b) Justice Holmes

(d) Rousseau

27. Duguit has built up his doctrine on the basis of division of labour and social cohesion. It is known as the doctrine of:

(a) Grund Norm

(b) Social Solidarity

(d) Social Plan Theory

28. What does the doctrine of precedentmean ? Choose the correct answer from the options mentioned below:

(a) A previous case which may be taken as a rule for subsequent eases

(b) A decision of a sub-ordinate court is binding on the other sub-ordinate court.

(d) An authority to be followed by all courts.

29. Jurisprudence is the “Scientific Synthesis of essential principles of law”— is the statement of the following:

(a) H.L.A. Hart (b) Julius Stone

30. “Law is reason free from all Passion.” This statement is of the following.

(a) Socrates (b) Plato

31. In which case, the Supreme Court has given preference to constitutional morality over social morality?

(a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

(b) Indian Young Lawyers'Association v. Union of India

(d) Government of N.C.T. of Delhi v. Union of India

32. The case of Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor relates to:

(a) Doctrine of estoppel

(b) Accomplice

(d) Cross-examination

33. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact?

(a) Section 135 (b) Section 134

34. In which of the following ‘Accomplice’ is declared competent witness?

(a) Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act

(b) Section 111 of the Indian Evidence Act

(d) Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act

35. Which special provisions regarding proving of records have been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act by Information Technology Act, 2000?

(a) Section 56-A and Section 56-B

(b) Section 65:A and Section 65-B

(d) Section 35-A and Section 35-B

36. Assertion (A): Proviso to Section 132, Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a facet of rule against self-incrimination.

Reason (R): Policy of Section 132, Indian Evidence Act is to procure evidence for doing justice.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is hot the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. If a witness, who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in the open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be—

(a) Documentary evidence

(b) Oral evidence

(d) Secondary evidence

38. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Refreshing the memories

(B) Dying declaration

(D) Hostile witness

List-II

(1) Section 159 (2) Section 154

(3) Section 32(1) (4) Section 141

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 3 2 4 1

(d) 1 2 3 4

39. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Presumption as to document thirty years old— Section 90

(b) Burden of proving that person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years— Section 108

(d) Presumption as to dowry death— Section 113-A

40. In which one of the following cases, constitutional validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution?

(a) State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyay

(b) State of Bombay v. Kathikalu

(d) Nandini Satpathi v. P.L. Dani

41. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to which of the following?

(a) Dying declaration

(b) Confession

(d) Entries in the books of account

42. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with conclusive proof ?

(a) 41,112 and 113

(b) 112

(d) 112 and 113

43. “A confession even consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not necessary for the relevancy of a confession that it should be communicated to some other person”, was held in the case of: ’

(a) Shankaria v. State of Rajasthan

(b) Boota Singh v. State of Punjab

(d) Nishikantjhav. State of Bihar

44. A is tried for murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder him—

(a) is relevant

(b) is irrelevant

(d) None of the above

45. Even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it was held by the Apex Court in—

(a) Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat

(b) Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta and Ors.

(d) Nathu Singh v. State of U.P.

46. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:

(a) Confession

(b) Dying declaration

(d) Documentary evidence

47. When the first session of the United Nations General Assembly was held?

(a) January 10, 1946

(b) January 10,1945

(d) January 10,1948

48. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations Organisation perform Legislative functions?

(a) The Trusteeship Council

(b) The Security Council

(d) The Economic and Social Council

49. Which of the following Articles of U.N. Charter provides that the statute of ICJ is based on the Permanent Court of International Justice?

(a) 90 (b) 91

50. Under which Article of the UN Charter, the members of the United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?

