CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is wider than the High Court.
(1) correct
(2) incorrect
(3) only in some conditions
(4) both have same jurisdiction
2. The term “Justice” in Article 38 of the Indian Constitution is used to indicate:
(1) Social and ‘Political Justice
(2) Economic and Social Justice
(3) Political and Economic Justice
(4) Social, Economic and Political Justice
3. According to the Constitution of India, any law made by the State which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III shall be:
(1) voidable to the extent of the contravention
(2) void to the extent of the contravention
(3) all the above
(4) none of the above
4. Which Article of the Constitution of India Safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(1) Article 19
(2) Article 21
(3) Article 25
(4) Article 29
5. Which one of these is not a fundamental duty?
(1) To keep safeguard public property
(2) To promote international peace
(3) To defend the nation
(4) To protect natural environment
6. Which of the following statements is true in respect of right to property:
(1) right to property is a fundamental right
(2) it is a constitutional right
(3) no such right is in existence
(4) none of these
7. Parliamentary privileges of the house of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof includes:
(1) freedom of speech in Parliament
(2) immunity from liability to any proceedings in any Court in respect of anything said, or any vote given by a member in Parliam'ent and any committee
(3) immunity from liability in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings
(4) all of these.
8. According to Article 254 of the Constitution of India, such portion of the State law as are repugnant to a central law in the concurrent sphere, become invalid. The test of repugnancy was summarised in—
(1) M. Kanmanidhi v. Union of India (1979)
(2) Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981)
(3) Ram Jawaya v. State of Punjab (1955)
(4) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970)
9. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(1) Third Schedule
(2) Fifth Schedule
(3) Ninth Schedule
(4) Twelfth Schedule
10. The Supreme Court of India exercises original jurisdiction in respect of any disputes of following nature:
(1) between the Government of India and one or more States
(2) between the Government of India and any States or States on one side and one or more other States on the other
(3) between two or more States
(4) all of these
CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE, 1908
11. Where the decree is for the partition of an undivided estate assessed to the payment of revenue to the Government, the partition of the estate shall be—
(1) made by Collector
(2) By Court which passed the decree
(3) By Executing Court
(4) By issuing a commission comprising of an Advocate
12. A files against B one suit on 6th January, 2020 and on the same grounds asking for same relief another on 18th February, 2020. Suit filed in February is decided by the court of competent jurisdiction on merits before the Suit filed in January could be decided. Examine the validity of statement that ‘suit filed on 6th January, 2020 is valid and res judicata will apply on the suit filed in February as it was filed later.
(1) The statement is true
(2) The statement is false
(3) Principle of res judicata has no application to decide the validity of given statement
(4) Validity of statement depends upon the discretionary power of Court
13. Which of the following statements is false:
(1) no woman can be arrested or detailed in the civil prison in execution of a decree except for the execution of a decree for the payment of money
(2) books of account, any right of personal service and a right to future maintenance shall not be liable to attachment or sale in execution of a degree
(3) where a decree is to be sent for execution to another Court, the Court which passed such decree shall send the decree directly to such other Court whether or not such Court is situated in the same State
(4) where the holder of a decree for the possession of immovable property or the purchaser of any such property sold in execution of a decree is resisted or obstructed by any person obtaining possession of the property. Singhal's—Judicial Service Examinations he may make an application to the Court complaining of such resistance or obstruction
14. If the sole plaintiff dies after the hearing of the suit was concluded, the suit shall:—
(1) abate
(2) continue as it is
(3) continue in the name of legal representatives
(4) continue only if an application has been submitted within limitation for adding the legal representatives as plaintiff
15. In a suit filed in representative capacity, the suit can be withdrawn, compromised and abandoned etc. by the plaintiff?
(1) without notice to all the persons interested
(2) after notice to all the persons interested
(3) Neither (1) nor (2)
(4) either (1) or (2) or (3)
16. Which of the following statements is false:
(1) every suit by a minor shall be instituted in his name by person who in such suit shall be called the next friend
(2) no temporary injunction shall be granted by a Court under Order XXXIX, rule 1 or 2 Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 where no perpetual injunction could be granted in view of the provisions of section and section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(3) where it appears to ’ the Court to be just and convenient, the Court may by order appoint a receiver of any property, whether before or after decree