(a) Article 24 ' (b) Article 25

51. The budget of the International Court of Justice is approved by:

(a) The General Assembly

(b) The General Assembly and the ICJ

(d) The Secretary General of the UN

52. The members of the Economic and Social Council are elected for three years. How many members are elected every year?

(a) Two-third (b) Three-fourth

53. Which one of the following mentions that “Every one has the Right to a Nationality”?

(a) Geneva Convention, 1951

(b) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

(d) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

54. Sources of International Law are mentioned in the following article of the statute of the International Court of Jusite—

(a) Article 38

(b) Article 35

(d) Article 34

55. Each member of the Security Council shall have—

(a) 4 representatives

(b) 5 representatives

(d) 1 representative

56. Who has said, “We are a World in Pieces, We need to be a World at Peace”—

(a) Kofi Annan

(b) Bon Ki Moon

(d) Michelle Bachelet

57. When did the Sustainable Development Goals of UNDP came into effect?

(a) March, 2016

(b) May, 2015

(d) September, 2017

58. International Panel on Climate Change is the leading international body established by—

(a) United Nations Environment Progamme

(b) United Nations Development Programme

(d) United Nations Environmental and World Maritime Organisation both

59. Which of the following executes the decisions of the International Court of Justice?

(a) Military Staff Committee

(b) General Assembly

(d) Security Council

60. The basis of United Nations Organisation is—

(a) Soverign equality

(b) Economic and Social advancement of all the people

(d) None of the above

61. Purposes and principles of the United Nations are laid down in—

(a) Articles 2 and 3 of the UN Charter

(b) Articles 1 and 2 of the UN Charter

(d) Articles 1 and 4 of the UN Charter

62. Who was the first lady chief guest at Deepotsava organized in the year 2018 by the Uttar Pradesh Government at Ayodhya?

(a) Kim Jung Sook

(b) Soon

(d) None of the above

63. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I

(A) Doctrine of subrogation

(B) Rule against perpetuity

(D) Doctrine of accumulation

List-II

(1) Section 92

(3) Section 43

(2) Section 14

(4) Section 17

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 2 3 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

64. The Transfer of Property Act does not contemplate:

(a) Actual notice

(b) Implied notice

(d) Imputed notice

65. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit?

(a) Upon his birth

(b) Upon completing his majority age

(d) None of the above

66. Which one of the following is not an immovable property?

(a) Right to collect tendu leaves

(b) Right to catch fish

(d) Right to easement

67. In which one of the following cases, it was held that partition is not a transfer of property?

(a) V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar, AIR 1986 SC 432

(b) Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi, AIR 2009 NOC 3009

(d) None of the above

68. In which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act, the doctrine of Consolidation in incorporated?

(a) Section 60 (b) Section 61

70. Which of the following is not an essential element of lease?

(a) Party

(b) Property

(d) Complete Transfer

71. Choose the correct statement:

(a) Tenancy at sufferance at the smallest interest which a person may probably get in a immovable property.

(b) Tenancy at sufferance may normally arise out of an agreement between the parties.

(d) None of the above

72. Which of the following is an actionable claim?

(a) Copyright of a book

(b) Muslim woman's claim for unpaid dower

(d) Claim for mesne profits

73. What shall be deemed to be a lease in cases of agriculture lease in the absence of written contract or local usage?

(a) From month to month

(b) Of Eleven months

(d) Of twelve years

74. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act provides for the doctrine of substituted security?

(a) 72 (b) 73

75. Which property cannot be transferred?

(a) A public office

(b) A mere chance to succeed

(d) All of the above

76. Doctrine of election comes under chapter of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882—

(a) IIV (b) II

77. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 comes into force from—

(a) 11 August, 2018

(b) 21 April, 2018

(d) 1 July, 2018

78. In case of criminal misappropriation, subsequent intention must be

(a) Fraudulent (b) Dishonest

79. The ‘doctrine of joint liability’ as envisaged by Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on the decision of the following—

(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor

(b) Mulcahy v.R

(d) Reg. v. Cruise

80. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

(1) Harbour—Section 51-A, I.P.C.

(2) Wrongful Loss—Section 23, I.P.C.

(3) Gang rape on woman under twelve years of age—Section 376-DB, I.P.C.

(4) Gang rape—Section 376-D, I.PG.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) (1), (3) and (4)

(b) (1), (2) and (3)

(d) (1), (2) and (4)

81. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India— Section 498-A, I.P.C.

(b) K.N. Mehra v. State of Rajasthan— Section 378, I.P.C.

(d) State of Haryana v. Raja Ram—Section 361, I.P.C.

82. Consider the following cases and arrange them in chronological order:

(1) W. Kalyani v. State through inspector of Police.

(2) Yusuf Abdul Aziz v. State of Bombay.

(3) Joseph Shine v. Union of India.

(4) V. Revthi v. Union of India.

Select correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (4),(1),(2),(3)

(b) (2),(4), (1),(3)

(d) (3),(2),(1),(4)

83. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has remarked that ‘husband is not the master of his wife’?

(a) Joseph Shine v. Union of India

(b) Sarla Mudgal, President, Kalyani v. Union of India '

(d) Kailash Singh v. Priti Pratihar

84. ‘A’ with intent to murder, administered a fatal dose of poison to ‘Z’, and then while ‘Z’ was still alive, a stranger ‘B’, without A’s knowledge attacked ‘Z’ and shot him dead.

(a) 'A' and 'B' both would be guilty of murder.

(b) 'A' would be guilty of culpable homicide and 'B' would be guilty of murder

(d) 'A' would be guilty of instigating 'B' to commit murder and 'B' would be guilty of murder.

85. ‘A’, a police officer tortures ‘Z’ in order to induce ‘Z’ to confess that he committed a crime. ‘A’ is guilty of an offence under—

(a) Section 325 of the Indian Penal Code.

(b) Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code.

(d) Section 331 of the Indian Penal Code.

86. ‘A’ Who was entrusted by ‘B’ with certain blocks for printing a catalogue, prints catalogue of rival’s firm with the same block. ‘A’ is guilty of:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Criminal misappropriation

(d) Theft

87. Disclosure of identify of a victim of rape is punishable under—

(a) Section 376-D, I.P.C.

(b) Section 376-E, I.P.C.

(d) Section 228-A, I.P.C.

88. No right of private defence of property is available against the offence of:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Theft

(d) Criminal Trespass

89. Match List-1 with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Delivery of Property

(B) Taking of Property

(D) Convertibility of Property got innocently to one's own use

List-II

(1) Criminal breach of trust

(2) Criminal misappropriation of property

(3) Theft

(4) Extortion

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(d) 3 1 2 4

90. Voyeurism is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code?

(a) Section 354-A (b) Section 354-B

91. In which case, the Supreme Court unanimously ruled that individual autonomy and intimacy and identity are protected under fundamental rights?

(a) Navtej SjggWdhar v. Union of India

(b) Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz foundation

(d) None of the above

92. What is the rank of India in the year 2018 Global Hunger Index?

(a) 103rd (b) 118th

93. Who became the fifth Indian to be induced in the ICC Hall of fame recently?

(a) Anil Kumble (b) Sunil Gavaskar

94. Where the fourth BIMSTEC Summit was held in 2018 with the theme “towards a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable development of Bay of Bengal Region”?

(a) Kathmandu, Nepal

(b) Thailand

(d) Myanmar

95. What is the purpose of signing on MOU between India and South Korea on November 5, 2018?

(a) For strengthening co-operation in the field of tourism.

(b) For strengthening co-operation in the field of Science

(d) None of the above

96. Which Indian actor has been honoured with Distinguished Fellow Award in Boston in the year 2018?

(a) Amir Khan

(b) Anil Kapoor

(d) Naseerudin Shah

97. United Nation’s Climate Change Conference, November, 2017 was held in—

(a) Polland (b) Marrakesh

98. Which one of the following countries hosted International Solar Alliance on 11,h March, 2018?

(a) Bhutan (b) China

99. Who won the 2018 Australian Open Women’s Single title:

(a) Caroline Wozniacki

(b) Serena Williams

(d) Elina Svitolina

100. Which of the following section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 defines ‘jurisdiction’?

(a) Section 2(9) (b) Section 9

101. Assertion (A): A civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature.

Reason (R): The cognizance of a civil suit should be expressly barred.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

102. The maxim “Invito beneficium non datur” (The law confers upon a man no rights or benefits which he does not desire) relates to which of the provision under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(a) Section 26 (b) Order 6, Rulel

103. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Presentation of plaint—Section 26; Order 4, Rule 1

(b) Interpleader suit—Section 88; Order 35, Rule 1

(d) Equitable set-off—Order 20, Rule 19(3)

104. Which of the following statement/s Is/are correct?

(1) The expression "decree" includes a final order.

(2) Garnishee is a person who is liable to pay a debt to a decree-holder or to deliver any movable property to him.

Select the correct statement using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither (1) nor (2)

105. Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is clearly in the nature of a power to issue a writ of certiorari?