(4) none of these statements are false
17. Suit for partition of joint immovable property shall be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction—
(1) Property is situated
(2) Plaintiff resides
(3) Defendant resides
(4) All of these
18. What is the limitation to file application under Order IX, Rule 7 of CPC?
(1) 30 Days
(2) 60 Days
(3) 90 Days
(4) None of these
19. An application for the withdrawal of suit has been filed along with permission for grant of liberty to file fresh suit, in such an application Court can
(1) allow the application without leave to file fresh suit
(2) reject or allow the application in toto
(3) can pass any appropriate order
(4) All of these
20. Under Order XXI, Rule 37 before passing an order for the arrest or detention in the civil prison of judgment-debtor, Court
(1) shall issue show cause notice instead of warrant for the arrest
(2) may issue warrant of arrest if it is shown on affidavit that judgment debtor is about to abscond
(3) shall issue attachment warrant before arrest warrant
(4) option (1) and (2) are correct
21. Where an injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party the Court shall make a endeavour to finally dispose of the application within days from the date in which injunction was granted
(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 90
22. Which among the following is not correct in relation to consideration of Order XXI, rule 90
(1) there must be a material irregularity or fraud in publishing or conducting of the sale
(2) it must relate to conduct of sale alone
(3) the applicant must have sustained substantial injury
(4) such injury must have been caused by material irregularity or fraud
23. A suit in representative capacity can be filed by virtue of
(1) Under Order I, Rule 8A of CPC
(2) Under Order I, Rule 10A of CPC
(3) Under Order I, Rule 8 of CPC
(4) Under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC
24. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Order XXII of CPC on the same cause of action
(1) New suit may be instituted with the consent of parties
(2) Fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the Court
(3) No fresh suit shall be brought
(4) New suit may be filed if sufficient cause is shown
25. Which of the following statement is true:
(1) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is expressly barred
(2) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is impliedly barred
(3) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
(4) none of these
26. Transfer of Property Act:- Which of the following can be considered implied surrender of the lease?
(1) acceptance of a new issue taking effect during the continuance of the existing lease
(2) abandonment of possession by the lessee
(3) lessee yields up his interest under the lease to the lessor, by mutual agreement between them
(4) None of these
TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT, 1882
27. The right of a third person for maintenance cannot be enforced under section 39 against Transferee who is—
(1) gratuitous
(2) for consideration without notice of the right
(3) gratuitous transferee without notice
(4) for consideration but with notice of the right
28. A lease of immovable property is not compulsorily registrable—
(1) Lease from year to year
(2) Lease for a term of one year
(3) Lease receiving a yearly rent
(4) None of these
29. The condition restraining absolute alienation is not void when it is—
(1) for the benefit of lessor
(2) for the benefit of the legal heir of lessee
(3) for the benefit of lessee
(4) None of these
30. Where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money, and agrees that, in the event of his failing to pay according to his contract, the mortgagee shall have a right to cause the mortgaged property to be sold and the proceeds of sale to be applied in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called:
(1) Simple mortgage
(2) Usufructuary mortgage
(3) Mortgage by conditional sale
(4) English Mortgage
31. What is not a condition precedent for creation \of an interest in favour of unborn person
(1) prior interest should be created in the same transfer
(2) whole of the remaining interest of the transferor in the transferor in the property should be given to unborn
(3) prior interest should be for life
(4) prior interest should be created before transferring the remaining interest in favour of unborn person ,
32. According to provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the easements:
(1) Can be transferred
(2) Cannot be transferred
(3) Cannot be transferred apart from the dominant heritage
(4) Can be transferred apart from the dominant heritage
INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872
33. Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of the fact the agreement will be—
(1) Enforceable
(2) Voidable
(3) Not Void
(4) Void
34. ‘A’ Guru (spiritual advisor) induced the Chela (his devotee) to gift him the whole of his property to secure benefit to his soul in the next world. The gift shall be—
(1) Void
(2) Voidable
(3) Valid
(4) Immoral
35. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing find amount to
(1) One-forth of its value
(2) Half of its value
(3) One-third of its value
(4) Two-third of its value
36. “A” hires a carriage of “B”. The carriage is unsafe though “B” is not aware of it and “A” is injured then what will be consequence of it?