(a) Section 11 (b) Section 105

106. It is a fundamental principle of pleadings that pleadings should contain a statement of material facts and material facts only. Which of the following case has defined material facts?

(a) Udhav Singh v. Madhav Rao Scindia

(b) A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak

(d) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Nawab Hussain

107. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

(1) Judgement and decree—Section 34, . C.P.C.

(2) Costs—Section 35, C.P.C.

(3) Institution of suits—Section 26, C.P.C.

(4) Legal representative—Section 50, C.P.C.

Select correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3

(c)l,3and4 (d) 1,2 and 4

108. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Objections to jurisdiction

(B) Addition of Parties

(D) Temporary injunction

List-II

(1) Razia Begam v. Sahebjadi Anwar Begam

(2) Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan

(3) American Cyanamid Co v.Ethicon Ltd.

(4) Workmen v. Board of Trustees, Cochin Port Trust

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 1 3 2 4

(d) 3 4 1 2.

109. Suits relating to constitutional validity of statutory instruments are provided in—

(a) Order 27A, Rule 1-A of the C.P.C.

(b) Order 34, Rule 1 of the C.P.C.

(d) Order 37, Rule 2 of the C.P.C.

110. Following is not a ‘Public Officer’—

(a) Every Judge

(b) Every member of All India Service

(d) Every gazette officer in military not under the government service

111. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Right lodge caveat

(B) Restitution

(D) Suits of civil nature

List-II

(1) Section 144

(2) Section 148-A

(3) Section 151

(4) Section 9

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

112. A civil court cannot issue commission in the following case—

(a) For examining a person

(b) For examining accounts

(d) To execute a decree

113. Which section of the C.P.C. prohibits arrest or detention of woman in the execution of a decree of money?

(a) Section 55

(b) Section 56

(d) Section 60

114. In which one of the following cases, it is held that “Inherent powers has not been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court”?

(a) Rajni Bai v. Kamla Devi

(b) Satyabrat Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kisku

(d) Manohar Lal v. Seth Hiralal

115. On which one of the following grounds under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a ‘judgment debtor’ may be cancelled by the court?

(a) Serious illness

(b) Appearance in marriage of his son

(d) None of the above

116. Section 114 of the Code of Civil Procedure should be read with:

(a) Order 46, Rule 1

(b) Order 47, Rule 1

(d) Order 41

117. Assertion (A): An agreement the object of which is opposed to the law, is void.

Reason (R): A valid contract requires that parties must contract for a lawful object.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

118. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Content)

(A) Dominates the will of the other

(B) At the desire of the promisor

(D) Where a person lawfully does anything for another person

List-II (Concept)

(1) Consideration

(2) Quasi-Contract

(3) Undue influence

(4) Contingent contract

1550

Code: .. '

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 1 4 2 3

119. An agreement, which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others—

(a) is a valid contract

(b) is an illegal contract

(d) is an unenforceable agreement

120. Which of the following statement is correct? The communication of an acceptance is complete, as against the acceptor—

(a) When it comes to the knowledge of the acceptor

(b) When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

(d) When it comes to the knowledge of the third party

121. Following is a a case on Promissory Estoppel—

(a) Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohamed

(b) Delhi Cloth and General Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

(d) None of the above

122. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Coercion—Chikkam Amiraju v. Chikkam Seshamma

(b) Liquidated damages—Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. v. New Garage & Motor Co.

(d) Public Policy—Hadley v. Baxendale

123. With reference to ‘fraud’ and ‘misrepresentatation’, which of the statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Both render the contract voidable

(2) Fraud renders a cause of action in tort for damages.

(3) Simple misrepresentation is also a tort.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) (l)and(2)

(b) (2) and (3)

(d) (1), (2) and (3)

124. ‘A’ promises ‘B’ to drop a prosecution which he has institute against ‘B’ for robbery and ‘B’ promises to restore the value of the things taken.

(a) The agreement is void, as the consideration for it is unlawful

(b) The agreement is void as the value of the things taken in uncertain

(d) The agreement is void, as the object of it is illegal

125. Consider the following statements—

(1) Performance of a legal duty is no consideration for a promise.

(2) Forbearance to sue has always been regarded as valuable consideration.