(1) "B" is not responsible to "A" for injury
(2) "B" is responsible to "A" for injury
(3) Both are contributory negligent
(4) No one is responsible for "A's injury
37. Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor—
(1) Is voidable
(2) Is illegal
(3) Is void
(4) Is valid
38. If a promisee accepts the anticipatory breach by promisor then
(1) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but not entitled to claim damages from promisor
(2) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to claim damages from promisor only after the date of performance
(3) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to claim damages from promissory without waiting till the date of performance
(4) the promisee must perform his part of contract before claiming damages
39. A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called:
(1) Contract of guarantee
(2) Contract of surety
(3) Contract of indemnity
(4) None of these
40. A promises to paint a picture for B up to December 31 and accepts an advance of Rs. 1,000. After making of the contract, A’s hands are chopped off in an accident on December 25. B is entitled to the refund of Rs. 1,000 from A under which one of the following section:
(1) Section 73
(2) Section 64
(3) Section 65
(4) Section 75
SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963
41. When, due to fraud played by the parties, a contract in writing does not express the real intention, then appropriate remedy would be a suit for—
(1) Specific performance of contract
(2) Declaration
(3) Rectification of instrument
(4) Perpetual injunction
42. Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who has obtained substituted performance of contract under section 20
(1) statement is incorrect
(2) statement is correct
(3) can be performed according to discretion of Court
(4) None of these
43. Section 30 lays down that the Court on adjudging the rescission of a contract may require the party to whom such relief is granted:
(1) to restore, so far as may be, any benefit which he may have received from the other party and
(2) to make any compensation to him which justice may require
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
44. ‘A’ while going abroad, leaves his furniture under the care of his friend *B’. ‘B’ pledges the furniture to ‘C’. In a suit filed by ‘A’ under section 8 of Specific Relief Act, 1963—
(1) 'C' may be compelled specifically to deliver the furniture to 'A'
(2) 'C' may not be compelled
(3) 'C' may be compelled only by 'B'
(4) Neither 'A' or 'B' can claim relief against 'C'
45. Which of the following infrastructure project is not mentioned in Schedule to the Specific Relief Act ?
(1) Five star hotel located outside the city with population of more than 1 million
(2) Three star hotel located outside the city with population of more than 1 million
(3) Five star hotel located within the city with population of more than 1 million
(4) Ropeways
46. Which of the following statement is false:
(1) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced
(2) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent, on ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance
(3) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(4) None of these
LIMITATION ACT, 1963
47. Negotiations for settlement taking place between a claimant and a person against whom claim is made
(1) bars the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation where the negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action by the claimant
(2) does not debar the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation even though the negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action by the claimant
(3) may bar the defendant from pleading a statue of limitation depending on the facts and circumstances of each case
(4) shall bar the defendant, from pleading a statue of limitation absolutely
48. Under section 21, a suit is deemed to have been instituted, in case of a new plaintiff impleaded/added
(1) on the date on which the new plaintiff is impleaded
(2) on the date of which the suit was initially instituted
(3) on the date on which the application for impleading a new plaintiff is made
(4) none of these
49. The jurisdiction to grant exemption under section 14 of Limitation Act, 1963 is given exclusively to:
(1) Court of first instance
(2) High Court
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Only Civil Court
50. In a suit filed by the plaintiff, the defendant in his written statement has taken the objection of non-impleadment of necessary party. Despite such objection the plaintiff continued, the suit and the suit finally was decreed. At the first appellate stage, the plaintiff withdraws the suit with liberty to file a fresh one on the same cause of action and subsequently filed a fresh suit, the period spent by the plaintiff in the earlier suit, under section 14 of Limitation Act is
(1) liable to be excluded on the ground that the plaintiff was prosecuting the Singhal's—Judicial Service Examinations earlier suit with due diligence and in good faith
(2) not liable to be excluded as the plaintiff cannot be said to be prosecuting the earlier suit who due diligence and in good faith
(3) liable to exclude under section 14(3) of Limitation Act
(4) to be excluded or not to be excluded is in the discretion of the Court
M.P. ACCOMMODATION CONTROL ACT, 1961
51. If a tenant makes deposit or payment as provided by section 13(1) or (2), no decree or order shall be made by the Court for the recovery of possession of accommodation on ground of—
(1) Section 12(l)(a)
(2) Section 12(l)(b)
(3) Section 12(l(c)
(4) Section 12(l)(d)
52. Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, no suit for eviction under section 12(1)(e) or (f) shall be maintainable till period is over—
(1) 3 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 1 year
(4) 18 months
53. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Married daughter is family member
(2) Sub-Lease is not included in "Lease"
(3) Any land which is not used for agricultural purposes is covered under accommodation
(4) Garden is not accommodation
54. Which of the following statements is false:
(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in any other law or contract, no suit shall be filed in any civil Court against the tenant for his eviction from any accommodation except on one or more of the grounds mentioned in section 12(l)(a) to 12(1) (P)
(2) Subject to anything to the contrary contained in any contract, no suit shall be filed in any civil Court against for his eviction from any accommodation except on one or more of the grounds mentioned either in section 12(l)(a) to 12(l)(p) or in the contract to the contrary
(3) No tenant shall, without the previous consent in writing of the landlord, sub-let the whole or any part of the accommodation held by him as a tenant
(4) According to section 23J of the Accommodation Control Act, 1961, "landlord means a landlord who is a retired servant of any Government, a retired servant of a company owned or controlled either by the Central or State Government, a widow or a divorced . wife or physically handicapped person or a servant of any Government including a member of defence services who according to his service conditions, is not entitled to Government accommodation on his posting to a place where he owns a house or is entitled to such accommodation only on payment of a penal rent on his posting to such as lace
55. M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 does not apply to—
(1) Property of Municipal Corporation used for residential purpose
(2) Property of Municipal Corporation used exclusively for non-residential purposes
(3) Property of Government
(4) Option 2 and 3 both
56. In which of the following matters, jurisdiction of the civil court is not excluded?
(1) Ejectment of Government Lessee
(2) Restoration of possession of an occupancy tenant
(3) Any claim to modify any entry in nistar patrak
(4) Partition of holdings
57. Who among the following is not a Revenue Officer:
(1) Commissioner
(2) Deputy Survey Officer
(3) Revenue Inspector
(4) Superintendent of Land Records
58. Where a partition proceeding is filed before Tehsilder and a question of title is raised in it, the Tehsildar:-
(1) shall proceed to partition the holding in accordance with the entries in the record of rights
(2) shall stay the proceedings for 3 months to facilitate the institution of a civil suit for determination Oi question of title
(3) shall send the proceedings to the civil court for appropriate decision of title and partition of holding accordingly
(4) shall dismiss the partition proceeding as partition is not possible until decision of title
59. A Bhumiswami may transfer an interest in his land:—
(1) by way of lease even if the period of lease does not exceed 5 years at a time
(2) by way of sale even if the individual buying it becomes entitled to an aggregated land exceeding ceiling limits
(3) by way of mortgage even if after this transfer he is left with 5 acres of imirrigated land
(4) by way of usufructuary mortgage even if it is for a period exceeding 6 years
60. Choose the correct answer in relation to the following “A widow who is occupancy tenant can—”
(1) Sale the property
(2) Gift the property
(3) Sub-Lease the property
(4) None of these
INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT, 1872
61. As per Act a fact Is said “not proved” when
(1) when it is proved incorrect
(2) when court believes that it does not exist
(3) when a prudent man considers that the fact does not exist
(4) when it is neither proved nor disproved
62. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the rules enacted:
(1) Only in section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(2) Only in section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(3) Only in section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(4) In sections 24, 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
63. “Best evidence rule” is exclusively associated with the rule laid down in
(1) Section 62 of the Evidence Act
(2) Section 90 of the Evidence Act
(3) Section 93 of the Evidence Act
(4) Section 91 of the Evidence Act
64. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in open court in the written form, it is a
(1) Documentary evidence
(2) Oral evidence
(3) Doubtful evidence
(4) Inadmissible evidence
65. Which section makes anything said, done or written by an accused to a conspiracy, relevant as against co-conspirators in reference to their common intention? '
(1) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(2) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(3) ' Section 15 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872
(4) Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, .1872
66. Which of the following could be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person?
(1) FIR lodged by the person (deceased)
(2) Statement of the person (deceased) to police, recorded under section 161, CrPC
(3) Statement of the person (deceased) recorded by the Executive Magistrate
(4) All of these
67. Public documents are mentioned in—
(1) Section 72 of Evidence Act
(2) Section 73 of Evidence Act
(3) Section 74 of Evidence Act
(4) Section 75 of Evidence Act
68. The general rule is that the opinion or belief of a witness is irrelevant. Certain exceptions to this rule have been laid down in Indian Evidence Act. The sections containing these exceptions are:
(1) Section 52 to 55
(2) Section 10 to 15
(3) Section 6 to 9
(4) Section 45 to 51
69. Which one of the following is not a “Public Document”?
(1) A document forming the acts of a sovereign authority
(2) A document forming the acts of official body
(3) A document forming the acts of officer of Government of India
(4) A document forming the acts of an employee of an educational institution
70. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) A rule of law cannot be nullified by resorting to doctrine of estoppel
(2) Assurances held out but not incorporated in an agreement would not attract doctrine of estoppel
(3) Plea of promissory estoppel shall be available even if an officer of the Government acts outside the scope of his authority
(4) An estoppel arises as soon as the relationship of landlord and tenant is created and tenant is not permitted to deny the. title of his landlord
71. “Test identification parade” under the law of evidence is:
(1) Substantive evidence
(2) Corroborative evidence
(3) Hearsay evidence
(4) No evidence
72. The confession of an accused is only relevant against him. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to this Rule?