(3) It is not necessary that consideration should be adequate to the promise.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? !|

(a) (l)only

(b) (2) and (3)

(d) (1) and (2)

126. The Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1997 has amended:

(a) Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act

(b) Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act

(d) Section 75 of the Indian Contract Act

127. Change of the nature of the obligation in a contract is known as—

(a) Rescission (b) Novation

128. Under Section 68 of the Indian Contract Act, the minor—

(a) is personally liable

(b) only minor's property is liable

(d) none of the above is correct

129. ‘Continuing Guarantee’ has been defined under:

(a) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act

(b) Section 129 of the.Indian Contract Act

(d) Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act

130. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Doctrine of frustration

(B) Special damages

(D) Cross-offer

List-II

(1) Taylor v. Caldwell

(2) Hochester v. Dela Tour

(3) Tinn v. Hoffman & Co.

(4) Hadley v. Baxendale

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 1 2 3 4

131. An agreement of wager is—

(a) voidable

(b) unlawful

(d) void and unlawful

132. In which of the following sections, the Indian Contract Act embodies the rule of Clayton’s case relating to appropriation of payments?

(a) Section 62

(b) Section 59

(d) Section 61

133. The court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass—

(a) Any sentence except imprisonment for life

(b) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three years

(d) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years

134. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Complaint—Section 2(d), Cr.P.C.

(b) Police report—Section 2(r), Cr.P.C.

(d) Victim Compensation Scheme— Section 357, Cr.P.C.

135. A Criminal Proceeding which is not compoundable can be quashed by—

(a) The Judicial Magistrate First Class

(b) The District and Session Judge

(d) The Supreme Court

136. Assertion (A): Where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on such plea, there shall be no appeal.

Reason (R): A person who deliberately pleads guilty cannot be aggrieved by being convicted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

137. With reference to the “Charge” which of the statement is/are correct?

(1) Every charge under the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 states the offences with which the accused may be charged.

(2) If in the course of same transaction, more offences than one are committed by the same person, he can be charged at one trial.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) (l)only

(b) (2) only

(d) Neither (1) nor (2)

138. If the case of a continuing offence a fresh period of limitation commences—

(a) from the date of the offence

(b) on the first day on which such offence comes to the knowledge of any police officer.

(d) at every moment of time during which the offence continues.

139. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

(A) Anticipatory bail

(B) Cognizance on complaint

(D) Security of good behavior from habitual offenders.

List-II

(1) Section 272, Cr.P.C. '

(2) Section 110, Cr.P.C.

(3) Section 438, Cr.P.C.

(4) Section 190, Cr.P.C.

Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 1 3 4 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

140. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?

(a) Section 163 (b) Section 173

141. The maxim “Nemo debet bis vexari pro eadem causa” finds place in which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(a) Section 299 (b) Section 300

142. When an appeal has been filed under Section 374 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 against a sentence passed under Section 376-D of the Indian Penal Code, the appeal shall be disposed of—

(a) Within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal.

(b) Within a period of three months from the date of filing of such appeal.

(d) Within a reasonable period.

143. Which provision of the Cr.P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus writ?

(a) Section 91 (b) Section 93

144. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may require under section 166-A of the code of Criminal Procedure to issue a—

(a) Search Warrant

(b) Latter of requisition

(d) Written order

145. “The bail is rule, jail is exception” This rule is laid down by the Supreme Court in:

(a) Joginder Singh v. State of U.P.

(b) Pritam Singh v. State of Punjab

(d) Raj Kumari v. State of U.P.

146. The provision of examination of arrested person by medical officer is provided under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure?

(a) Section 53 (b) Section 54

147. Under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the victim of rape shall be sent to a registered medical practitioner for examination within—from the time of receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence—

(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours

148. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that written statement can be submitted even after expiry of 90 days from the date of Service of Summons?

(a) Kailash v. Nanhku

(b) Harish Chandra Bajpai v. Triloki Singh

(d) Daryaov. State of U.P.

149. “Dasti” Summons for Service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under—

(a) Order 5 Rule 9-A, C.P.C.

(b) Order 5 Rule 9, C.P.C.

(d) Order 6 Rule 6, C.P.C.

150. The case of Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P. is related to:

(a) lles gestae (b) Plea of alibi

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