(1) Section 23
(2) Section 25
(3) Section 28
(4) Section 30
73. A retracted confession:
(1) can be made solely the basis of conviction
(2) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any circumstances
(3) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
(4) both (1) and (3) are incorrect
74. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in:
(1) Section 31 of Evidence Act
(2) Section 32 of Evidence Act
(3) Section 60 of Evidence Act
(4) Section 61 of Evidence Act
75. In a murder case before identification of the culprit. B wrote a letter of confession to the police officer. At the time of writing the letter there was no suspicion cast on B. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following choices.
(1) Is inadmissible as it was made to a police officer.
(2) Admissible as it was made voluntarily, the fact it was made before the police officer is irrelevant.
(3) Admissible as it was neither made in police custody nor in the presence of the police officer.
(4) Inadmissible as it was not made before the Magistrate.
INDIAN PENAL CODE, 1860
76. Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable
(i) Waging war against India
(ii) Sedition
(iii) Murder
(iv) Dacoity
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (i) and (iv)
77. A man who regularly visits the instagram page of a bikini model women celebrity and also follows her commits the offence of:
(1) stalking
(2) voyeurism
(3) obscenity
(4) man commits no offense
78. Which of the following statements is false:
(1) Theft is "robbery" if, in order to the committing of the theft, or in committing the theft, or in carrying away or attempting to carry away property obtained by the theft, the offender, for that end, voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death or of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint.
(2) Extortion is "robbery" if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, or instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint, to that person or to some other person, and, by so putting in fear, induces the person, so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted.
(3) Property, the possession whereof has been transferred by theft, or by extortion, or by robbery, any property which has been criminally misappropriated or in respect of which criminal breach of trust has been committed, is designated as "stolen property".
79. A was beaten by B. In this act, A’s shoulder was dislocated (not fractured). B is liable for
(1) simple hurt
(2) grievous hurt
(3) assault
(4) affray
80. A finds a ring belonging to B on a table in the house which B occupies. Here the ring is in possession of B and A in good faith believing that it belongs to him takes it. A commits the offence of
(1) theft
(2) criminal misappropriation
(3) criminal breach of trust
(4) none of these
81. A, residing in Calcutta, is against for Z, residing at Delhi. There is an express or implied contract between A and Z, that all sums remitted by Z and A shall be invested by A, according to Z’s direction. Z remits a lakh of rupees to A, with directions to A to invest the same in Company’s paper. A in good faith, believing that it will be more for Z’s advantage to hold shares in the Bank of Bengal, disobeys Z’s directions, and buys shares in the Bank of Bengal, for Z, instead of buying Company’s paper. Z suffers loss. A is liable for
(1) cheating
(2) criminal breach of trust
(3) criminal misappropriation
(4) no offence is committed
82. Where the accused caught hold of a girl, grabbed her by force by the side of the bushes, threw her down on the ground, removed her under garments, got over her and attempted to penetrate, but before he could succeed, the girl started bleeding.
(1) the accused was guilty of preparation of rape only
(2) the accused was guilty of outraging modesty of the girl
(3) the accused was guilty of attempted rape
(4) the accused was guilty of insulting the modesty of the girl
83. A, a shopkeeper, to protect his own money says to B, who manages his business— “Sell nothing to Z unless he pays you ready money, for I have no good opinion of his honesty.” A is
(1) liable for defamation under section 499 of IPC
(2) liable for defamation under section 496 of IPC
(3) Hable for defamation under section 506 of IPC
(4) not liable for defamation
84. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will fire at Z if Z attempts to leave the building. What offence has A committed?
(1) Wrongful confinement
(2) Wrongful restraint
(3) Criminal intimidation
(4) 1 and 3 both are correct
85. In which case, offence under section 377 was held to be partially unconstitutional:
(1) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
(2) Joseph Shine v. Union of India
(3) Malkiat Singh v. State of Punjab
(4) Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab
86. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any form of electronic communication, commits the offence of:
(1) Sexual harassment
(2) criminal trespass
(3) voyeurism
(4) stalking
87. A and B, being, joint owners of a elephant, A takes the elephant out of B’s possession, intending to use it. A, then, sells the elephant and appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. What offence has A committed?
(1) Cheating
(2) Theft
(3) Criminal breach of trust
(4) Dishonest misappropriation
88. A concerts and agrees with B for poisoning C in order to murder him, for which B agrees to procure the poison, but did not procure. A and B are guilty of:
(1) abetment of murder by conspiracy
(2) attempt to murder with the aid of section 34
(3) criminal, conspiracy to murder C
(4) No offence
89. “A”, a blacksmith, is seized by a gang of dacoits and forced, by threat of instant death to take his tools and to open the door of B’s house. The dacoits 10 in number, look B’s money and jewels and kill B’s son. A is guilty of which offences?
(1) Dacoity with murder
(2) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(3) His act is covered under general exception
(4) Causing death by negligence
90. A instigates B to burn Z’s house B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there. Then A is guilty of which offence?
(1) Guilty of abetting theft
(2) Guilty of abetting the burning of house and theft
(3) Guilty of abetting the burning of house but is not guilty of theft
(4) None of these
CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973
91. In a case of warrant trial
(1) the Court in its first instance, will issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(2) the police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(3) only those offences are included, which are punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
(4) only those offences are included, which are punishable with death, imprisonment for life or a term exceeding two years
92. Under section 156(3) of Cr.P.C., the power to direct investigation is vested only in
(1) High Court
(2) Sessions Judge
(3) Magistrate
(4) All of these
93. Magistrate can invoke power under section 156(3), Cr.P.C. even at post-cognizance stage. It is held in—
(1) VimMwi Hariblwi and others v. State of Gujarat and another (2019)
(2) Alok Verma v. Union of India (2019)
(3) B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019)
(4) Pattu Rajan v. Union of India (2019)
94. If the accused though not of unsound mind, cannot be made to understand the proceedings, the Court
(1) will stay the proceedings
(2) may proceed with the proceeding
(3) will forward the proceeding to the High Court
(4) None of these
95. Constitution Bench of Supreme Court resolved the conflict of its earlier decision regarding criminal Court power in matter of adding additional accused in a criminal case, in—
(1) Hardeep Singh v. State of Punjab and others
(2) Mohd. Shafi v. Mohd. Rafiq
(3) Ranjit Singh v. State of Punjab
(4) Hema Mishra v. State of Uttar Pradesh
96. A commits robbery on B, and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether A may be separately charged with offences under sections 323, 392 and 394 of the IPC
(1) yes
(2) no, only under section 394
(3) in all said offences only with ‘ the consent of accused
(4) in all the said offences only upon application of prosecution
97. When can an offence otherwise compoundable not be compounded:
(1) When the person competent to compound is dead
(2) When the person competent to compound is under eighteen years of age
(3) When the accused has been committed for trial
(4) When the accused is, by reason of a previous conviction, liable either to enhanced punishment or to a punishment of a different kind of such offence
98. New chapter of “plea bargaining” was added in the Criminal Procedure Code by
(1) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(2) Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2005
(3) Indian Evidence (Amendment) Act, 2005
(4) Indian Penal Code (Amendment) Act, 2005
99. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided by:
(1) Judicial Magistrate
(2) Executive Magistrate
(3) Either (1) or (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
100. A Magistrate dismisses a complaint after inquiry holding that identity of the accused is not disclosed in complaint order of the Magistrate is
(1) correct since it is mandatory to describe the identity of accused
(2) correct even if the identity is disclosed in the inquiry it is not revealed from the complaint
(3) incorrect since it is not mandatory to describe the identity of accused in complaint
(4) incorrect since the proper course for the Magistrate was to reject the complaint
101. If, in a complaint case it is made to appear to Magistrate that an investigation by the police is in progress in relation to the same offence, which of the following order(s) a Magistrate may pass under section 210 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
I. Return the complaint to be re-filed after police investigation
II. Stay the proceeding of inquiry or trial on such complaint
III. Call a report from the Investigating Officer
IV. Refer the complaint for investigation by police
V. Refer the complaint to Chief Judicial Magistrate
102. Victim means and includes:
(1) a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act of omission for which the accused person has been charged
(2) his or her guardian
(3) his or her legal heir
(4) all of these
103. What persons may be charged jointly?
(i) Persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction.
(ii) Persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence.
(iii) Persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, and persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence.
(iv) Persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, within the meaning of section 219 committed by them jointly within the period of twelve months.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(3) all of these
(4) none of these
104. With regard to the place of inquiry or trial, which of the following statements is false:
(1) When it is uncertain in which of several local areas an offence was committed, it may be inquired into or trial by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(2) Where an offence is committed partly in one local area and partly in another, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(3) Where an offence is a continuing one, and continues to be committed in more local areas than one, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(4) Where it consists of several acts done in different local areas, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over the local area in which first of such acts was committed
105. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits:
(1) Cognizable offence
(2) Non-bailable offence
(3) Cognizable and non-bailable offence
(4) Non-cognizable and non-bailable offence
NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS ACT, 1881
106. ‘A’ signs the instrument in the following terms. State the instrument which cannot be considered as promissory note:
(1) I promise to pay B or order INR 500
(2) I acknowledge myself to be indebted to B for INR 1,000 to be paid on demand for value received
(3) 1 promise to pay B INR 10,000 after three months
(4) I promise to pay B INR 500 seven days after my marriage with C
107. A Court trying an offence under section 138 may order the drawer of the cheque to pay interim compensation
(1) In summon case when drawer plead not guilty
(2) In other case after drawer's statement under section 313, CrPC has been recorded
(3) In a case tried summarily when notice for appearance of drawer is issued
(4) All of these
108. Which of the following statements is false. If the person committing an offense under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is a company:
(1) every person who, at the time the offense was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business of the company, as well as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty
(2) where a person is nominated as a Director of a company by virtue of his holding any office or employment in the Central or State Government, he shall not be liable for prosecution
(3) if. it is proved that the offense has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to, any neglect on the part of, any Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer of the company, such Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer shall also be deemed to be guilty
(4) none of these
109. When no rate of interest is specified in the instrument, interest on the amount due shall be calculated at the rate of—
(1) 6 percent
(2) 9 percent
(3) 12 percent
(4) 18 percent
110. Amendment in section 148 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 effective from 1st September, 2018 shall have a retrospective effect is held in the case of—
(1) Surinder Singh Deswat v. Virender Gandhi (2019)
(2) Indian Bank v. Promila (2020)
(3) Canara Bank v. Kameshwar Singh (2020)
(4) Sri Uttam Chand v. Nathu Ram (2020)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
111. River “Narmada” flows in which of following direction:
(1) North to South
(2) East to West
(3) West to East
(4) South to North
112. Which of the Water Falls is situated in Madhya Pradesh:
(1) Dhua dhar (Bhedaghat)
(2) Chachai
(3) Kapil dhara
(4) All of these
113. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education is established in:
(1) Indore
(2) Bhopal
(3) Gwailor
(4) Rewa
114. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) first time introduced in Indian Judicial System?
(1) Justice M. Hidaytullah
(2) Justice A.H. Ahamadi
(3) Justice A.S. Anand
(4) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
115. Which one is not ‘Rabi’ crop?
(1) Wheat
(2) Gram
(3) Lentil
(4) Paddy
116. The word famous rock-art site in India is situated at?
(1) Adamgarh
(2) Gupteshwar
(3) Bhimbekta
(4) Kabra Pahad
117. Boundary line drawn on map between India and China is known as
(1) McMohan Line
(2) Red Cliff Line
(3) Durand Line
(4) Red Line
118. Which of the following has won the Nobel peace prize 2020?
(1) World Economic Forum
(2) World Food Program
(3) Food and Agriculture Organization
(4) None of these
119. ‘Sputnik V’ which was in news recently is related to?
(1) a missile
(2) a chatbot
(3) a Russian artificial satellite
(4) a vaccine
120. Which State is the largest producer of pulses in India according to latest figures?
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Maharashtra
121. Where was freedom fighter Tatya Tope hanged in Madhya Pradesh?
(1) Indore
(2) Shivpuri
(3) Gwalior
(4) Vidisha
122. “Satya Mev Jayate” is taken from which Upanishad?
(1) Prashna Upanishad
(2) Aitereya Upanishad
(3) Mundak Upanishad
(4) Chandogya Upanishad
123. Artist Shri Beohar Rammanohar Sinha who illustrated the Preamble to the original Constitution of India is related to which district of Madhya Pradesh?
(1) Datia
(2) Jabalpur
(3) Indore
(4) Gwalior
124. The book named ‘Three ‘Decades in Parliament is a collection of the speeches of
(1) A.B. Vajpayee
(2) Somnath Chatterjee
(3) L.K. Advani
(4) N.G. Ranga
125. Entomology is the science that studies
(1) Behaviour of human beings
(2) Insects
(3) The origin and history of technical and scientific terms
(4) The formation of rocks
126. Independent India won its first Olympic hockey gold in ?
(1) 1952
(2) 1956
(3) 1960
(4) 1948
127. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?
(1) Sarod
(2) Veena
(3) Violin
(4) Sitar
128. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organisations?
(1) International Labour Organization
(2) Security Council
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) General Assembly
129. UN adopted which of the following resolutions sponsored by India
(i) Reducing Nuclear Danger
(ii) Convention on Prohibition of the use of Nuclear Weapons
(iii) Reducing Labour differences
(iv) Promoting Peace and Harmony
(1) only (i)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv).
130. Which of the following tiger reserves was awarded with the status of UNESCO Biosphere Reserve?
(1) Kanha National Park
(2) Bandhavgarh National Park
(3) Parma Tiger Reserve
(4) Madhav Tiger Reserve
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
131. Information on a computer is stored as
(1) analogue data
(2) tabular data
(3) digital data
(4) longitudinal data
132. In computer networking, FTP stands for
(1) Firmware Transfer Protocol
(2) Firewall Transfer Protocol
(3) File Transfer Protocol
(4) None of these
133. Which of the following statements is false
(1) Operating system is a software which performs all the basic tasks like file management, memory management, process management
(2) Establishment of communication/ interaction in between hardware and software is called interface
(3) Software's may broadly be categorized into system software, application software and programming software
(4) None of these
134. Assembler is a program that translate the program from
(1) High-level to assembly
(2) Assembly to machine
(3) Machine to assembly
(4) Machine to low-level
135. Device which is used to read a mark sense answer sheet of particular test is
(1) image scanner
(2) bar-code reader
(3) facsimile machine
(4) character or mark recognition device
136. Which of the following is not used as secondary storage?
(1) Semi-conductor memory
(2) Magnetic disks
(3) Magnetic drums
(4) Magnetic tapes
137. Which of one is a open source operating system
(1) Microsoft
(2) Linux
(3) MacOs
(4) None of these
138. “Miracast” is:
(1) Wireless Content Streaming Technology
(2) Wired Content Streaming Technology
(3) Feature in Chrome browser to cast webpages side by side
(4) None of these
139. When discussing technology, a hot spot is?
(1) A small overheated area on a CPU
(2) A place served by public wireless access
(3) Jargon for ah X-rated Web site
(4) A faulty area in the programming code
140. Shortcut for displaying the full page as they are printed
(1) Ctrl + Fl
(2) Ctrl + F2
(3) Shift + Fl
(4) Shift + F2
ENGLISH KNOWLEDGE
141. Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the sentence “A song embodying religious and sacred emotions”.
(1) Lyric
(2) Ode
(3) Hymn
(4) Ballad
142. “A past master” is a person who:
(1) Knows everything of the past
(2) Was perfect in the past but knows nothing now
(3) Possesses shallow knowledge
(4) Is thorough in a chosen field
143. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the bold word. The portal will help victims and complainants to anonymously report cyber crime.
(1) incognito
(2) directly
(3) unfailingly
(4) in situ
144. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/ phrase: Mrs. Hashmi has been in the blues for the last several weeks.
(1) abroad
(2) unwell
(3) depressed
(4) penniless
145. Give one word substitution “One V(ho pretends to be somebody else” called
(1) Narcissist
(2) Imposter
(3) Apostate
(4) Stoic
146. Impasse means
(1) Hidden
(2) Open to public
(3) Deadlock
(4) Choice.
147. Change this sentence from direct to indirect speech—“I said to him, Why are you working so hard”
(1) I asked him why he was working so hard
(2) I asked him why was he working so hard
(3) I asked him why had he been working so hard
(4) I asked him why he had been working so hard
148. Choose the one word which can be substituted for the given sentence: “That which cannot be corrected”
(1) Unintelligible
(2) Indelible
(3) Illegible
(4) Incorrigible
149. Find out the correct antonyms for the word “Diminish”
(1) Plummet
(2) Drop off
(3) Increase
(4) Reduce
150. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/ phrase Bird’s eye view
(1) to view something closely
(2) a general view from above
(3) to view suspiciously
(4) to look from a different angle
